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RRB JE 2027 Sample Paper (CBT 2 - Mechanical & Allied)

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RRB JE 2027 Sample Paper (CBT 2 - Mechanical & Allied) – Text

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Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - Mechanical &
Allied)
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

150 150 120 Min +1 / −0.33

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 150 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 1 mark; 0.33 mark (one-third of the marks) is deducted for each wrong answer.

4. Total time allowed is 120 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

Page 2

SAMPLE PAPER

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - Mechanical & Allied)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 150 Max Marks 150 Time 120 Min Marking +1 / −0.33

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

GENERAL AWARENESS & APTITUDE

1. Which of the following indicators is NOT typically used 2. The Kol Rebellion (1831–32) mainly affected which
to measure sustainable development? plateau region?

(A) Biocapacity (A) Chotanagpur Plateau

(B) Human Development Index (HDI) (B) Malwa Plateau

(C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate (C) Deccan Plateau

(D) Ecological Footprint (D) Meghalaya Plateau

3. What is the main reason sulfur dioxide irritates the 4. Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the
upper respiratory mucous membrane? eastern coastal plains?

(A) It combines with other pollutants and polymerizes in the (A) Ganga
lungs (B) Narmada
(B) It oxidizes to sulphur trioxide and inhaled deep into lung (C) Tapi
(C) It dissolves in moisture in upper respiratory tract and (D) Godavari
forms irritant

(D) It combines with haemoglobin and effect the oxygen
transport

5. Which experimental discovery contradicted Thomson's 6. What file extension is used to save an MS PowerPoint
model of the atom and led to its rejection? 2021 presentation?

(A) Alpha particle scattering showing deflection at large (A) .docx
angles (B) .pdf
(B) Discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick (C) .pptx
(C) Measurement of atomic radius using X-ray diffraction (D) .xlsx
(D) Observation of line spectra of hydrogen by Bohr

7. If cell A1 = 10 and B1 = 20, what will `=A1+B1` return? 8. Which of the following statements is true about the
Outbox?
(A) Error

(B) 1020 (A) It is used to receive incoming emails.

(C) 30 (B) It holds emails that have been successfully sent.

(D) 200 (C) It temporarily stores emails that are queued for sending.

(D) It contains emails that are currently being drafted.

Page 3

9. Which of the following statements best describes how 10. The pollutant group commonly associated with oil
the power of accommodation enables the human eye to spills in oceans is ______________.
focus on both near and distant objects?
(A) agricultural pesticides
(A) The cornea provides all the focusing power required for (B) chemical fertilizers
clear vision
(C) petroleum products
(B) The retina moves forward and backward to adjust the
(D) synthetic detergents
focus

(C) The eye lens changes its focal length by altering its
shape through ciliary muscle action

(D) The iris controls the amount of light entering and helps
to focus

11. How can we locate a file with a known extension but 12. Which British colonial building in Mumbai, completed
an unknown name in a large directory? in 1888, showcases a blend of Victorian Gothic and Indian
architectural elements?
(A) Through File Explorer

(B) Using the Search box in File Explorer with *.ext (A) Bombay Town Hall

(C) Checking the Recycle Bin (B) Gateway of India

(D) Using the dir command (C) Rajabai Clock Tower

(D) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus

13. Consider the following statements regarding chemical 14. The primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
reactions and choose the correct option. Statement I: Yojana (PMGSY) is to:
Every reaction in which two or more reactants combine to
(A) Develop urban infrastructure
form a single product is classified as a combination
(B) Provide rural connectivity through road construction
reaction regardless of heat change. Statement II: The
reaction CaO(s) + H O(l) → Ca(OH) (aq) + heat is both a (C) Enhance telecommunication services in cities

combination 2 2 reaction and an exothermic reaction. (D) Promote renewable energy usage

(A) Both statements are correct

(B) Both statements are incorrect

(C) Only Statement I is correct

(D) Only Statement II is correct

15. If 10 grams of salt are dissolved in 100 mL of water, 16. What is the general formula of alkenes?
which component is the solute?
(A) C H n 2n−2
(A) Neither (B) C H n 2n+2
(B) Water only (C) C H n n
(C) Both salt and water (D) C H n 2n
(D) Salt only

17. On which date is National Handloom Day observed in 18. Which of the following best describes the velocity-
India? time graph for an object moving with uniform velocity?

