RRB JE 2027 Sample Paper (CBT 1)

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 1)
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

100 100 90 Min +1 / −0.33

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 100 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 1 mark; 0.33 mark (one-third of the marks) is deducted for each wrong answer.

4. Total time allowed is 90 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 1)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 100 Max Marks 100 Time 90 Min Marking +1 / −0.33

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

MATHEMATICS

1. Anwar’s salary is ₹19,000 per month. He spends 2. A man bought two types of sharpeners, one at ₹18 for
₹4,500 on house rent, ₹1,500 on bills and the rest of the 9 sharpeners and the other at ₹8 per sharpener. He
amount is his monthly savings. Find his savings (in ₹) in a purchased an equal number of each type and sold all the
year, if in the month of his birthday, he spent his sharpeners at ₹8 per piece. Find his percentage profit.
complete monthly savings for his birthday
(A) 75%
celebration.2325
(B) 80%
(A) 1,17,000
(C) 60%
(B) 1,56,000
(D) 85%
(C) 1,30,000

(D) 1,43,000

3. A toy manufacturer originally makes a conical toy with 4. A store offers a trade discount of 16% on all items. In
a base radius of 3 cm and a height of 7 cm. Due to addition, they offer a “Buy four get one free” scheme on
customer demand, he now wants to produce a similar toy specific items. If a customer purchases five items each
that has 75% of the original volume, while keeping the marked at ₹700 and the “Buy four get one free” scheme
same base radius as before. What should be the height of applies, what is the total discounted price for five items,
the new toy? the customer has to pay?

(A) 5.5 cm (A) ₹2305

(B) 5.125 cm (B) ₹2352

(C) 5.75 cm (C) ₹2378

(D) 5.25 cm (D) ₹2336

5. If 2 : 4 :: 4.6 : x and 4 : 16 :: 2 : y, what is the ratio of x 6. The difference between compound interest,
to y? compounded annually, and simple interest for 3 years at
a rate of 20% per annum is ₹256. What is the principal
(A) 24 : 18
lent?
(B) 27 : 30
(A) ₹1,000
(C) 23 : 20
(B) ₹2,000
(D) 21 : 21
(C) ₹3,000

(D) ₹4,000

7. In an election between two candidates, 86% of the 8. The lengths of the three sides of a triangle are 13 cm,
registered voters cast their votes and 6% of the votes 14 cm and 15 cm, respectively. 2 Find the area (in cm ) of
polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 58% the incircle of this triangle. [Use π = 3.14]
of the valid votes and won the election by a margin of
(A) 56.52
202100 votes. How many voters were registered?
(B) 47.10
(A) 1562400
(C) 50.24
(B) 1562500
(D) 53.38
(C) 1562800

(D) 1562200

9. A shopkeeper sells his goods at cost price. If by using 10. A shopkeeper marks an article at ₹x and offers a
false weights he gains 3 %, then what weight does he use discount of 50% on it. He sells it for ₹287 after charging
for 1 kg (in g, rounded off to 2 decimal places)? VAT of 64% on the discounted price. What is the value of
x?895
(A) 987.35

(B) 964.29 (A) 300

(C) 938.99 (B) 200

(D) 954.79 (C) 250

(D) 350

11. The radius of a solid right circular cone is 24 cm and 12. Let and be roots of the equation , and the roots of the
its height is 32 cm. The total surface area of the cone is: equation are and . The value of is _____.

(A) 576π cm2 (A) 48

(B) 1536π cm2 (B) 42

(C) 960π cm2 (C) 45

(D) 1728π cm2 (D) 40

13. 2 A road roller of diameter 2.24 m and length 1 m has 14. A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days,
to press a ground of area 880 m . How many revolutions respectively. They started doing the work together but
does it make to complete the work? after 2 days, B had to leave, and A completed the
remaining work alone. The whole work was completed in
(A) 109
______________ days.
(B) 125
(A) 10
(C) 100
(B) 13
(D) 114
(C) 12

(D) 11

15. 2 What is the remainder when (x −4x+7) is divided by 16. By selling an article at 76% of its marked price, a
(x−2)? trader makes a loss of 20%. What will be the profit
percentage, if he sells it at 99% of its marked price?
(A) 3

