RRB JE 2027 Sample Paper (CBT 2 - Electrical & Allied)

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - Electrical &
Allied)
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

150 150 120 Min +1 / −0.33

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 150 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 1 mark; 0.33 mark (one-third of the marks) is deducted for each wrong answer.

4. Total time allowed is 120 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - Electrical & Allied)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 150 Max Marks 150 Time 120 Min Marking +1 / −0.33

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

GENERAL AWARENESS & APTITUDE

1. The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred 2. A factory plans to install a powerful electromagnet for
mainly in which region of India? lifting metal scraps. To maximize the magnetic field
strength around the coil, which of the following
(A) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu
combinations would be most effective?
(B) Sunderbans region of West Bengal
(A) Using a soft iron core, increasing coil turns, and
(C) Konkan region of Maharashtra
increasing current through the coil
(D) Malabar region of Kerala
(B) Using an air core, decreasing coil turns, and keeping
current constant

(C) Using a copper core, increasing coil turns, and lowering
current

(D) Using a steel core, decreasing coil turns, and lowering
current

3. Which of the following Articles states about the right 4. The atmospheric component that remains largely
of individual to form associations or unions or co- unreactive is _____________.
operative societies?
(A) Methane
(A) Article 19 (1) (a) (B) Argon
(B) Article 19 (1) (b) (C) Carbon dioxide
(C) Article 19 (1) (d) (D) Oxygen
(D) Article 19 (1) (c)

5. Consider the following statements regarding chemical 6. A farmer applies large amounts of chemical fertilizers
reactions and choose the correct option. Statement I: over several years. Which consequence most likely
Every reaction in which two or more reactants combine to results from this practice leading to soil pollution?
form a single product is classified as a combination
(A) Faster plant growth every season
reaction regardless of heat change. Statement II: The
(B) Increase in earthworm population
reaction CaO(s) + H O(l) → Ca(OH) (aq) + heat is both a
combination 2 2 reaction and an exothermic reaction. (C) Accumulation of toxic substances in soil

(D) Erosion of surface soil layers
(A) Both statements are correct

(B) Both statements are incorrect

(C) Only Statement I is correct

(D) Only Statement II is correct

7. Which of the following is a primary mission under 8. Which condition is required for a displacement reaction
India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)? between a metal and salt solution?

(A) National Nutrition Mission (A) Metal must be same as salt constituent

(B) National Highway Development Project (B) Salt must be insoluble in water

(C) National Solar Mission (C) Metal must be higher in reactivity series

(D) National Rural Livelihood Mission (D) Reaction must be endothermic

9. On which date is National Handloom Day observed in 10. A construction worker needs to lift a heavy metal
India? beam using a lever but has a limited length of plank.
Which adjustment would allow the worker to lift the
(A) 2 October
beam with the least effort if the position of the fulcrum
(B) 5 September
can be changed but the plank length remains constant?
(C) 18 August
(A) Keep the fulcrum fixed at any point
(D) 7 August
(B) Move the fulcrum closer to the worker

(C) Move the fulcrum closer to the beam

(D) Place the fulcrum at the center of the plank

11. In a real-life scenario, a chemist discovers a 12. The term 'smog' is a combination of ____________.
compound with the formula CH CH CH(CH )CH CH OH.
(A) Smog and mist
What is the correct IUPAC name for this compound? 3 2 3
(B) Smoke and fog
22
(C) Smoke and haze
(A) 2-methylhexanol
(D) Fog and clouds
(B) 3-methylpentan-1-ol

(C) 3-methylhexanol

(D) 4-methylpentanol

13. Which British colonial building in Mumbai, completed 14. According to the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution,
in 1888, showcases a blend of Victorian Gothic and Indian the total number of ministers (including the Prime
architectural elements? Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed
what percentage of the total members of the House of
(A) Bombay Town Hall
the People, i.e., Lok Sabha?
(B) Gateway of India
(A) 15%
(C) Rajabai Clock Tower
(B) 25%
(D) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus
(C) 20%

(D) 10%

15. Who won the maximum number of medals at the 38th 16. The Kol Rebellion (1831–32) mainly affected which
National Games of India? plateau region?