(A) 2 October (A) A straight horizontal line parallel to the time axis

(B) 5 September (B) A curved line above the time axis

(C) 18 August (C) A straight line sloping upwards from the time axis

(D) 7 August (D) A line starting from the origin and sloping upwards

Page 4

19. Which of the following is a primary mission under 20. Which pair of sectors is commonly addressed
India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)? together in State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC)
adaptation planning?
(A) National Nutrition Mission

(B) National Highway Development Project (A) Textile design and fashion marketing

(C) National Solar Mission (B) Water resources and health systems

(D) National Rural Livelihood Mission (C) Heavy industry and entertainment

(D) Information technology and space research

21. According to Thomson’s model, how are electrons 22. A student pushes a heavy box that is already moving
arranged in an atom? across a rough floor. If the force applied by the student is
exactly equal to the frictional force opposing the motion,
(A) Moving in fixed orbits around the nucleus
what will happen to the box?
(B) Randomly placed inside the nucleus
(A) The box will gradually come to rest
(C) Embedded in a positively charged sphere like seeds in a
watermelon (B) The box will move at a constant speed

(D) Orbiting around neutrons in elliptical paths (C) The box will accelerate forward

(D) The box will move at increasing speed

23. th The Mappila Uprisings of the 19 century occurred 24. When was the 11th National Handloom Day
mainly in which region of India? celebrated across India under the coordination of the
Ministry of Textiles?
(A) Konkan region of Maharashtra

(B) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu (A) October 7, 2025

(C) Sunderbans region of West Bengal (B) September 7, 2025

(D) Malabar region of Kerala (C) August 7, 2025

(D) November 7, 2025

25. The primary method of managing biodegradable 26. In a real-life scenario, a chemist discovers a
domestic waste after collection is _________________. compound with the formula CH CH CH(CH )CH CH OH.
What is the correct IUPAC name for this compound? 3 2 3
(A) burnt in open air
22
(B) conversion into compost
(A) 2-methylhexanol
(C) sending for recycling
(B) 3-methylpentan-1-ol
(D) throwing into sewers
(C) 3-methylhexanol

(D) 4-methylpentanol

27. Which of the following statements best describes the 28. Which condition is required for a displacement
behavior of magnetic field lines around a straight reaction between a metal and salt solution?
current-carrying conductor?
(A) Metal must be same as salt constituent
(A) They form concentric circles centered on the conductor. (B) Salt must be insoluble in water
(B) They radiate straight outward from the wire. (C) Metal must be higher in reactivity series
(C) They are parallel straight lines along the wire. (D) Reaction must be endothermic
(D) They change direction randomly along the wire.

Page 5

29. The term 'smog' is a combination of ____________. 30. Match the following columns. Pardoning power
Function
(A) Smog and mist

(B) Smoke and fog (A) 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a

(C) Smoke and haze (B) 1-c, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d

(D) Fog and clouds (C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-b

(D) 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a

31. Which function returns the smallest value? 32. Which of the following is/are the primary reasons to
fall in the trap of Email fraud or phishing? A) Paying
(A) COUNT()
attention to lucrative offers. B) Not checking on links or
(B) MAX()
attachments from unknown senders C) Providing official
(C) AVERAGE information via email D) Paying attention to the company
(D) MIN() logo sent in the email

(A) A only

(B) A, B, D Only

(C) A, B Only

(D) A, B, C Only

33. Who won the maximum number of medals at the 38th 34. According to the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution,
National Games of India? the total number of ministers (including the Prime
Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed
(A) Neeraj Chopra
what percentage of the total members of the House of
(B) Manu Bhaker
the People, i.e., Lok Sabha?
(C) Dhinidhi Desinghu
(A) 15%
(D) Bajrang Punia
(B) 25%

(C) 20%

(D) 10%

35. Which type of computer virus attaches itself to 36. Which of the following options must be DISABLED
executable files and gets activated when the file is run? before manually setting the date and time in Windows?

(A) Macro Virus (A) Set time zone globally

(B) Boot Sector Virus (B) Set time automatically

(C) File Infector Virus (C) Night Light

(D) Worm (D) Enable multiple clocks

37. Biomedical waste handlers in a hospital are at risk of 38. A factory plans to install a powerful electromagnet
occupational hazards. The most effective way to protect for lifting metal scraps. To maximize the magnetic field
them from exposure to infectious materials is: strength around the coil, which of the following
combinations would be most effective?
(A) Regular medical check-ups

(B) Segregation of waste into color-coded bins (A) Using a soft iron core, increasing coil turns, and
increasing current through the coil
(C) Use of protective equipment and safe handling
(B) Using an air core, decreasing coil turns, and keeping
(D) Vaccination against common infections
current constant

(C) Using a copper core, increasing coil turns, and lowering
current

(D) Using a steel core, decreasing coil turns, and lowering
current

Page 6

39. A field exposed to excessive pesticide use shows a 40. A student accidentally spills some hydrochloric acid
sharp decline in earthworm population. The resulting on a table. Which substance should be used to neutralise
effect on soil is: the acid safely?