(B) −1 (A) 1 1/19 %

(C) 1 (B) 3 3/19 %

(D) 7 (C) 4 4/19 %

(D) 2 2/19 %

17. Find the volume of a hemisphere, the circumference 18. A man bought two types of apples, one at ₹2 for 3
of whose base is 35.2 cm (rounded off to two places of apples and the other at ₹6 per apple. He purchased an
decimals; use π = 22/7). equal number of each type and sold all the apples at ₹6
per apple. Find his percentage profit.
(A) 369.34 cm³

(B) 363.56 cm³ (A) 78%

(C) 361.25 cm³ (B) 80%

(D) 367.96 cm³ (C) 77%

(D) 75%

19. In a 100-meter race, X runs at 5 m/s and Y at 4 m/s.
How much head start should X give Y (in meters) so that
the race ends in a tie?

(A) 25

(B) 15

(C) 20

(D) 10

20. Assertion (A): If the median of the given data (provided in ascending order): 26, 29, 42, 53, x, x + 2, 70, 75, 82, 93,
is 60 then the value of x is 59. Reason (R): When the number of observations (n) is even the median is the value of the
1/2 (sum of middle terms) provided data is arranged in ascending order.

(A) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

21. In what ratio should sugar costing ₹34/kg be mixed 22. If x2 - kx - 49 = 0 and x2 - 5kx + 11 = 0 (k > 0) have a
with sugar costing ₹58/kg so that by selling the mixture common root, then the value of k is:
at ₹52.80/kg, there is a profit of 32%?
(A) 15/4
(A) 5 : 3 (B) 15/7
(B) 7 : 3 (C) 15/2
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 15/8
(D) 5 : 2

23. If x is inversely proportional to y, and y = 7 when x = 24. The average of the first 18 positive multiples of 15 is:
16, find the value of x, when y = 2.
(A) 18
(A) 55 (B) 135
(B) 47 (C) 15
(C) 56 (D) 142.5
(D) 53

25. Kiran has borrowed an amount of ₹4,40,000 from a 26. Find the median of the following data. 7, 19, 88, 20,
bank to start a business. How much simple interest (in ₹) 19, 26, 90, 81, 44, 34.
will he pay at a rate of 7% per annum after 2 years?
(A) 30
(A) 60600 (B) 32
(B) 63600 (C) 28
(C) 61600 (D) 34
(D) 62600

27. The value of √(77 + √(12 + √(10 + √(32 + √16)))) is: 28. From the top of a cliff the angle of depression of a
point on the ground 240 feet away from the bottom of
(A) 13
the cliff is 30°. Find the height of the cliff (in feet,
(B) 8
rounded off to the nearest integer). (Use √3 = 1.732)
(C) 11
(A) 124
(D) 9
(B) 139

(C) 146

(D) 130

29. The average of the first 18 positive multiples of 10 is: 30. Simplify: 23 - [3 - {9 - (4 + 5)}]

(A) 95 (A) 20

(B) 90 (B) 24

(C) 10 (C) 27

(D) 18 (D) 17 " Test Date 19/02/2026 Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB JE DMS CMA

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

31. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 36, 289 58,
465

(A) 32, 256

(B) 19, 183

(C) 23, 185

(D) 21, 168

32. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son 33. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully.
of B’ A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’ A x B means ‘A is You have to take the given statements to be true even if
the wife of B’ A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’ Based on they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
the above, how is C related to G if ‘C x S + D ÷ F – G’? You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s)
from the given statements. Statements: All stamp are
(A) Daughter
logo. All stamp are cheque. All stamp are document.
(B) Wife
Conclusions (I): All logo are document. Conclusions (II):
(C) Brother's wife Some document are cheque.
(D) Brother's daughter
(A) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

(B) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

(C) Only conclusion (I) follows

(D) Only conclusion (II) follows

34. This question is based on the following words. OUT 35. In a certain code, 'great people gathering' is coded as
USE TUG RIP How many letters are there between the 'sc nj gy' 'great minds together' is coded as 'xg jp sc'
second letter of the first word from the right and the 'read people minds' is coded as 'nj ys jp' (all the codes
second letter of the first word from the left as per the are two letter coded only) What is the code for 'together
English alphabetical order? gathering'?