(A) Neeraj Chopra (A) Chotanagpur Plateau

(B) Manu Bhaker (B) Malwa Plateau

(C) Dhinidhi Desinghu (C) Deccan Plateau

(D) Bajrang Punia (D) Meghalaya Plateau

17. What is the main reason sulfur dioxide irritates the 18. Which new warship was commissioned by the Indian
upper respiratory mucous membrane? Navy in November, 2025, to strengthen anti-submarine
and coastal defence capabilities?
(A) It combines with other pollutants and polymerizes in the
lungs (A) INS Mahe

(B) It oxidizes to sulphur trioxide and inhaled deep into lung (B) INS Vikrant

(C) It dissolves in moisture in upper respiratory tract and (C) INS Arnala
forms irritant (D) INS Ikshak
(D) It combines with haemoglobin and effect the oxygen
transport

19. Which of the following satellites was launched on 20. Which of the following options must be DISABLED
November 2, 2025, to enhance the Indian Navy’s secure before manually setting the date and time in Windows?
communication network and maritime surveillance
(A) Set time zone globally
capabilities?
(B) Set time automatically
(A) Cartosat-3
(C) Night Light
(B) RISAT-2B
(D) Enable multiple clocks
(C) CMS-03 (GSAT-7R)

(D) GSAT-6A

21. The pollutant group commonly associated with oil 22. Which of the following is/are the primary reasons to
spills in oceans is ______________. fall in the trap of Email fraud or phishing? A) Paying
attention to lucrative offers. B) Not checking on links or
(A) agricultural pesticides
attachments from unknown senders C) Providing official
(B) chemical fertilizers
information via email D) Paying attention to the company
(C) petroleum products logo sent in the email
(D) synthetic detergents
(A) A only

(B) A, B, D Only

(C) A, B Only

(D) A, B, C Only

23. Which experimental discovery contradicted 24. What file extension is used to save an MS PowerPoint
Thomson's model of the atom and led to its rejection? 2021 presentation?

(A) Alpha particle scattering showing deflection at large (A) .docx
angles (B) .pdf
(B) Discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick (C) .pptx
(C) Measurement of atomic radius using X-ray diffraction (D) .xlsx
(D) Observation of line spectra of hydrogen by Bohr

25. Which of the following statements best describes the 26. When was the 11th National Handloom Day
behavior of magnetic field lines around a straight celebrated across India under the coordination of the
current-carrying conductor? Ministry of Textiles?

(A) They form concentric circles centered on the conductor. (A) October 7, 2025

(B) They radiate straight outward from the wire. (B) September 7, 2025

(C) They are parallel straight lines along the wire. (C) August 7, 2025

(D) They change direction randomly along the wire. (D) November 7, 2025

27. Which of the following indicators is NOT typically 28. Which of the following best describes how sound
used to measure sustainable development? travels through air?

(A) Biocapacity (A) The air particles move in circular paths as the wave

(B) Human Development Index (HDI) passes

(C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate (B) The air particles remain stationary while the wave
moves through
(D) Ecological Footprint
(C) The air particles vibrate up and down perpendicular to
the direction of the wave

(D) The air particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the
direction of the wave

29. The primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak 30. How can we locate a file with a known extension but
Yojana (PMGSY) is to: an unknown name in a large directory?

(A) Develop urban infrastructure (A) Through File Explorer

(B) Provide rural connectivity through road construction (B) Using the Search box in File Explorer with *.ext

(C) Enhance telecommunication services in cities (C) Checking the Recycle Bin

(D) Promote renewable energy usage (D) Using the dir command

31. You want to automatically advance slides with 32. Which of the following best describes the velocity-
narration and animations during a presentation. Which time graph for an object moving with uniform velocity?
MS PowerPoint feature should you use to achieve this?
(A) A straight horizontal line parallel to the time axis
(A) Slide Sorter (B) A curved line above the time axis
(B) Action Buttons (C) A straight line sloping upwards from the time axis
(C) Rehearse Timings (D) A line starting from the origin and sloping upwards
(D) Presenter View

33. Biomedical waste handlers in a hospital are at risk of 34. Match the following columns. Pardoning power
occupational hazards. The most effective way to protect Function
them from exposure to infectious materials is:
(A) 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a
(A) Regular medical check-ups (B) 1-c, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d
(B) Segregation of waste into color-coded bins (C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-b
(C) Use of protective equipment and safe handling (D) 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a
(D) Vaccination against common infections

35. Which of the following statements is true about the 36. A student accidentally spills some hydrochloric acid
Outbox? on a table. Which substance should be used to neutralise
the acid safely?
(A) It is used to receive incoming emails.

(B) It holds emails that have been successfully sent. (A) Vinegar

(C) It temporarily stores emails that are queued for sending. (B) Lemon juice

(D) It contains emails that are currently being drafted. (C) Baking soda solution

(D) Sugar solution

37. th The Mappila Uprisings of the 19 century occurred 38. A field exposed to excessive pesticide use shows a
mainly in which region of India? sharp decline in earthworm population. The resulting
effect on soil is:
(A) Konkan region of Maharashtra

(B) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu (A) Increased water retention

(C) Sunderbans region of West Bengal (B) Enhanced decomposition

(D) Malabar region of Kerala (C) Improved aeration

(D) Reduced soil fertility

39. The primary method of managing biodegradable 40. If cell A1 = 10 and B1 = 20, what will `=A1+B1`
domestic waste after collection is _________________. return?

