RRB JE 2027 Sample Paper (CBT 2 - Electronics & Allied)

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - Electronics &
Allied)
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

150 150 120 Min +1 / −0.33

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 150 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 1 mark; 0.33 mark (one-third of the marks) is deducted for each wrong answer.

4. Total time allowed is 120 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - Electronics & Allied)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 150 Max Marks 150 Time 120 Min Marking +1 / −0.33

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

GENERAL AWARENESS & APTITUDE

1. The atmospheric component that remains largely 2. According to the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution,
unreactive is _____________. the total number of ministers (including the Prime
Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed
(A) Methane
what percentage of the total members of the House of
(B) Argon
the People, i.e., Lok Sabha?
(C) Carbon dioxide
(A) 15%
(D) Oxygen
(B) 25%

(C) 20%

(D) 10%

3. Consider the following statements regarding chemical 4. Which of the following best describes the velocity-time
reactions and choose the correct option. Statement I: graph for an object moving with uniform velocity?
Every reaction in which two or more reactants combine to
(A) A straight horizontal line parallel to the time axis
form a single product is classified as a combination
(B) A curved line above the time axis
reaction regardless of heat change. Statement II: The
reaction CaO(s) + H O(l) → Ca(OH) (aq) + heat is both a (C) A straight line sloping upwards from the time axis

combination 2 2 reaction and an exothermic reaction. (D) A line starting from the origin and sloping upwards

(A) Both statements are correct

(B) Both statements are incorrect

(C) Only Statement I is correct

(D) Only Statement II is correct

5. Biomedical waste handlers in a hospital are at risk of 6. Which British colonial building in Mumbai, completed
occupational hazards. The most effective way to protect in 1888, showcases a blend of Victorian Gothic and Indian
them from exposure to infectious materials is: architectural elements?

(A) Regular medical check-ups (A) Bombay Town Hall

(B) Segregation of waste into color-coded bins (B) Gateway of India

(C) Use of protective equipment and safe handling (C) Rajabai Clock Tower

(D) Vaccination against common infections (D) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus

7. Which of the following statements is true about the 8. A student pushes a heavy box that is already moving
Outbox? across a rough floor. If the force applied by the student is
exactly equal to the frictional force opposing the motion,
(A) It is used to receive incoming emails.
what will happen to the box?
(B) It holds emails that have been successfully sent.
(A) The box will gradually come to rest
(C) It temporarily stores emails that are queued for sending.
(B) The box will move at a constant speed
(D) It contains emails that are currently being drafted.
(C) The box will accelerate forward

(D) The box will move at increasing speed

9. Match the following columns. Pardoning power 10. Which of the following best describes how sound
Function travels through air?

(A) 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a (A) The air particles move in circular paths as the wave

(B) 1-c, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d passes

(C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-b (B) The air particles remain stationary while the wave
moves through
(D) 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a
(C) The air particles vibrate up and down perpendicular to
the direction of the wave

(D) The air particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the
direction of the wave

11. Which of the following options must be DISABLED 12. A factory plans to install a powerful electromagnet
before manually setting the date and time in Windows? for lifting metal scraps. To maximize the magnetic field
strength around the coil, which of the following
(A) Set time zone globally
combinations would be most effective?
(B) Set time automatically
(A) Using a soft iron core, increasing coil turns, and
(C) Night Light
increasing current through the coil
(D) Enable multiple clocks
(B) Using an air core, decreasing coil turns, and keeping
current constant

(C) Using a copper core, increasing coil turns, and lowering
current

(D) Using a steel core, decreasing coil turns, and lowering
current

13. A construction worker needs to lift a heavy metal 14. Who won the maximum number of medals at the 38th
beam using a lever but has a limited length of plank. National Games of India?
Which adjustment would allow the worker to lift the
(A) Neeraj Chopra
beam with the least effort if the position of the fulcrum
(B) Manu Bhaker
can be changed but the plank length remains constant?
(C) Dhinidhi Desinghu
(A) Keep the fulcrum fixed at any point
(D) Bajrang Punia
(B) Move the fulcrum closer to the worker