(A) 11 (A) sc ys

(B) 12 (B) gy ys

(C) 14 (C) gy jp

(D) 10 (D) xg gy

36. Six friends, O, P, Q, G, H and I, live on six different 37. In a certain code, ‘child plays game’ is coded as 'ra so
floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the tu' ‘adult plays work’ is coded as 'ke so mi' ‘game work
building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2 activity’ is coded as 'tu mi lo' Q. What is the code for
and so on, till the topmost floor, which is numbered 6. activity?
Only two people live between O and H. O lives above P.
(A) lo
Only two people live between Q and P. Only one person
(B) ke
lives between G and P. G lives on floor numbered 1. How
many people live above I? (C) mi

(D) tu
(A) One

(B) Three

(C) Two

(D) None

38. Refer to the following letter, number, symbol series 39. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully.
and answer the question that follows. (NOTE: All numbers Assuming that the information given in the statements is
are single digit numbers only) Counting to be done from true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
left to right only. (Left) H 9 & 3 L ! 6 M $ 7 R @ 4 C % 2 F known facts, decide which of the given conclusions
# 5 K * 8 P (Right) How many such symbols are there, logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All
each of which is immediately preceded by a number and papers are bags. All bags are copies. Some copies are
also immediately followed by another symbol? erasers. Conclusions: (I): All papers are erasers. (II): All
bags are erasers.
(A) Two

(B) None (A) Only conclusion (I) follows.

(C) One (B) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

(D) Three (C) Only conclusion (II) follows.

(D) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

40. What should come in place of '?' in the given series? 41. M, A, T, H and S, each have different ages and all
250 200 160 130 ? ages are integers. M is younger than only two persons. H
is 88 years old, which is the second highest age. S is
(A) 100
younger than M but older than A. Who is the eldest?2516
(B) 120
(A) H
(C) 90
(B) T
(D) 110
(C) S

(D) A

42. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the 43. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully.
following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way Assuming that the information given in the statements is
and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
does NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s)
not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements:
positions in the letter-cluster.) Some bins are cats. No cat is a deer. No cat is a tree.
Conclusions: (I): No bin is a deer. (II): Some trees are
(A) KMI
deers.
(B) VWT
(A) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
(C) PQN
(B) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
(D) YZW
(C) Only conclusion (II) follows.

(D) Only conclusion (I) follows.

44. In a certain code, ‘boy likes games’ is coded as 'tu vw 45. What should come in place of '?' in the given series? 7
xy' ‘girl likes music’ is coded as 'za vw rs' ‘music games 10 16 25 ?
hobby’ is coded as 'rs xy pq' Q. What is the code for
(A) 34
hobby ?
(B) 43
(A) vw
(C) 40
(B) rs
(D) 37
(C) pq

(D) xy

46. I, J, K, U, V and W live on six different floors of the 47. Study the given Venn diagram carefully and answer
same building. The lowermost floor in the building is the question. The numbers in different sections indicate
numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on, till the number of persons. (NOTE: You have to take the
the topmost floor is numbered 6. Only two people live given data to be true even if they seem to be at variance
between V and J. Only K lives above W. U lives on an even from commonly known facts.) How many Travelers are
numbered floor. V lives on the lowermost floor. How from Scotland but are not men?
many people live between I and K?
(A) 10
(A) One (B) 15
(B) Three (C) 19
(C) Four (D) 11 ₃
(D) Two

48. If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then 49. Refer to the following letter, symbol series and
what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the answer the question (Left) H F % G R @ # S $ M * % & N E
following equation? 8-21×3÷75+13=? Q Z U L @ T W (Right) If all the symbols are dropped from
the series, which of the following will be fourth from the
(A) 119
right?
(B) 120
(A) Q
(C) 128
(B) L
(D) 118
(C) U

(D) Z

50. Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a
different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending
on Sunday of the same week. Only five people have
exams after T. Only five people have exams before R. U
has exam immediately before P. V has exam before U but
on someday after S. How many people have exams
between V and Q?