(A) Increased water retention (A) Vinegar

(B) Enhanced decomposition (B) Lemon juice

(C) Improved aeration (C) Baking soda solution

(D) Reduced soil fertility (D) Sugar solution

41. Which new warship was commissioned by the Indian 42. You want to automatically advance slides with
Navy in November, 2025, to strengthen anti-submarine narration and animations during a presentation. Which
and coastal defence capabilities? MS PowerPoint feature should you use to achieve this?

(A) INS Mahe (A) Slide Sorter

(B) INS Vikrant (B) Action Buttons

(C) INS Arnala (C) Rehearse Timings

(D) INS Ikshak (D) Presenter View

43. A farmer applies large amounts of chemical fertilizers 44. Which Quick Style type is applied only to selected
over several years. Which consequence most likely words or individual characters within a paragraph in MS
results from this practice leading to soil pollution? Word 2010?

(A) Faster plant growth every season (A) Character styles

(B) Increase in earthworm population (B) Linked styles

(C) Accumulation of toxic substances in soil (C) Paragraph styles

(D) Erosion of surface soil layers (D) Page styles

45. A construction worker needs to lift a heavy metal 46. The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred
beam using a lever but has a limited length of plank. mainly in which region of India?
Which adjustment would allow the worker to lift the
(A) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu
beam with the least effort if the position of the fulcrum
(B) Sunderbans region of West Bengal
can be changed but the plank length remains constant?
(C) Konkan region of Maharashtra
(A) Keep the fulcrum fixed at any point
(D) Malabar region of Kerala
(B) Move the fulcrum closer to the worker

(C) Move the fulcrum closer to the beam

(D) Place the fulcrum at the center of the plank

47. Which of the following Articles states about the right 48. Which of the following satellites was launched on
of individual to form associations or unions or co- November 2, 2025, to enhance the Indian Navy’s secure
operative societies? communication network and maritime surveillance
capabilities?
(A) Article 19 (1) (a)

(B) Article 19 (1) (b) (A) Cartosat-3

(C) Article 19 (1) (d) (B) RISAT-2B

(D) Article 19 (1) (c) (C) CMS-03 (GSAT-7R)

(D) GSAT-6A

Page 7

49. The Atal Bhujal Yojana 2020 focused on improving 50. Which of the following best describes how sound
water resources management of how many states? travels through air?

(A) five (A) The air particles move in circular paths as the wave

(B) seven passes

(C) eight (B) The air particles remain stationary while the wave
moves through
(D) ten
(C) The air particles vibrate up and down perpendicular to
the direction of the wave

(D) The air particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the
direction of the wave

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (TECHNICAL)

51. When selecting a material for a component subjected 52. The ideal gas law for isothermal process can be
to cyclic loading and impact, which mechanical property represented as ______, (P is the pressure and V is the
should be prioritized along with hardness? volume of the gas at any stage).

(A) Plasticity must be considered to increase mass (A) P = constant.

(B) Ductility must be considered to avoid oxidation (B) PV = Constant.

(C) Toughness must be considered to resist sudden failure (C) V = constant.

(D) Elasticity must be considered for better insulation (D) P/V = Constant.

53. Why is direct current (DC) commonly used in MIG 54. Given are four concurrent forces: 10 N east, 20 N
(metal inert gas) welding? north, 15 N west, 25 N south. What is the direction of the
resultant force?
(A) It limits the types of metals that can be welded

(B) It offers a stable arc and consistent metal transfer (A) North-east

(C) It reduces penetration for thick materials (B) South-west

(D) It increases spatter for faster welding (C) South-east

(D) North-west

55. During the 'Shaping' operation conducted on a 56. Which defect results from improper shielding during
workpiece of aluminum material, the type of coolant used the welding process and causes gas pockets in the weld?
is:
(A) Slag inclusion
(A) kerosene (B) Undercut
(B) cutting compound (C) Lack of fusion
(C) mineral hard oil (D) Porosity
(D) dry kerosene turpentine

Page 8

57. In high-performance applications such as turbine 58. The shape of the bending moment diagram for a
shafts and precision gears, alloy steels are favored over cantilever beam subjected to a uniformly distributed load
mild steels primarily because they: (UDL) over the whole length is _____.