(C) Move the fulcrum closer to the beam

(D) Place the fulcrum at the center of the plank

15. If 10 grams of salt are dissolved in 100 mL of water, 16. Which of the following satellites was launched on
which component is the solute? November 2, 2025, to enhance the Indian Navy’s secure
communication network and maritime surveillance
(A) Neither
capabilities?
(B) Water only
(A) Cartosat-3
(C) Both salt and water
(B) RISAT-2B
(D) Salt only
(C) CMS-03 (GSAT-7R)

(D) GSAT-6A

17. Which of the following statements best describes the 18. How can we locate a file with a known extension but
behavior of magnetic field lines around a straight an unknown name in a large directory?
current-carrying conductor?
(A) Through File Explorer
(A) They form concentric circles centered on the conductor. (B) Using the Search box in File Explorer with *.ext
(B) They radiate straight outward from the wire. (C) Checking the Recycle Bin
(C) They are parallel straight lines along the wire. (D) Using the dir command
(D) They change direction randomly along the wire.

19. Which of the following is a primary mission under 20. When was the 11th National Handloom Day
India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)? celebrated across India under the coordination of the
Ministry of Textiles?
(A) National Nutrition Mission

(B) National Highway Development Project (A) October 7, 2025

(C) National Solar Mission (B) September 7, 2025

(D) National Rural Livelihood Mission (C) August 7, 2025

(D) November 7, 2025

21. What is the main reason sulfur dioxide irritates the 22. Which of the following indicators is NOT typically
upper respiratory mucous membrane? used to measure sustainable development?

(A) It combines with other pollutants and polymerizes in the (A) Biocapacity
lungs (B) Human Development Index (HDI)
(B) It oxidizes to sulphur trioxide and inhaled deep into lung (C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate
(C) It dissolves in moisture in upper respiratory tract and (D) Ecological Footprint
forms irritant

(D) It combines with haemoglobin and effect the oxygen
transport

23. You want to automatically advance slides with 24. The Kol Rebellion (1831–32) mainly affected which
narration and animations during a presentation. Which plateau region?
MS PowerPoint feature should you use to achieve this?
(A) Chotanagpur Plateau
(A) Slide Sorter (B) Malwa Plateau
(B) Action Buttons (C) Deccan Plateau
(C) Rehearse Timings (D) Meghalaya Plateau
(D) Presenter View

25. Which experimental discovery contradicted 26. Which new warship was commissioned by the Indian
Thomson's model of the atom and led to its rejection? Navy in November, 2025, to strengthen anti-submarine
and coastal defence capabilities?
(A) Alpha particle scattering showing deflection at large
angles (A) INS Mahe

(B) Discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick (B) INS Vikrant

(C) Measurement of atomic radius using X-ray diffraction (C) INS Arnala

(D) Observation of line spectra of hydrogen by Bohr (D) INS Ikshak

27. The primary method of managing biodegradable 28. Which condition is required for a displacement
domestic waste after collection is _________________. reaction between a metal and salt solution?

(A) burnt in open air (A) Metal must be same as salt constituent

(B) conversion into compost (B) Salt must be insoluble in water

(C) sending for recycling (C) Metal must be higher in reactivity series

(D) throwing into sewers (D) Reaction must be endothermic

29. A student accidentally spills some hydrochloric acid 30. Which Quick Style type is applied only to selected
on a table. Which substance should be used to neutralise words or individual characters within a paragraph in MS
the acid safely? Word 2010?

(A) Vinegar (A) Character styles

(B) Lemon juice (B) Linked styles

(C) Baking soda solution (C) Paragraph styles

(D) Sugar solution (D) Page styles

31. In a real-life scenario, a chemist discovers a 32. The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred
compound with the formula CH CH CH(CH )CH CH OH. mainly in which region of India?
What is the correct IUPAC name for this compound? 3 2 3
(A) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu
22
(B) Sunderbans region of West Bengal
(A) 2-methylhexanol
(C) Konkan region of Maharashtra
(B) 3-methylpentan-1-ol
(D) Malabar region of Kerala
(C) 3-methylhexanol

(D) 4-methylpentanol

33. The Atal Bhujal Yojana 2020 focused on improving 34. th The Mappila Uprisings of the 19 century occurred
water resources management of how many states? mainly in which region of India?