(A) One

(B) Four

(C) Three

(D) Two

51. A question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements carefully and decide the appropriate
answer. Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who sits to the immediate left of C? I.
B sits second from one of the extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between B and C. D sits third to the right
of C. II. D sits to the immediate right of B. Only three people sit between D and A. E sits to the immediate right of
C.2146

(A) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

(B) Data in both statements I and II together is NOT sufficient to answer the question

(C) Data in both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) is sufficient to answer the question

(D) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

52. Each of C, D, E, F, X, Y and Z has an exam on a 53. Study the given Venn diagram carefully and answer
different day of a week starting from Monday and ending the question. The numbers in different sections indicate
on Sunday of the same week. Only two people have the number of persons. (NOTE: You have to take the
exams before D. Only one person has exam after C. Only given data to be true even if they seem to be at variance
three people have exams between D and Z. Only one from commonly known facts.) How many Poets are
person has exam between X and Y. F has exam neither Writers nor Teachers?
immediately before X. How many people have exam(s)
between E and X?3865

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Four

(D) Three

(A) 16

(B) 22

(C) 15

(D) 10

54. Diwakar starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards 55. This question is based on the following words. MUG
West. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns left TOP ACE GAS How many letters are there between the
and drives 11 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9 second letter of the first word from the right and the
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at second letter of the first word from the left as per the
Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which English alphabetical order?
direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(A) 18
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
(B) 19
(A) 3 km to the south
(C) 20
(B) 2 km to the north
(D) 22
(C) 2 km to the south

(D) 3 km to the north

GENERAL AWARENESS

56. Which rivers have contributed to the formation of the
Northwestern Plains of India?

(A) Krishna, Godavari, and Kaveri

(B) Satluj, Beas, and Ravi

(C) Ganga, Yamuna, and Brahmaputra

(D) Narmada, Tapti, and Mahanadi

57. Which of the following statements is/are correct about a non-Constitutional body, Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? (1)
RBI performs several crucial functions like regulating and supervising the banking system, managing the currency and
credit system and managing foreign exchange reserves. (2) RBI was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with
the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. (3) The Central Office of the RBI was initially established in
Kolkata but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (1) only

(C) (2) and (3) only

(D) (1), (2) and (3)

58. In December 2024, Masli, a village in which state, 59. Which economic model advocates that developing
became the first border solar village in India? countries should prioritize import substitution over free
trade to promote economic development?
(A) Odisha

(B) Gujarat (A) Comparative Advantage Theory

(C) Karnataka (B) Neoliberalism

(D) Madhya Pradesh (C) Export-led Growth Model

(D) Import Substitution Industrialization

60. The Indian Home Rule League at Madras was founded 61. Sonora-64 and Lerma Rojo are high-yielding varieties
by ______. (HYVs) of which crop introduced during the Green
Revolution in India?
(A) Subhas Chandra Bose

(B) Annie Besant (A) Rice

(C) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Barley

(D) Bala Gangadhar Tilak (C) Wheat

(D) Maize

62. In May 2025, DRDO’s DMSRDE laboratory in _________ 63. Which of the following coastal features in India is
created an advanced polymeric membrane designed for believed to have submerged due to tectonic or sea-level
high-pressure desalination of seawater. changes, as referenced in Indian mythology and
archaeology?
(A) Pune

(B) Hyderabad (A) Kavaratti in Lakshadweep

(C) Kanpur (B) Sunderbans in West Bengal

(D) Jaipur (C) Rameshwaram near Tamil Nadu

(D) Dwaraka near Gujarat

64. Who is the author of the book 'Leo: The Untold Story 65. Which missile system is being developed under
of Chennai Super Kings', which was launched in March Project Kusha to enhance India's air defence capabilities?
2025?
(A) BrahMos
(A) P.S. Raman (B) MICA
(B) Aniruddha Srikanth (C) Extended Range Air Defence System
(C) K. Chandrashekharan (D) S-400
(D) Ravichandran Ashwin

66. Which of the following bodies is described as the 67. How much fund is allotted to the Khelo India (national
"real executive" in the Indian political system? programme for development of sports) for FY26?

(A) Council of Ministers (A) ₹1,400 crore

(B) Supreme Court of India (B) ₹1,000 crore

(C) President of India (C) ₹1,200 crore

(D) Prime Minister of India (D) ₹1,600 crore

68. Libia Lobo Sardesai, who was honoured with the 69. Which of the following statements about
Padma Shri In January 2025, is known for her contribution Parliamentary Committees is TRUE?
to which of the following causes?
(A) Ad Hoc Committees are permanent in nature.
(A) Promotion of Konkani literature (B) Standing Committees are reconstituted from time to
(B) Women’s education in coastal India time and are permanent.