(A) Require less alloying and heat treatment to achieve (A) Rectangular
desired strength (B) Triangular
(B) Exhibit superior machinability due to refined ferritic (C) Trapezoidal
microstructure
(D) Parabolic
(C) Possess lower density and improved dimensional
stability

(D) Retain mechanical integrity and hardness under
conditions of elevated temperature and cyclic stress

59. What type of efficiency is most important for an axial 60. The most effective method for applying cutting fluid
flow compressor in high-speed applications? during high-speed machining is:

(A) Volumetric efficiency (A) Atomized spray

(B) Isentropic efficiency (B) Drip system

(C) Thermal efficiency (C) Hand pouring

(D) Mechanical efficiency (D) Flooding

61. If the electrolyte does not contain metal ions of the 62. Which of the following is a necessary modification in
plating metal, what is the most likely outcome? Newton’s second law to derive D'Alembert’s principle for
a dynamic system?
(A) The anode will become coated with metal

(B) No metal will deposit on the cathode (A) Incorporate a fictitious force equal to "minus mass times
acceleration"
(C) The process will create a thick oxide layer
(B) Omit all resistive forces acting on the system
(D) The cathode will dissolve in the solution
(C) Replace all forces with their average values

(D) Include only gravitational forces in the analysis

63. Corrosion resistance of alloy steels can be increased 64. Determine the gauge pressure given an absolute
further by: pressure of 2 atm and atmospheric pressure of 1 atm.

(A) Improving surface finish through mechanical polishing (A) 2 atm

(B) Adding a small percentage of copper to the composition (B) 1 atm

(C) Using protective coatings or chemical passivation (C) 3 atm
treatment (D) 0.5 atm
(D) Increasing the overall carbon content in the alloy

65. Which of the following best describes the function of 66. For a small spherical droplet of liquid with surface
a hoist in material handling systems? tension σ and diameter d, which of the following
correctly expresses the pressure intensity inside the
(A) Sorting materials by size during material handling
droplet p due to surface tension?
(B) Moving loads horizontally between different workstations
(A) p = 2σ/d
(C) Rotating loads for alignment during material handling
(B) p = 4σ/d
(D) Lifting and lowering loads vertically with controlled
movement (C) p = 6σ/d

(D) p = σ/d

Page 9

67. Which component in a cylindrical grinding machine 68. The lathe bed is designed with which type of
provides longitudinal movement to the workpiece? guideways?

(A) Wheel guard for safety (A) Circular

(B) Coolant system with pump (B) Rectangular

(C) Table with sliding mechanism (C) Triangular

(D) Spindle for work rotation (D) Inverted V and flat combination

69. The primary function of a sine bar is to: 70. A centrifugal pump is designed to deliver water at a
rate of Q = 0.1 m³/s against a total head of H = 25 m. If
(A) calibrate pressure gauges
the overall efficiency of the pump is η = 75%, what is the
(B) check thread pitches
approximate power input required to drive the pump?
(C) measure angles with high accuracy (Assume the density of water is ρ = 1000 kg/m³ and the
(D) measure linear dimensions acceleration due to gravity is g = 9.81 m/s².)

(A) 32.7 kW

(B) 43.6 kW

(C) 58.1 kW

(D) 24.5 kW

71. Which type of friction occurs when surfaces are 72. When selecting an organic coating for a steel
lubricated with a fluid? structure exposed to outdoor conditions, which
combination of properties should be prioritized for
(A) Rolling friction
effective long-term performance?
(B) Film friction
(A) Strong adhesion to substrate and high resistance to
(C) Dry friction
ultraviolet radiation.
(D) Static friction
(B) Ability to dissolve in water and rapid drying at room
temperature.

(C) High chemical reactivity and low cohesion with steel to
form a sacrificial layer.

(D) Low viscosity and low electrical insulation properties in
the formulation. "

73. The point of contraflexure occurs where _____. 74. Why is facing operation critical for assembly parts?

(A) Shear force is zero (A) It improves the cutting tool life during machining

(B) Bending moment changes sign operation.

(C) Load intensity is zero (B) It reduces the hardness of the material at the surface
region.
(D) Bending moment is maximum
(C) It ensures the end surface is flat and perpendicular to
the axis.

(D) It increases the overall strength of the workpiece
material.

Page 10

75. A mechanical engineer needs to choose a steel for a 76. The functioning of a comparator is based on:
structural component that requires moderate ductility
(A) The use of limit gauges
and high weldability. Based on the chemical composition
(B) An optical measuring system
and classification, which steel type should be
recommended? (C) The use of an accurately calibrated scale

(D) Comparison with a known standard, such as slip gauges
(A) Mild steel with low carbon and minimal alloying
elements

(B) Alloy steel with high chromium and nickel content

(C) Alloy steel with high manganese and vanadium content

(D) Mild steel with increased silicon and phosphorus content

77. A company manufactures a component at a variable 78. The horizontal and vertical components of a 100 N
cost of ₹40 per unit and incurs a fixed cost of ₹2,00,000 force inclined at 37° with the horizontal are: (consider
per year. An outside supplier offers the same component the approximation of sin 37°=0.6, cos 37°=0.8 and tan
at ₹60 per unit. What should the company do if the 37°=0.75)
annual demand is 12,000 units?
(A) 80 N and 60 N
(A) Outsource production to the supplier as it saves more (B) 60 N and 80 N
money
(C) 100 N and 0 N
(B) Split production equally between manufacturing and
(D) 70 N and 70 N
outsourcing

(C) Continue manufacturing the component in-house as it is
more cost-effective

(D) Reduce production and buy the remaining units from the
supplier

79. A cylindrical steel rod with a diameter of 20 mm is subjected to a tensile load of 40 kN. The material has a yield
strength of 450 MPa. Assuming the deformation remains within the elastic limit, calculate the factor of safety based
on the ultimate tensile strength and the yield strength. If the modulus of elasticity of the steel is 200 GPa, determine
the elongation of the rod over a length of 500 mm under this load. Which of the following options correctly represents
the factor of safety based on yield strength and the elongation?