(A) burnt in open air (A) Error

(B) conversion into compost (B) 1020

(C) sending for recycling (C) 30

(D) throwing into sewers (D) 200

41. Which pair of sectors is commonly addressed 42. Which type of computer virus attaches itself to
together in State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC) executable files and gets activated when the file is run?
adaptation planning?
(A) Macro Virus
(A) Textile design and fashion marketing (B) Boot Sector Virus
(B) Water resources and health systems (C) File Infector Virus
(C) Heavy industry and entertainment (D) Worm
(D) Information technology and space research

43. Which Quick Style type is applied only to selected 44. A student pushes a heavy box that is already moving
words or individual characters within a paragraph in MS across a rough floor. If the force applied by the student is
Word 2010? exactly equal to the frictional force opposing the motion,
what will happen to the box?
(A) Character styles

(B) Linked styles (A) The box will gradually come to rest

(C) Paragraph styles (B) The box will move at a constant speed

(D) Page styles (C) The box will accelerate forward

(D) The box will move at increasing speed

45. Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the 46. Which of the following statements best describes how
eastern coastal plains? the power of accommodation enables the human eye to
focus on both near and distant objects?
(A) Ganga

(B) Narmada (A) The cornea provides all the focusing power required for
clear vision
(C) Tapi
(B) The retina moves forward and backward to adjust the
(D) Godavari
focus

(C) The eye lens changes its focal length by altering its
shape through ciliary muscle action

(D) The iris controls the amount of light entering and helps
to focus

47. Which function returns the smallest value? 48. According to Thomson’s model, how are electrons
arranged in an atom?
(A) COUNT()

(B) MAX() (A) Moving in fixed orbits around the nucleus

(C) AVERAGE (B) Randomly placed inside the nucleus

(D) MIN() (C) Embedded in a positively charged sphere like seeds in a
watermelon

(D) Orbiting around neutrons in elliptical paths

49. The Atal Bhujal Yojana 2020 focused on improving 50. If 10 grams of salt are dissolved in 100 mL of water,
water resources management of how many states? which component is the solute?

(A) five (A) Neither

(B) seven (B) Water only

(C) eight (C) Both salt and water

(D) ten (D) Salt only

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING (TECHNICAL)

51. A Squirrel cage induction generator operates at 52. A 12 V battery is connected in series with two
__________ speed for electric generation in wind turbines. resistors 4 Ω and 6 Ω, forming a closed circuit. What is
the Thevenin equivalent resistance across the terminals
(A) variable
of the 6 Ω resistor after it is removed?
(B) slip
(A) 10 Ω
(C) constant
(B) 2 Ω
(D) negligible
(C) 6 Ω

(D) 4 Ω

53. In a single-phase RL circuit, the RMS voltage across 54. The Thevenin equivalent voltage at terminals a-b is
the supply is 100 V, the RMS current is 5 A, and the _________________.
current lags the voltage by 60°. Determine the apparent
power of the circuit.

(A) 500 VA

(B) 250 VA

(C) 400 VA

(D) 200 VA (A) 12 V

(B) 10 V

(C) 9 V

(D) 6 V

55. A limitation of Buchholz relay protection is: 56. Which among the given statements correctly
distinguishes Avalanche breakdown from Zener
(A) Automatic detection of gas accumulation inside
breakdown in a PN junction diode?
transformer oil systems

(B) Detection of incipient faults inside oil immersed (A) Zener breakdown occurs only under forward bias

transformers effectively conditions.

(C) Fast isolation of internal transformer faults during (B) Avalanche breakdown does not result in a sharp increase

abnormal conditions in reverse current.

(D) Operation possible only in transformers provided with (C) Zener breakdown voltage is typically higher than the

conservator tanks avalanche breakdown voltage.

(D) Avalanche breakdown is the predominant mechanism in
lightly doped junctions.

57. Why does a squirrel cage induction motor not develop 58. What is the main objective of backup protection in a
maximum starting torque? power system?

(A) Slip is less than unity at starting (A) To detect minor disturbances in voltage

(B) Rotor resistance is fixed and low (B) To increase the complexity of the system

(C) Rotor reactance is zero at starting (C) To isolate faults if primary protection fails

(D) Rotor resistance can be externally varied at starting (D) To operate faster than primary protection

59. In a three-phase induction motor, the phasor diagram 60. An induction furnace operates at 10 kHz and is used
shows an angle between the applied stator voltage and to melt 100 kg of steel. If the efficiency is 60% and the
the resulting stator current. This angle primarily energy required to melt steel is 1500 kWh/ton, what is
indicates: the minimum energy input needed?

(A) Rotor frequency (A) 250 kWh

(B) Synchronous speed (B) 150 kWh

(C) Input power factor (C) 180 kWh

(D) Rotor slip (D) 90 kWh

61. The Norton equivalent of the circuit shown in figure 62. What is the main disadvantage of a half-wave
at terminals a-b are __________. rectifier?