(A) five (A) Konkan region of Maharashtra

(B) seven (B) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu

(C) eight (C) Sunderbans region of West Bengal

(D) ten (D) Malabar region of Kerala

35. What is the general formula of alkenes? 36. The term 'smog' is a combination of ____________.

(A) C H n 2n−2 (A) Smog and mist

(B) C H n 2n+2 (B) Smoke and fog

(C) C H n n (C) Smoke and haze

(D) C H n 2n (D) Fog and clouds

37. Which pair of sectors is commonly addressed 38. The primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
together in State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC) Yojana (PMGSY) is to:
adaptation planning?
(A) Develop urban infrastructure
(A) Textile design and fashion marketing (B) Provide rural connectivity through road construction
(B) Water resources and health systems (C) Enhance telecommunication services in cities
(C) Heavy industry and entertainment (D) Promote renewable energy usage
(D) Information technology and space research

39. On which date is National Handloom Day observed in 40. Which of the following is/are the primary reasons to
India? fall in the trap of Email fraud or phishing? A) Paying
attention to lucrative offers. B) Not checking on links or
(A) 2 October
attachments from unknown senders C) Providing official
(B) 5 September
information via email D) Paying attention to the company
(C) 18 August logo sent in the email
(D) 7 August
(A) A only

(B) A, B, D Only

(C) A, B Only

(D) A, B, C Only

41. A farmer applies large amounts of chemical fertilizers 42. A field exposed to excessive pesticide use shows a
over several years. Which consequence most likely sharp decline in earthworm population. The resulting
results from this practice leading to soil pollution? effect on soil is:

(A) Faster plant growth every season (A) Increased water retention

(B) Increase in earthworm population (B) Enhanced decomposition

(C) Accumulation of toxic substances in soil (C) Improved aeration

(D) Erosion of surface soil layers (D) Reduced soil fertility

43. What file extension is used to save an MS PowerPoint 44. The pollutant group commonly associated with oil
2021 presentation? spills in oceans is ______________.

(A) .docx (A) agricultural pesticides

(B) .pdf (B) chemical fertilizers

(C) .pptx (C) petroleum products

(D) .xlsx (D) synthetic detergents

45. Which function returns the smallest value? 46. According to Thomson’s model, how are electrons
arranged in an atom?
(A) COUNT()

(B) MAX() (A) Moving in fixed orbits around the nucleus

(C) AVERAGE (B) Randomly placed inside the nucleus

(D) MIN() (C) Embedded in a positively charged sphere like seeds in a
watermelon

(D) Orbiting around neutrons in elliptical paths

47. Which type of computer virus attaches itself to 48. If cell A1 = 10 and B1 = 20, what will `=A1+B1`
executable files and gets activated when the file is run? return?

(A) Macro Virus (A) Error

(B) Boot Sector Virus (B) 1020

(C) File Infector Virus (C) 30

(D) Worm (D) 200

49. Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the 50. Which of the following statements best describes how
eastern coastal plains? the power of accommodation enables the human eye to
focus on both near and distant objects?
(A) Ganga

(B) Narmada (A) The cornea provides all the focusing power required for
clear vision
(C) Tapi
(B) The retina moves forward and backward to adjust the
(D) Godavari
focus

(C) The eye lens changes its focal length by altering its
shape through ciliary muscle action

(D) The iris controls the amount of light entering and helps
to focus

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING (TECHNICAL)

51. Which class of IPv4 addresses supports the largest 52. Which of the following best describes packet
number of host addresses in a computer network? switching in computer network?

(A) Class B (A) Entire message transmitted as one continuous signal

(B) Class A (B) Data divided into smaller packets transmitted

(C) Class D independently

(D) Class C (C) Dedicated physical path between sender and receiver

(D) Fixed bandwidth allocated permanently to users

53. Under forward-bias conditions, what is the primary 54. A 1 mA,100 Ω meter movement is converted to a 100
mechanism that creates forward current across a PN mA ammeter using a parallel shunt resistor. If this shunt
junction? resistor suddenly becomes open-circuited while a steady
line current of 80 mA is passing through the meter, what
(A) The drift of majority carriers due to the enhanced
is the most likely outcome?
internal barrier electric field.