(A) Factor of Safety (Yield) = 3.58, Elongation = 0.8 mm

(B) Factor of Safety (Yield) = 3.58, Elongation = 0.318 mm

(C) Factor of Safety (Yield) = 2.25, Elongation = 0.5 mm

(D) Factor of Safety (Yield) = 2.25, Elongation = 0.318 mm

80. Water as a cutting fluid does NOT spread well over a 81. What is the typical least count of a bevel protractor
surface to wet it because of _____. with a vernier scale?

(A) low surface tension (A) 1°

(B) high buoyancy force (B) 0.1°

(C) high volatility (C) 10 minutes

(D) high surface tension (D) 5 minutes

Page 11

82. Which of the following can be measured using 83. With an increase in angle of the inclined surface, the
interferometry? maximum angle at which a body starts sliding down the
plane is called ___________.
(A) Frequency of vibration

(B) Linear displacement (A) Static friction

(C) Surface roughness (B) cone angle

(D) Depth of micro‑grooves (C) limiting friction

(D) angle of friction

84. An LVDT (Linear Variable Differential Transformer) is 85. Which two types of thermodynamic processes
primarily used in which type of comparator? constitute the Carnot cycle in an ideal heat engine?

(A) Electrical comparator (A) Adiabatic and isochoric

(B) Mechanical comparator (B) Isothermal and adiabatic

(C) Optical comparator (C) Isothermal and isochoric

(D) Pneumatic comparator (D) Isobaric and isochoric

86. A center drill is used before drilling because it: 87. Which of the following is an example of a positive
displacement air compressor?
(A) Increases the temperature at the cutting zone

(B) Provides a pilot hole to guide the main drill (A) Centrifugal compressor

(C) Removes burrs and debris from the drilled hole (B) Radial dynamic compressor

(D) Reduces the spindle rotation of the lathe (C) Axial flow compressor

(D) Reciprocating piston compressor

88. Which of the following is a primary application of 89. For drilling a hole on a lathe, the drilling tool is
interferometry in metrology? placed in the ______.

(A) Analyzing thermal conductivity of metals (A) tool post

(B) Measuring surface flatness with high precision (B) tailstock

(C) Determining chemical composition by spectroscopy (C) chuck

(D) Calculating torque in shafts using sensors (D) carriage

90. Under which scenario is a body on an inclined plane 91. What is the role of the acute angle attachment in a
most likely to slip when subjected to a parallel force? Bevel Protractor?

(A) Frictional force equals weight of the body (A) To adjust the stock

(B) Coefficient of friction is less than tangent of inclination (B) To measure linear distances

(C) Normal reaction is greater than weight (C) To measure acute angles less than 90°

(D) Parallel force is opposite to frictional force (D) To lock the vernier scale

92. Which characteristic best describes the arc in 93. Which material handling equipment would be most
submerged arc welding? suitable for transferring bulk granular materials over a
long horizontal distance within a factory?
(A) The arc is exposed to the atmosphere during welding

(B) The arc is shielded only by inert gas during welding (A) Forklift transportation

(C) The arc is completely covered by a layer of flux (B) Overhead crane arrangement

(D) The arc is visible and produces bright light during (C) Belt conveyor system

welding (D) Pallet truck operation

Page 12

94. What is the main chemical change that occurs on the 95. Which of the following plots is used for the
metal surface during anodizing? classification of types of facilities and layouts used for
different levels of the production?
(A) Removal of the oxide layer

(B) Deposition of metallic ions (A) Production mass vs. product variety plot

(C) Formation of a thick oxide layer (B) Production quantity vs. product cost plot

(D) Dissolving the metal away (C) Production quantity vs. product variety plot

(D) Product cost vs. product variety plot

96. What is the nature of strain as a physical quantity? 97. The saddle of a lathe carriage:

(A) It has units of length. (A) Moves the lead screw mechanism

(B) It has units of force per area. (B) Supports the cross-slide and tool post

(C) It is dimensionless. (C) Controls spindle speed automatically

(D) It has units of volume. (D) Rotates the workpiece against tool

98. When a mild steel bar is loaded in tension within the 99. Which of the following is not a type of friction?
elastic limit, the relation between stress and strain is:
(A) Rolling friction
(A) Stress ∝ (Strain)² (B) Static friction
(B) Stress ∝ √(Strain) (C) Gravitational friction
(C) Stress independent of strain (D) Kinetic friction
(D) Stress ∝ Strain

100. The center of pressure for a submerged horizontal 101. Which of the following is a limitation of conventional
plane surface is: oxy-fuel gas cutting?