(C) Goa’s liberation struggle (C) There are no temporary Parliamentary Committees.

(D) Environmental conservation in Western Ghats (D) All Parliamentary Committees are permanent.

70. India commemorated the ________ irth anniversary of
b
Rabindranath Tagore on May 7, 2025.

(A) 164th

(B) 166th

(C) 160th

(D) 162nd

GENERAL SCIENCE

71. Which structural feature primarily enables upward 72. An electric iron uses a heating element made of an
movement of water against gravity in plants? alloy instead of pure metal. Which property of alloys
justifies this choice?
(A) Large intercellular spaces in spongy mesophyll

(B) Lignified xylem vessels forming continuous columns (A) Alloys have higher resistivity and do not oxidise readily
at high temperatures
(C) Actively dividing meristematic tissues
(B) Alloys are cheaper
(D) Thin-walled sieve tubes with companion cells
(C) Alloys are better conductors

(D) Alloys have lower resistivity

73. When magnesium reacts with oxygen to form 74. When two aqueous solutions react inside a sealed
magnesium oxide, which of the following statements is flask and form products, what happens to the total mass
NOT correct? of the system?

(A) Magnesium loses electrons to form Mg2+ ions. (A) It fluctuates during reaction

(B) Magnesium loses electrons to form Mg3+ ions. (B) It increases due to gas formation

(C) The compound formed contains ionic bonds. (C) It decreases due to precipitation

(D) Oxygen gains electrons to form O2- ions. (D) It remains unchanged throughout

75. Which of the following does NOT describe a property 76. Why do gases exert pressure on the walls of the
of ethanol (C₂H₅OH)? container?

(A) It is a clear, colourless liquid with a pleasant smell. (A) Gas particles attract the container walls strongly

(B) It reacts with sodium to release hydrogen gas. (B) Gas particles move randomly and strike the walls

(C) It is soluble in water in all proportions. (C) Gas particles stay fixed inside the container

(D) It turns blue litmus paper red. (D) Gas particles possess very low kinetic energy

77. A physicist uses a convex lens to focus sunlight onto 78. Which method helps prevent rancidity?
a piece of paper and notices the smallest, brightest spot
(A) Exposing food to sunlight
forms at a certain distance from the lens. Which property
(B) Heating food continuously
of the lens does this experiment help to determine?
(C) Adding excess water
(A) The experiment helps to determine the principal axis of
(D) Storing food in airtight containers
the lens.

(B) The experiment helps to determine the optical center of
the lens.

(C) The experiment helps to determine the diameter of the
lens.

(D) The experiment helps to determine the focal length of
the lens.

79. Which metal listed below shows the strongest 80. Chloroplast is present in which of the following parts
reaction when added to dilute hydrochloric acid? of a cell?

(A) Magnesium (A) Nucleoplasm

(B) Iron (B) Peroxisome

(C) Zinc (C) Cytoplasm

(D) Copper (D) Endoplasmic reticulum

81. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched, with 82. Which crop should a farmer consider for cultivation if
regard to plant and animal cells? he wants to increase protein content in his harvest?

(A) Plastids - Absent in animal cells (A) Cereals

(B) Vacuoles - Very large and present in plant cells (B) Oilseeds

(C) Plastids - Present in plant cells (C) Pulses

(D) Cell wall - Present in animal cells (D) Vegetables and spices

83. What happens to the work done if the displacement 84. Refer to the two statements given below and choose
becomes zero despite a force being applied? the CORRECT option. Statement A: Poor storage
conditions result in weight loss and discolouration of
(A) The work done decreases.
grains. Statement B: Poor storage conditions enhance
(B) The work done increases.
seed viability and grain texture.
(C) The work done is zero.
(A) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
(D) The work done remains constant.
(B) Both statements A and B are correct.