(B) The millions of protons creation inside the depletion (A) The meter indication drops to zero due to loss of shunt

region current

(C) The freezing of movement for free electrons across the (B) The meter continues to indicate the measured current

metallurgical junction. correctly

(D) Majority carriers crossing the junction to become (C) Excessive current may flow through the meter

injected minority carriers that diffuse through the neutral movement and damage it

regions " (D) The meter becomes more sensitive and shows larger
deflections

55. A user wants to transmit uncompressed digital audio 56. A 2-input NOR gate has one input permanently
and video between a computer and a display using a connected to logic LOW (0). How does the output behave
single cable. Which connector type is most appropriate? with respect to the other input?

(A) F connector (A) Output is always LOW

(B) RCA connector (B) Output is always HIGH

(C) BNC connector (C) Output is the complement of the other input

(D) HDMI connector (D) Output follows the other input directly

57. According to Carson's Rule, the approximate 58. Which shape is used to represent a decision in a
bandwidth of a frequency modulation signal is __________. flowchart?

(A) Infinite (A) Parallelogram

(B) Equal to the carrier frequency (B) Diamond

(C) Twice the sum of the frequency deviation and the (C) Oval
highest modulating frequency (D) Rectangle
(D) Twice the carrier frequency

59. What is the output of the following C programming 60. A technician is troubleshooting a circuit where the
language code? #include<stdio.h> int main() { int x = 10; fuse does not blow during an overcurrent fault. What is
int *p = &x; *p = *p + 5; printf("%d %d", x, *p); return 0; the most likely cause?
}
(A) The fuse is connected in parallel with the load.
(A) 10 10 (B) The fuse wire has low resistance
(B) 15 10 (C) The fuse is installed after the protective relay.
(C) 10 15 (D) The fuse rating is higher than the circuit's safe current.
(D) 15 15

61. For Astable Multivibrator using IC 555, to increase the 62. What allows a Radar system to detect the presence of
frequency of an astable 555 circuit without changing the a target?
duty cycle ratio, what should a designer do? Assume
(A) Electromagnetic wave reflection
standard terminologies and resistor names.
(B) Acoustic resonance
(A) Increase the value of R
A (C) Atmospheric refraction
(B) Decrease the supply voltage
(D) Chemical ionization
(C) Increase the value of Capacitor C

(D) Decrease the value of C while keeping resistors RA and
RB constant

63. Why should electrical connections be regularly 64. What are the statements that begin with # symbol
tightened in high-current circuits? called in C programming language?

(A) Tight connections ensure lower circuit voltage (A) Comments

(B) It prevents accidental current reversal (B) Preprocessor Directives

(C) Loose connections cause localized heating and fire risk (C) Control statements

(D) It avoids electromagnetic interference (D) Function declarations

65. If a communication system performs effectively in 66. How does the shading coil in an AC relay minimize
between 200 Hz to 3.4 kHz, what is its bandwidth? contact chatter during operation?

(A) 3.6 kHz (A) It delays the movement of the relay armature during

(B) 3.4 kHz release.

(C) 200 Hz (B) It maintains a holding magnetic force during current zero
crossing.
(D) 3.2 kHz
(C) It changes the relay's operating voltage rating.

(D) It maintains the spacing between relay contacts during
operation.

67. What happens to the amount of substance deposited 68. At a DC node, 1.8 A enters the node. Two branches
if the time for which current flows through an electrolyte carry 0.9 A and 0.6 A away from the node. Assuming the
is doubled? remaining branch current is also leaving the node, what
is its value?
(A) It remains unchanged

(B) It becomes zero (A) 1.2 A

(C) It becomes half (B) 0.3 A

(D) It also doubles (C) 0.5 A

(D) 0.9 A

69. Signal A passes through a NOT gate and then through 70. A synchronous counter is a counter in which:
an AND gate where the second input is permanently set
(A) Only one flip-flop is used
to logic 1. What is the final output expression?
(B) All flip-flops are triggered simultaneously
(A) Y = Always 0
(C) No clock is used
(B) Y = A
(D) Flip-flops are triggered one by one
(C) Y = Ā

(D) Y = Always 1

71. Which internal component of the IC 555 is responsible 72. What is the BCD code for decimal digit 3?
for resetting the flip-flop when the voltage at Pin 6
(A) 0011
exceeds two-thirds of Vcc supply?
(B) 0110
(A) The Upper Comparator
(C) 0101
(B) The Voltage Divider Network
(D) 0001
(C) The Lower Comparator