(A) Utilizes only one half-cycle

(B) Ripple frequency equal to supply frequency

(C) Requires center-tap transformer

(D) High cost

(A) R = 4 Ω, I = 2 A
N N
(B) R = 25 Ω, I = 1 A
N N
(C) R = 4 Ω, I = 1 A
N N
(D) R = 25 Ω, I = 3 A
N N

63. Which crystal structure is specifically associated with 64. Which of the following is the main purpose of earth
ferrite iron (α-iron), a ferromagnetic material? resistance measurement?

(A) Diamond cubic (A) Ensure safe dissipation of fault current

(B) Face-centered cubic (FCC) (B) Reduce frequency variation

(C) Body-centered cubic (BCC) (C) Increase power output

(D) Hexagonal close-packed (HCP) " (D) Improve voltage level

65. Identify the correct equation for controlling torque 66. In a ring distribution system, what happens when
(Tc) in a spring-controlled moving iron instrument, where there is a fault in one section?
K is the spring constant and θ is the deflection angle.
(A) The receiving end voltage becomes more than the
(A) Tc = K/θ sending end voltage.

(B) Tc = K + θ (B) The power can be supplied through the alternate path.

(C) Tc = K − θ (C) The entire system is shut down.

(D) Tc = Kθ (D) The voltage drop increases significantly.

67. If the frequency of an AC source is doubled, the 68. A low demand factor in an electrical installation
impedance of a pure resistor ____________. indicates that:

(A) remains unchanged (A) Average electrical load remains equal to maximum

(B) quadruples system demand continuously

(C) doubles (B) Connected electrical load is much greater than
maximum power demand
(D) halves
(C) Maximum electrical demand exceeds total connected
electrical load capacity

(D) Individual consumer demands occur simultaneously
during system operation

69. In a radial distribution system, which factor causes an 70. The maximum fault current attained during a short
increase in voltage drop? circuit at the instant before the fuse completely
interrupts the circuit is called:
(A) Increase in load current

(B) Increase in insulation (A) Rated current

(C) Decrease in distance (B) Melting current

(D) Decrease in resistance (C) Breaking capacity

(D) Cut-off current

71. The tapping in an auto transformer is used to: 72. A PNP transistor is fabricated with an increased base
doping concentration while keeping all other physical
(A) reduce insulation
dimensions and doping levels constant. What is the effect
(B) increase magnetic losses
on the transistor's performance?
(C) regulate voltage output
(A) The emitter injection efficiency increases
(D) separate windings
(B) The collector current becomes independent of emitter
current

(C) The common-emitter current gain decreases

(D) The base transport factor increases.

73. Retentivity in a B-H curve indicates: 74. What is the main purpose of providing a properly
installed earthing system in electrical installations?
(A) Reverse magnetic field required to reduce flux density to
zero (A) To provide a safe path for leakage and fault currents to

(B) Maximum field strength earth

(C) Resistance to demagnetization (B) To increase the insulation resistance of conductors

(D) Magnetic flux density left after removing the external (C) To reduce the reactance of the line conductors

magnetizing force (D) To improve the power factor of the electrical system

75. Which consideration is important while deciding the 76. The output of an alternator is taken from the:
capacity of a power station?
(A) Rotor winding
(A) Type of paint applied on generating station external (B) Commutator
building surfaces
(C) Field winding
(B) Number of ceiling fans installed inside administrative
(D) Stator winding
office sections

(C) Expected maximum electrical demand and future load
growth requirements

(D) Shape of fencing structure surrounding the generating
station premises

77. Which of the following sets of statements about the 78. Which type of magnetic material loses its magnetism
causes of errors in current transformers is correct? i) immediately after the removal of the magnetic field?
Leakage reactance in secondary winding contributes to
(A) Ferromagnetic
ratio error ii) High magnetizing current increases phase
(B) Paramagnetic
angle error iii) Burden with low power factor increases
phase angle error iv) Core saturation reduces both ratio (C) Ferrimagnetic

and phase angle errors (D) Diamagnetic

(A) (ii) and (iv) only

(B) (i) and (iv) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

79. In a single-phase parallel RL circuit connected to a 80. For accurate measurement of inductors using Hay's
single phase AC supply, which of the following is correct? bridge, which characteristic should the inductor primarily
possess?
(A) Power factor is unity

(B) Current leads voltage (A) High Q-factor

(C) Power factor is leading (B) Medium Q-factor

(D) Current lags voltage (C) High resistance

(D) Low Q-factor

81. A three-phase slip ring induction motor is preferred 82. Which of the following balanced phase-voltage phasor
over a squirrel cage induction motor for which of the sets represents an abc positive- sequence system?
following application scenarios?
(A) Va = 0°, Vb = 120°, Vc = -120°
(A) When highest efficiency is the only concern (B) Va = 0°, Vb = -90°, Vc = -180°
(B) When constant speed under all load conditions is needed (C) Va = 0°, Vb = -120°, Vc = 120°
(C) When variable speed and high starting torque are (D) Va = 0°, Vb = 90°, Vc = 180°
required