(A) The point of total hydrostatic force, located below the (A) Cannot cut stainless steel efficiently
centroid when the surface is inclined (B) Cannot cut mild steel plates
(B) The centroid of the plane surface, representing the (C) Cannot cut thick carbon steels
geometric center of the submerged area
(D) Requires electrical input for operation
(C) The top edge of the submerged surface, taken as the
uppermost boundary of fluid contact

(D) A position independent of the depth of immersion,
unaffected by how far the surface is submerged

102. A company faces an annual demand of 10,000 units, 103. Which of the following best defines the specific
a fixed ordering cost of ₹200 per order, and a holding weight of a fluid?
cost of ₹4 per unit per year. What is the EOQ for this
(A) The weight of fluid per unit mass
company?
(B) The weight of fluid per unit pressure
(A) The EOQ is 4000 units
(C) The weight of fluid per unit force
(B) The EOQ is 1000 units
(D) The weight of fluid per unit volume
(C) The EOQ is 5000 units

(D) The EOQ is 2240 units

Page 13

104. Trackless cranes are mainly used for: 105. Which of the following is NOT a type of water-based
cutting fluid?
(A) Lifting loads in confined or uneven areas

(B) Operations limited to fixed tracks (A) Dispersion

(C) Handling liquid materials only (B) Grease

(D) Continuous material transport (C) Emulsion

(D) Solution

106. Which property of rubber-based coatings makes 107. In a two-stroke diesel engine, the exhaust gases are
them suitable for protecting steel pipes in industrial removed through:
environments?
(A) Ports
(A) The coating improves the electrical conductivity of the (B) Spark plug
pipe surface
(C) Carburetor
(B) The coating provides high levels of thermal conductivity
(D) Valves
for the pipes

(C) The coating's flexibility prevents cracking under
vibration and resists chemical attack

(D) The coating's color remains durable even with prolonged
sunlight exposure

108. What is the heat supplied to a Carnot engine that 109. ___________ is used to measure the pressure
produces 100 kW of useful work at an efficiency of 35%? difference in a Venturi meter.

(A) 300 kW (A) Bourdon gauge

(B) 150 kW (B) Manometer

(C) 200 kW (C) Rotameter

(D) 285.7 kW (D) Pitot tube

110. Which type of flux is most suitable for minimizing 111. Which component is essential in a profile projection
oxidation in high-temperature aluminum welding method for accurately displaying the outline of a machine
applications involving magnesium alloys? part?

(A) Fluoride-based flux (A) Collimated light source with precise screen alignment

(B) Borax-based flux (B) Simple lamp with diffused translucent screen

(C) Zinc chloride-based flux (C) Curved screen with angled light projection

(D) Rosin-based flux (D) Non-reflective surface with ambient room lighting

112. A force of 10 N acts along a line OB, which makes an 113. You must inspect a welded aluminum structure for
angle of 60° with the horizontal line OA. What is the both surface and internal defects with minimal health
component of the force along the direction of the acute risk to operators. Which combination of tests is most
angle bisector of angle ∠AOB? appropriate?

(A) 10 sin 30° N (A) Radiographic and magnetic particle testing

(B) 10 N (B) Dye penetrant and ultrasonic testing

(C) 10 cos 60° N ° (C) Radiographic and ultrasonic testing

(D) 10 cos 30 N (D) Visual and magnetic particle testing

Page 14

114. Which of the following is considered a common 115. Which manufacturing method is primarily used to
surface defect in welding processes? harden and set silicate-bonded grinding wheels?

(A) Undercut along the weld bead (A) High-pressure forging of abrasive particles

(B) Excessive spatter deposits (B) Low-temperature drying without firing

(C) Lamellar tearing in plate (C) Controlled firing at moderate temperature

(D) Incomplete penetration at root (D) Chemical polymerization at room temperature

116. Which property most significantly differentiates mild 117. Why is a steady rest sometimes used in cylindrical
steel from alloy steel when exposed to high-temperature grinding?
mechanical stress in industrial applications?
(A) To cool the workpiece during grinding
(A) Mild steel provides improved wear resistance under high (B) To align the grinding wheel to the table
temperatures compared to alloy steel
(C) To support long workpieces during rotation
(B) Alloy steel maintains higher mechanical strength at
(D) To hold abrasive materials for grinding
elevated temperatures compared to mild steel