(C) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

(D) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

85. Which of the following statements best explains why 86. Equal pieces of zinc and copper are added separately
humans are severely affected by biological to dilute sulphuric acid. Which observation is CORRECT?
magnification?
(A) Both metals evolve hydrogen gas
(A) Humans can break down toxins (B) Neither metal evolves hydrogen gas
(B) Humans are best decomposers in food chain (C) Only zinc evolves hydrogen gas
(C) Humans consume less food than other consumers in (D) Only copper evolves hydrogen gas
food chain

(D) Humans occupy the top trophic level in many food
chains

87. Why are solids described as rigid in nature? 88. A farming community wants to maximize crop yield
despite limited increase in cultivable land. Which set of
(A) Their particles slide easily under applied external force
practices should they prioritize to achieve this goal?
(B) Their particles possess very low mass and volume
(A) Farming without introducing modern technology or high-
(C) Their particles are closely packed with strong attraction
yielding varieties.
(D) Their particles move freely with weak mutual attraction
(B) Crop variety improvement, crop production
improvement, and crop protection management.

(C) Solely expanding the use of traditional farming methods.

(D) Crop variety improvement and crop production
improvement only.

89. Which statement correctly describes a heterogeneous 90. When methane (CH ) burns completely in the
mixture? presence of sufficient oxygen, which 4 products are
formed?
(A) Its particles are uniformly distributed at particle level

(B) Its composition remains fixed and constant always (A) Carbon dioxide and carbon

(C) Its composition is not uniform throughout the mixture (B) Carbon and hydrogen

(D) Its components cannot be separated by physical (C) Carbon dioxide and water

methods (D) Carbon monoxide and water

91. A sound wave travels from air into water. How does 92. Which of the following metals is NOT refined by
its frequency, speed, and wavelength change as it electrolytic refining?
crosses the boundary?
(A) sodium
(A) Its frequency increases, speed remains the same, and (B) copper
wavelength decreases
(C) tin
(B) Its frequency decreases, speed decreases, and
(D) zinc
wavelength increases

(C) Its frequency remains constant, speed decreases, and
wavelength decreases

(D) Its frequency remains constant, speed increases, and
wavelength increases

93. Which element exists as a monoatomic molecule? 94. A room heater and an electric bulb both convert
electrical energy to heat, but why does only the bulb emit
(A) Oxygen
significant visible light?
(B) Chlorine
(A) The bulb's filament reaches a higher temperature,
(C) Nitrogen
emitting visible light
(D) Argon
(B) The heater uses magnetic effect instead of heating
effect

(C) The heater is made of a different material

(D) The circuit design is different

95. A large central vacuole is a characteristic feature of 96. Why are cross-breeding programmes between
which of the following cells? indigenous and exotic poultry breeds undertaken?

(A) Protozoan cells (A) To create hybrids with less attractive features

(B) Bacterial cells (B) To create hybrids showing similarity with their ancestors

(C) Plant cells (C) To develop new varieties with desirable traits

(D) Animal cells (D) To increase only the egg size

97. Which of the following statements about Plaster of 98. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic
Paris (POP) is CORRECT? organism?

(A) POP is CaSO4·2H2O and sets quickly on mixing with (A) Nuclear region is defined
water (B) Primitive form of organism
(B) POP is CaSO4·½H₂O and hardens by reacting with water (C) Membrane-bound organelles are absent
(C) POP is CaSO4·2H2O and is mainly used as a fertilizer (D) Single chromosome is present
(D) POP is CaSO4·½H₂O and sets slowly without water

99. Which of the following is the correct relationship 100. Why are sulphide ores usually converted into oxides
between the number of carbon and hydrogen atoms in before the extraction of metals?
alkenes?
(A) Metal sulphides react faster with carbon
(A) CnH2n+4 (B) Sulphide ores are unstable at room temperature
(B) CnH2n+2 (C) Sulphide ores contain more gangue materials
(C) CnH2n-2 (D) Metal oxides are easier to reduce than sulphides
(D) CnH2n

ANSWER KEY

1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B)

8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C)

15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (C)

22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (B)

29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (D)

36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D) 41. (B) 42. (A)

43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (C)

50. (C) 51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (B)

57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (B) 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (D)

64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (A)

71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (B) 77. (D)

78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (C) 81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (D)

85. (D) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (D)

92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (A)

99. (D) 100. (D)