(D) When reduced maintenance is the top priority

83. A power factor tariff is introduced in energy billing to 84. Megger is an instrument used to measure ______.
encourage consumers to ________________.
(A) Current carrier.
(A) Receive discounts based only on total energy (B) High resistance.
consumption
(C) Source of e.m.f.
(B) Improve their power factor for more efficient use of
(D) Type of a null detector.
electrical power

(C) Reduce electricity consumption during peak hours

(D) Pay a fixed electricity charge regardless of usage
pattern

85. A protective device with high rupturing capacity can: 86. Determine whether x(t)=sin(3t) + sin(5t) is periodic.
If yes, find its fundamental period.
(A) Reduce transmission line inductance during balanced
load operation only (A) Non-periodic

(B) Improve voltage regulation of transformers during (B) T=π/5
overload conditions (C) T=2π
(C) Increase insulation resistance during normal system (D) T=π
operating conditions

(D) Safely interrupt heavy fault currents without equipment
damage occurrence

87. The fundamental operating principle of a transformer 88. Two inductors of 8 H and 2 H connected in series
is based on: opposing with mutual inductance of 1 H will have
equivalent:
(A) direct electrical conduction between primary and
secondary windings for energy transfer (A) 8 H

(B) electromagnetic induction between two electrically (B) 9 H
isolated coils magnetically coupled through a low-reluctance (C) 5 H
magnetic circuit
(D) 11 H
(C) mechanical coupling of coils to facilitate energy transfer
through physical motion

(D) conversion of alternating current (AC) into direct current
(DC) via semiconductor devices

89. Which of the following is used to join two cable 90. Which of the following statements about damping in
conductors? moving-iron instruments is correct?

(A) Cable marking (A) Damping in MI instruments is usually provided by air

(B) Splicing friction

(C) Surface coating (B) Damping in MI instruments is usually provided by eddy
currents in an aluminium disc
(D) Insulation taping
(C) Damping in MI instruments is usually not required
because the pointer is very light

(D) Damping in MI instruments is usually provided by a
permanent magnet

91. Which Law illustrates the relationship between 92. In a three-phase induction energy meter, the disc
induced electromotive force (EMF) and the time variation rotates due to the interaction between the magnetic
of magnetic flux in a coil? fields produced by:

(A) Ampere Circuital Law (A) the shunt coil and the field winding

(B) Faraday Law of Induction (B) the current and cooling coils

(C) Lenz's Law (C) the mechanical gears and shaft

(D) Columb's Law (D) the pressure and current coils

93. On a CRO screen, a DC voltage causes a vertical 94. For supplying a large three-phase load with neutral
deflection of 4 divisions. If the vertical sensitivity is 2 connection requirement, which transformer connection is
V/div, what is the value of the DC voltage? generally preferred?

(A) 4 V (A) Open delta connection for reduction of transformer

(B) 8 V copper losses

(C) 2 V (B) Delta-delta connection for single-phase domestic lighting
systems
(D) 6 V
(C) Scott connection for operation of balanced three-phase
motor loads

(D) Star-star connection with neutral grounding
arrangement on both sides

95. The hypotenuse of the power triangle represents 96. Protection of transmission lines using differential
which type of power? pilot wire protection provides:

(A) Reactive power (A) Fast and selective protection of short transmission

(B) Power factor feeder sections

(C) Apparent power (B) Reducing transmission line inductance under balanced
operating conditions only
(D) Active power
(C) Increasing transmission conductor diameter during
overload conditions

(D) Improving illumination level inside substation control
room sections

97. The curve obtained in the input characteristics of a 98. What does the plant use factor represent?
BJT in common-emitter (CE) configuration is _______.
(A) The ratio of actual energy generated to the product of
(A) Similar to a reverse breakdown curve plant capacity and hours of use

(B) Linear for all voltages (B) The ratio of actual energy generated to the total

(C) Similar to a forward diode curve installed capacity

(D) A horizontal straight line (C) The ratio of average load to maximum demand

(D) The ratio of maximum demand to the total installed
capacity

99. Which combination of the following statements about 100. In a properly biased PNP transistor operating in
direct resistance heating are correct? i) The process active region, the emitter terminal is _______.
requires the charge to be electrically conductive. ii)
(A) more positive than the base
Electrodes are placed in direct contact with the charge.
(B) more negative than the collector
iii) Heat is generated by induced eddy currents in the
charge. iv) The charge does not form part of the electric (C) grounded permanently

circuit. (D) equal in potential to the base

(A) (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(C) (i) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (ii) only

101. What is the primary fuel used in a biomass power 102. How is the phase angle between voltage V and total
plant? current I in a parallel RLC circuit determined?