(C) Alloy steel demonstrates greater ductility at elevated
temperatures than mild steel

(D) Mild steel has enhanced corrosion resistance at high
temperatures compared to alloy steel

118. A component in a high-impact environment requires 119. Why is water mixed with oil often preferred as a
resistance to fracture with minimal deformation. Which grinding coolant over plain water?
material property would be most critical to avoid
(A) It provides both cooling and lubrication
premature failure?
(B) It increases corrosion of metals
(A) High brittleness with low ductility
(C) It makes coolant less effective
(B) Low brittleness with high toughness
(D) It decreases grinding time significantly
(C) High brittleness with high elasticity

(D) Low brittleness with low stiffness

120. Intensity of pressure at a point in a fluid is: 121. In ___________ process, heat is added during Otto
cycle.
(A) Pressure includes both normal and shear stresses acting
simultaneously at a point (A) Isentropic compression

(B) Total normal force acting uniformly over a surface, (B) Constant pressure
independent of area and location within the fluid (C) Isothermal expansion
(C) Pressure at a point varies significantly with direction (D) Constant volume
even in a static fluid

(D) Normal force per unit area at a point in the fluid, scalar
intensity independent of direction

122. What type of measurement does a 'comparator' 123. A force of 100 N acting on a rigid body is moved to
work on? another point along the same line of action. What is the
effect on the external equilibrium of the body?
(A) Absolute measurement

(B) Basic measurement (A) The external equilibrium changes

(C) Direct measurement (B) The effect depends on the material

(D) Relative measurement (C) The force magnitude becomes zero

(D) The external equilibrium remains unchanged

Page 15

124. Why does the vapor pressure of a liquid increase 125. If a block slides down a rough plane inclined at 30°
with an increase in temperature? with a coefficient of friction of 0.2, the net acceleration
is:
(A) Molecules gain kinetic energy to escape into vapor

(B) Surface tension remains constant (A) 0.326 g

(C) Viscosity reduces exponentially (B) 0.676 g

(D) Density reduces in a straight-line manner (C) Zero

(D) 0.5 g

126. A technician wants to improve flatness and surface 127. In a scenario where excessive spatter occurs during
quality of a gauge block using lapping. What is the most arc welding, which adjustment is most likely to mitigate
important factor to control? the issue without compromising weld quality?

(A) Applying excessive force to speed up lapping (A) Switching to a larger electrode

(B) Using coarse abrasives for faster removal (B) Reducing arc length slightly

(C) Uniform pressure and movement across the surface (C) Decreasing base metal thickness

(D) High temperature and fast lap speed (D) Increasing travel speed marginally

128. For shafts designed to transmit the same torque, 129. The maximum bending moment for a simply
which statement is generally true when comparing a solid supported beam of span L with uniformly distributed load
shaft to a hollow shaft of the same material and outer (UDL) w per unit length is _____.
diameter?
(A) WL2/16
(A) The hollow shaft has a lower torsional stiffness but lower (B) WL2/2
weight.
(C) WL2/12
(B) The hollow shaft has a higher torsional stiffness and
(D) WL2/8
higher weight.

(C) The solid shaft has a higher torsional stiffness and lower
weight.

(D) Both shafts have equal torsional stiffness and equal
weight.

130. Which of the following pair of processes in the Otto 131. In malleability, material is subjected to which of the
cycle are both isentropic? following stresses?

(A) Compression and heat rejection processes (A) Fatigue stress

(B) Heat addition and heat rejection processes (B) Shear stress

(C) Expansion and heat addition processes (C) Tensile stress

(D) Compression and expansion processes (D) Compressive stress

132. How do the gear mechanism and braking system in a 133. Which of the following properties is used as the
hoist contribute to safe lifting operations? basis for temperature measurement in constant volume
thermometers?
(A) The gear mechanism increases speed and the brake
system adds force to lifting (A) Pressure

(B) The brake system increases speed and the gear (B) Volume
mechanism holds the load steady (C) Entropy
(C) Both gear mechanism and brake system work only (D) Enthalpy
during lowering of load

(D) The gear mechanism reduces speed while the brake
system holds the load steady

Page 16

134. Which of the following is a limitation of mechanical 135. A hollow shaft has an outer diameter twice its inner
comparators? diameter of a solid shaft, both constructed from the same
material, and having identical outer diameters. The ratio
(A) They cannot measure linear dimensions
of their torsional strength is:
(B) Mechanical wear can reduce accuracy over time
(A) 13/14
(C) They cannot measure small deviations
(B) 2/3
(D) They require electricity
(C) 15/16

(D) 5/9

136. Which defect is most likely to result from excessive 137. Mild steel shows poor corrosion resistance mainly
carburizing time in steel heat treatment? because it:

(A) Increase in porosity throughout the component (A) Does not contain protective elements like chromium or

(B) Development of coarse pearlite across the section nickel

(C) Initiation of intergranular corrosion in the core (B) Forms a dense but non-protective oxide layer on the
surface
(D) Formation of excessive retained austenite at the surface
(C) Contains a relatively high amount of carbon

(D) Possesses a non-uniform and less stable microstructure

138. Which of the following best describes the purpose of 139. Which of the following best describes the principle
ABC analysis in inventory management? of parkerising?