(D) The Discharge Transistor

73. Consider the following statements regarding modems 74. A designer is selecting an LED driver for an outdoor
used in computer network: S1: Modems are required display exposed to dust and rain. Which specification
when communication medium carries analog signals S2: should be examined first to determine whether the driver
Modulation converts digital data into analog form S3: can withstand these environmental conditions?
Demodulation converts analog data into digital form S4:
(A) Dimming compatibility
Modems assign MAC addresses to computers Which
(B) Power factor rating
statements are TRUE?
(C) Ingress Protection (IP) rating
(A) Only S1, S3 and S4
(D) Output current tolerance
(B) Only S1 and S4

(C) Only S1, S2 and S3

(D) Only S1 and S2

75. Which of the following statements is TRUE about data 76. What is the output of the given C language code
transmission modes? snippet? #include<stdio.h> void f(int n) { if(n==0)
return; printf("%d ",n); f(n-1); } int main() { f(3); return
(A) Serial transmission always requires more communication
0; }
lines

(B) Serial transmission sends multiple bits simultaneously (A) 3 2 1 0

(C) Parallel transmission can transmit multiple bits (B) 1 2 3

simultaneously (C) Infinite loop

(D) Parallel transmission sends one bit at a time (D) 3 2 1

77. What would happen if an electrical device is not 78. How many PN junctions are present in the structure
earthed and a fault occurs? of a Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR)?

(A) The resistance of the device will increase (A) Two

(B) The exposed metal parts may carry dangerous voltage (B) One

(C) The device will automatically shut down (C) Four

(D) The supply voltage will decrease (D) Three

79. In the 8085 microprocessor, what will be the value of 80. In a graded-index Optical fiber, how is the refractive
the Program Counter after execution of the instruction index distributed?
RST 3?
(A) Decreasing continuously from center to edge
(A) 0030H (B) Higher in the cladding than the core
(B) 0024H (C) Increasing from center to edge
(C) 0018H (D) Uniformly throughout the core
(D) 0003H

81. You need to read a floating-point value from the user 82. During insulation testing of a long underground
in the C programming language. Which of the following cable, a technician observes higher leakage current
statements correctly performs this task? compared to a shorter cable of the same type. What is
the most likely reason?
(A) float x; scanf("%f, &x);

(B) float x; scanf("%d" , &x); (A) The increased cable length reduces the dielectric
strength of the insulation.
(C) float x; scanf("%f",*x);
(B) Leakage current is independent of cable length for the
(D) float x; scanf("%f" , x);
same insulation material.

(C) A longer cable always has higher insulation resistance
than a shorter cable.

(D) The larger insulation surface area provides more
leakage paths to ground.

83. The output of the phase detector in a phase-locked 84. What is the output the given C language code
loop is ____________. snippet? #include<stdio.h> int main() { int x[] =
{10,20,30}; int *p = x; p++; printf("%d",*p); return 0; }
(A) A maximum constant voltage when the phase detector is
in a free-running state. (A) Garbage value

(B) Zero when the phase detector finds the input and (B) 30
oscillator phases are perfectly aligned. (C) 10
(C) An alternating current signal when the phase detector (D) 20
locks the loop.

(D) A proportional error voltage when the phase detector
identifies a phase difference between input and the VCO
signal

85. The current flows directly into the input terminals of 86. What does PPP stand for in Wide Area Network ( WAN
an ideal op-amp is _____________ due to ____________ input ) communication?
impedance.
(A) Private Port Protocol
(A) zero; infinite (B) Point-to-Point Protocol
(B) 1 milliAmpere; zero (C) Public Packet Protocol
(C) dependent on the supply voltage; zero (D) Packet Transfer Protocol
(D) 1 Ampere; moderate

87. In 8051, consider the following instructions: MOV 88. In Boolean algebra, what is the value of C + C'?
PSW, #18H MOV R3, #55H MOV A, R3 From which
(A) C
register bank is R3 selected in the instruction MOV A, R3?
(B) C · C'
(A) Bank 3
(C) 1
(B) Bank 0
(D) 0
(C) Bank 2

(D) Bank 1

89. Why does charging a lead-acid secondary cell 90. Consider the following code snippet in C programming
increase the specific gravity of the electrolyte? language. int n = 5; int m = n++; What is the value of m
after execution?
(A) Active materials reform and increase acid concentration