(A) Natural gas (A) By comparing voltage drops across each element

(B) Uranium (B) From the angle between V and I
R
(C) Organic waste materials (C) By subtracting I from I
L C
(D) Coal (D) From the angle between V and the vector sum of I , I ,
R L
and I
C

103. The speed of a synchronous motor depends on: 104. Why are instrument transformers used with a
wattmeter for high-power AC measurements?
(A) Supply frequency

(B) Field resistance (A) To extend the current and voltage range of the
wattmeter safely
(C) Load only
(B) To eliminate the need for a pressure coil in the
(D) Armature current
wattmeter

(C) To reduce the frequency of the measured circuit

(D) To convert AC power into DC power

105. Which set of statements correctly describes the 106. What is an advantage of a bridge rectifier over a
steady state speed-torque characteristics of a three- center-tapped full-wave rectifier?
phase synchronous motor? i) Runs at constant
(A) A bridge rectifier requires fewer diodes for rectification
synchronous speed ii) Starting torque is zero iii) Torque
(B) A bridge rectifier uses only half of the transformer
increases significantly with slip iv) Not suitable for
secondary winding
variable speed drives v) Maintains speed under varying
loads (C) A bridge rectifier produces a higher ripple factor at the
output
(A) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
(D) A bridge rectifier can operate using diodes with lower
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only
peak inverse voltage rating
(C) (i), (ii), and (v) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

107. Select the option that is correct regarding the 108. A 12μF capacitor and a 4μF capacitor are connected
following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and in series. The ratio of voltages across them will be:
Reason (R). Assertion (A): Three-phase auto-transformers
(A) 4:1
are smaller and lighter than equivalent three-phase two-
(B) 1:4
winding transformers. Reason (R): Auto-transformers use
fewer windings and a smaller core. (C) 3:1

(D) 1:3
(A) A is true, but R is false.

(B) A is false, but R is true.

(C) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.

(D) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A.

109. Which statement correctly explains the principle of 110. Which method is commonly used to reduce earth
direct resistance heating? resistance in an electrical installation?

(A) Heat is generated by the resistance of the material (A) Increasing the supply voltage
through which the current flows, and it is applied directly to (B) Reducing the size of the earth conductor
the heating element
(C) Increasing the number of earth electrodes
(B) Heat is produced through the conversion of mechanical
(D) Using a higher-rated fuse
energy into heat

(C) The heating element works by electromagnetic induction

(D) The process is based on the principle of convective heat
transfer

111. In a DC generator, the magnitude of induced EMF is 112. Which point or region represents the Pull-out Torque
directly proportional to: in the shown torque-speed characteristic of a 3-phase
induction motor?
(A) the inverse of number of conductors

(B) the product of flux per pole and speed (A) Point b

(C) the square of flux per pole (B) Point a

(D) the armature resistance (C) Anywhere between point a and b

(D) Point c

113. In the given circuit R = 6Ω, R = 4Ω and R = 3Ω. The 114. In seam welding, the electrodes are made of _______.
voltage sources are V = 21V and 1 2 3 1 V = 5V.
(A) aluminium
Determine the currents flowing through R₁ and R₂,
(B) brass
respectively. 2
(C) tungsten

(D) copper alloys

(A) 3A and 2A

(B) 2A and 3A

(C) 4A and 6A

(D) 2A and 6A

115. A room requires an average illuminance of 200 lux 116. Anderson’s bridge belongs to which category of
over a 60 square meter area. If the total luminous flux measuring circuits?
emitted by the lamps is 15000 lumens and the utilization
(A) AC bridge for inductance measurement
factor is 0.8, what is the actual illuminance achieved?
(B) DC potentiometer circuit
(A) 125 lux
(C) Resonance circuit for frequency measurement
(B) 100 lux
(D) DC bridge for resistance measurement
(C) 160 lux

(D) 200 lux

117. In a buck-boost converter, how does the inductor 118. What happens to the magnetic field around a
contribute to the inversion of the input voltage polarity straight current-carrying conductor when the current
while regulating the output voltage? through it is increased?

(A) The inductor stores energy from the input voltage and (A) Magnetic field disappears
releases it in the opposite polarity during the 'off' phase of (B) Magnetic field strength increases
the switch.
(C) Magnetic field strength remains the same
(B) The inductor filters out high-frequency noise from the
(D) Magnetic field strength decreases
input supply.

(C) The inductor provides a low-impedance path for the
return current.

(D) The inductor acts as a transformer to invert the voltage
polarity.