(A) To categorize inventory items based on significance in (A) A phosphate layer forms by chemical reaction
value and usage frequency (B) A paint coating is applied to the surface
(B) To group inventory items based on supplier location and (C) A polymer coating is sprayed on the surface
delivery schedule
(D) Surface roughness is increased mechanically
(C) To organize inventory items solely by their production
shelf life in warehouse

(D) To store inventory items according to their physical
characteristics in the warehouse

140. A hollow shaft is designed to transmit a torque of 141. Radial flow pumps are preferred when:
40000 N-m. The polar moment of 4 inertia (J) is 0.004 m .
(A) Flow is very viscous
The ratio of inside diameter to outside diameter of the
(B) Only low suction head is available
hollow shaft ( is . The inside diameter is . What is the
maximum induced D /D ) 0.8 400 mm i o shear stress (t ) (C) High flow, low head is required

at the outer fiber of the shaft? max (D) Low flow, high head is required

(A) 2500 MPa

(B) 2.5 MPa

(C) 250 MPa

(D) 0.25 MPa

Page 17

142. The area under load v/s elongation diagram for a 143. A synthetic oil is contained in an accelerating
ductile material upto fracture indicates _____. elevator moving upward with acceleration (a). If the
pressure intensity at the free surface is atmospheric, the
(A) Resilience
intensity of pressure at a depth (h) below the surface is
(B) Modulus of toughness
[take (g) as the acceleration due to gravity]:
(C) Modulus of resilience
(A) P - ρgh atm
(D) Toughness
(B) P - ρ(g−a)h atm

(C) P + ρ(g+a)h atm

(D) P + ρgh atm

144. In ABC analysis, the letter 'C' is designated to: 145. For a simply supported beam with multiple point
loads, maximum bending moment occurs where:
(A) high valued items, smaller in number

(B) high valued items, larger in number (A) Reaction = 0

(C) low valued items, smaller in number (B) Load = 0

(D) low valued items, larger in number (C) Deflection = 0

(D) Shear force = 0

146. After leaving the low-pressure cylinder in a two- 147. Which characteristic is assessed in the bend test for
stage air compressor, where does the air go next? welded joints?

(A) To the intercooler (A) Ductility of the weld metal

(B) Back to the atmosphere (B) Magnetic properties check

(C) To the high pressure cylinder directly (C) Surface finish of the weld

(D) To the air receiver tank (D) Chemical composition check

148. In a workshop, why might a lever-operated hoist be 149. During oxy-acetylene gas welding, improper
preferred over an electric hoist for certain applications? adjustment of the neutral flame can most likely result in
which weld defect on stainless steel?
(A) Lower initial cost and larger load lifting capacity

(B) High lifting speed and remote control capabilities (A) Occurrence of incomplete root fusion in the joint

(C) Continuous operation and automatic overload protection (B) Formation of significant undercut along the joint

(D) Portability and suitability for short, manual lifting (C) Development of porosity within the weld metal

operations (D) Excessive oxidation at the weld bead surface

150. The type of surface produced by a taper turning
operation performed on a lathe machine is:

(A) curved one

(B) flat

(C) conical

(D) cylindrical

ANSWER KEY

1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C)

8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B)

15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (C)

22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C)

Page 18

29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)

36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C)

43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (B)

50. (D) 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (A) 56. (D)

57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (C)

64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (A)

71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (A) 76. (D) 77. (C)

78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (D) 81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (A)

85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (B) 91. (C)

92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (D)

99. (C) 100. (B) 101. (A) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (A) 105. (B)

106. (C) 107. (A) 108. (D) 109. (B) 110. (A) 111. (A) 112. (D)

113. (B) 114. (A) 115. (C) 116. (B) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A)

120. (D) 121. (D) 122. (D) 123. (D) 124. (A) 125. (A) 126. (C)

127. (B) 128. (C) 129. (D) 130. (D) 131. (D) 132. (D) 133. (A)

134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D) 137. (A) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (B)

141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (C) 144. (D) 145. (D) 146. (A) 147. (A)

148. (D) 149. (D) 150. (C)

Document Details

Board / OrgRailway
ExamRailway Recruitment Board Junior Engineer
TypeSample Paper
Pages18
Languageenglish
Updated24 Sep 2026