119. Concentrating solar technology is a type of solar 120. Which modification in an earthing system most
power technology which: directly reduces earth resistance by improving the
contact area between the electrode and surrounding soil?
(A) uses sunlight energy to directly rotate turbines without a
heat conversion stage (A) Connecting the earth conductor to the neutral wire only

(B) uses mirrors to focus sunlight, generating heat that (B) Increasing the effective contact area by using multiple or
drives turbines to produce electricity larger earth electrodes

(C) directly converts sunlight into electricity using (C) Using a higher supply voltage in the installation
photovoltaic (PV) panels (D) Increasing the rating of the protective fuse
(D) produces heat from sunlight without using mirrors or
optical concentration

121. When an alternator operates at unity power factor, 122. Field failure protection in an alternator is provided
the armature current: to detect:

(A) leads terminal voltage (A) Variation in illumination intensity inside generator

(B) lags terminal voltage control panels

(C) is opposite to terminal voltage (B) Loss of excitation current in the synchronous generator
field winding
(D) is in phase with terminal voltage
(C) Reduction in paint thickness of alternator outer
protective enclosure

(D) Change in colour of lubricating oil storage tank surface
coating

123. In a closed electrical loop supplied by 10 V, two 124. What is the purpose of a Buchholz relay in
resistors produce voltage drops of 6 V and 4 V, transformer protection?
respectively. Which statement correctly expresses
(A) To detect internal faults such as short circuits and arcing
Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law for this loop?
in oil
(A) The current through the two resistors is different (B) To detect overvoltage
(B) The algebraic sum of all voltages around the loop is zero (C) To measure core flux
(C) The source voltage is greater than the total voltage drop (D) To measure temperature rise
(D) The source voltage is less than the total voltage drop

125. In the graphical analysis of a FET amplifier, what is 126. An oscilloscope displays a measured rise time of 10
the primary purpose of the load line? ns when observing a fast pulse. If the oscilloscope itself
has a specified rise time of 6 ns, then what is the
(A) To determine the operating point of the FET
approximate actual rise time of the signal being
(B) To determine the input impedance of the FET
measured?
(C) To determine the power gain of the FET
(A) 4 ns
(D) To determine the output impedance of the FET
(B) 8 ns

(C) 6 ns

(D) 12 ns

127. At which voltage level are the maximum consumers 128. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current
connected? through the resistor R is ___________. 2

(A) primary distribution level

(B) secondary transmission level

(C) primary transmission level

(D) secondary distribution level

(A) 1.8 mA

(B) 2.8 mA

(C) 4 mA

(D) 2 mA

129. Which generator in wind turbines uses slip rings and 130. A single-phase preventer continuously monitors and
a partially rated converter for variable-speed operation? protects preferably which motor against phase failure?

(A) permanent magnet synchronous generator (A) DC Motor

(B) brushless DC generator (B) 3-phase induction motor

(C) squirrel cage induction generator (C) Reluctance motor

(D) doubly-fed induction generator (D) Single phase induction motor

131. Which of the following devices provide rapid fault 132. What does the Reduction Factor in illumination refer
current interruption independently in a high-voltage to?
power distribution system?
(A) The ratio of total luminous flux to the consumed
(A) HRC fuse electrical power

(B) Isolator (B) The ratio of actual illuminance to theoretical illuminance

(C) Contactor (C) The percentage of light lost due to reflection and

(D) Linear coupler absorption

(D) The ratio of the illumination at a given point to the initial
illumination

133. What is a typical starting torque characteristic of a 134. Consider the following statements about torque in
shaded pole induction motor? synchronous motors. I. The torque in a synchronous
motor is produced only when the rotor is locked into
(A) Low starting torque and low efficiency
synchronism. II. The torque is directly proportional to the
(B) High starting torque and high efficiency
sine of the load angle (δ). III. Synchronous motor
(C) High starting torque and low efficiency develops starting torque proportional to the power input.
(D) Low starting torque and high efficiency IV. Maximum torque occurs at δ = 180°. Which of the
above statements are correct?

(A) Statements II, III & IV only

(B) Statements II & IV only

(C) Statements I, II & III only

(D) Statements I & II only

135. Which of the following is a key maintenance practice 136. A DC shunt motor is initially running at no load.
for reliable operation of a 3-phase induction motor? What is the effect on its speed when the load is
increased?
(A) Regular lubrication of bearings and periodic insulation
resistance testing. (A) The speed decreases slightly

(B) Short-circuiting the stator windings when the motor is (B) The speed remains constant
idle. (C) The speed increases slightly
(C) Increasing slip by intentionally weakening rotor bars. (D) The speed decreases significantly
(D) Running the motor continuously at no-load to avoid
heating.

137. Which strategy reduces electricity charges under a 138. A current I flows through a circular loop. If the
power factor tariff system for a manufacturing plant with radius of the loop is reduced to half and the current is
predominantly inductive loads? doubled, the magnetic field intensity at the center
becomes:
(A) Switching to higher voltage transformers without
changing load characteristics (A) Unchanged

(B) Installing capacitors to improve the power factor of (B) Four times the original value
inductive loads (C) Twice the original value
(C) Operating all equipment at full load constantly (D) Eight times the original value
(D) Increasing lighting hours during low demand periods

139. Which statement about magnetic flux is false? 140. Which of the following points are True regarding the
effect of short-time duty on the size and cost of electric
(A) Magnetic flux density unit is Tesla or weber per meter
motors? i) Short-time duty allows use of higher rated
square (Wb/m2).
motors for short durations. ii) Motors used for short-time
(B) Magnetic flux does not have any SI unit.
duty are generally smaller for the same load. iii) Short-
(C) Magnetic flux is analogous to current in electric circuit. time duty increases the need for oversized enclosures. iv)
(D) Magnetic flux density is the magnetic flux passing Cost per kW is lower for motors used in short-time duty.
through per unit cross-section area.
(A) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only

(B) (i), (iii), and (iv) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), and (iv) only

141. An underground cable used in power systems should 142. Three identical capacitors are connected in parallel.
possess which important requirement? If the total charge stored in the system is Q, what is the
charge on each individual capacitor?
(A) High magnetic saturation capability inside cable
conductor arrangements only (A) Q/9

(B) Low melting point of conductor material during fault (B) Q
conditions (C) 3Q
(C) Variable conductor diameter during balanced load (D) Q/3
operating conditions

(D) High insulation resistance and adequate mechanical
strength properties

143. Where is the shading coil placed in a shaded-pole 144. A machine delivers power that is three times its
motor? original value, while the duration of operation stays
unchanged. How does the work done by the machine
(A) On a portion of the stator pole
change?
(B) On the air-gap surface only
(A) It becomes three times larger.
(C) On the rotor shaft
(B) It becomes one-third of the original.
(D) On the motor bearings
(C) It remains unchanged.

(D) It becomes nine times larger.

145. A PNP transistor is operating in active region. If the 146. In a series R–C circuit supplied with sinusoidal AC
emitter voltage decreases such that the emitter becomes voltage, the current leads the applied voltage by an
less positive than the base while the biasing condition of angle Ø. Which of the following correctly expresses this
the collector-base junction remains unchanged, the phase angle?
transistor will enter _______.
(A) tan Ø = R/X
C
(A) Active region with higher gain (B) tan Ø = −R/X
C
(B) Reverse active region (C) tan Ø = −X /R
C
(C) Cut-off region (D) tan Ø = X ·R
C
(D) Saturation region

147. Three impedances, each of (3−4j) Ω, are connected 148. A maximum demand tariff is designed to encourage
in delta to a 200 V, three-phase, 50 Hz balanced supply. consumers to _________________.
What are the values of line current and phase current,
(A) Adopt renewable energy sources
respectively, in the delta-connected load?
(B) Increase energy production
(A) 40 A and 40√3 A
(C) Reduce overall energy consumption
(B) 40√3 A and 40 A
(D) Manage and reduce their peak power demand
(C) 40 A and 40 A

(D) 40√3 A and 40√3 A

149. Which of the following statements about the atomic 150. In a parallel RC circuit connected to a single-phase
hydrogen arc welding process is correct? AC supply, the correct relationship between the supply
voltage and the total circuit current is _________.
(A) It works with a consumable iron electrode in a hydrogen
atmosphere. (A) Current is in phase with the voltage

(B) It employs two non-consumable tungsten electrodes to (B) Current lags the voltage
create an arc in a hydrogen atmosphere. (C) Current and voltage are 180° out of phase
(C) It requires two non-consumable tungsten electrodes and (D) Current leads the voltage
an oxygen-rich atmosphere.

(D) It utilizes a single carbon electrode to generate heat in
hydrogen atmosphere.

ANSWER KEY

1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C)

8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A)

15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (C)

22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (D)

29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)

36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (C) 41. (B) 42. (C)

43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (B)

50. (D) 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (D)

57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (C)

64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (D)

71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74. (A) 75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (C)

78. (B) 79. (D) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (B)

85. (D) 86. (C) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (B)

92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (A)

99. (D) 100. (A) 101. (C) 102. (D) 103. (A) 104. (A) 105. (C)

106. (D) 107. (D) 108. (D) 109. (A) 110. (C) 111. (B) 112. (D)

113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (D) 116. (A) 117. (A) 118. (B) 119. (B)

120. (B) 121. (D)
Get Free Sample122. (B)Question Papers,
Papers, 123. (B)Tests & Study Material
Mock 124. (A) 125. (A)
at 126. (B)

127. (D) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (B) 131. (A) 132. (B) 133. (A)

134. (D) 135. (A) 136. (A) 137. (B) 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (D)

141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (A) 144. (A) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (B)

148. (D) 149. (B) 150. (D)