(B) It decreases due to formation of water from hydrogen (A) 5

and oxygen (B) 6

(C) It increases due to hydrogen gas raising electrolyte (C) 0
density (D) 1
(D) It stays the same because separators control dilution

91. What is the purpose of the Back-off technique in 92. In an analog Stored Program Control (SPC) system,
transponder power amplifiers related to Satellite the Program manages:
communication?
(A) The electronic connection of the analog matrix
(A) To save satellite battery life during the night (B) The digital conversion of the voice signal
(B) To reduce intermodulation distortion when multiple (C) The brightness of the telephone screen
carriers are present
(D) The internet connection of the subscriber
(C) To increase the speed of data transmission

(D) To increase the maximum output power

93. In the 8085 microprocessor, what happens to the 94. Consider the following statements about routing in
Stack Pointer after execution of PUSH instruction? computer networks. S1: Routers operate at the network
layer S2: Routing determines packet forwarding paths
(A) Incremented by 2
S3: Static routing updates automatically S4: Dynamic
(B) Decremented by 2
routing protocols exchange routing information Which of
(C) Unchanged the given statements are TRUE?
(D) Incremented by 1
(A) Only S1 and S2

(B) Only S2 and S3

(C) Only S1, S2 and S4

(D) Only S1 and S4

95. Using De Morgan’s law, what is the equivalent of (P · 96. At room temperature, the region in a PN junction
Q · R)‾ ? (original expression partly cut off at top of crop; diode where there are no mobile electrons or holes is
reconstructed from answer key as complement of P · Q · called __________________.
R)
(A) N-type region
(A) P + Q + R (B) P-type region
(B) P̄ · Q̄ · R̄ (C) Depletion region
(C) P · Q · R (D) Ohmic terminal interface
(D) P̄ + Q̄ + R̄

97. If the same quantity is measured several times and 98. Which action is the most important for maintaining
the readings vary slightly each time, which type of error accurate measurements in an instrument?
is most likely present?
(A) Calibrate the instrument using a standard reference
(A) Calibration error (B) Operating the instrument always at maximum frequency
(B) Random error range.

(C) Systematic error (C) Reduce the sensitivity of the instrument

(D) Parallax error (D) Setting the amplifier gain of the instrument to zero

99. In an LCD display, what is the main purpose of the 100. Why is a high-sensitivity voltmeter preferred for
liquid crystal layer positioned between the two glass accurate circuit measurements?
plates?
(A) It minimizes loading effect by drawing very small current
(A) To store electrical energy for the display circuit (B) It increases the operating frequency of the circuit
(B) To control the transmission of light through the display (C) It reduces the response time of the instrument
(C) To act as a light source for displaying characters (D) It increases the power consumption of the measuring
(D) To increase the operating voltage of the display circuit
segment

101. A transmission line has a characteristic impedance 102. Which mechanical property allows a conductor to be
of 50 ohm and is connected to a load of 100 ohm. The drawn into thin wires without breaking?
VSWR is _________.
(A) Ductility
(A) 0.5 (B) Elasticity
(B) 4 (C) Hardness
(C) 1 (D) Brittleness
(D) 2

103. In the magnetic trip mechanism of an MCB, which 104. In the 8085 microprocessor, if SP = 3FFFH and
sequence correctly describes the tripping action during a memory contains: 3FFEH = 20H 3FFFH = 20H 4000H =
short circuit? 10H 4001H =10H After executing POP H, what will be the
contents of HL?
(A) Fault current → contact resistance increases → plunger
attracted → latch released (A) 2020H

(B) Fault current → plunger released → magnetic field (B) 2010H
generated → contacts open (C) 1010H
(C) Fault current → bimetal strip bends → latch released → (D) 1020H
contacts open

(D) Fault current → magnetic field generated → plunger
attracted → latch released

105. Consider the following statements about RS-232 106. The transition of an SCR from the forward blocking
ports and connectors. S1: DB9 connector is associated state to the conduction state is called:
with RS-232 S2: RS-232 uses RJ45 connector for standard
(A) Avalanche breakdown
serial communication S3: RS-232 communication is point-
(B) Commutation
to-point Which statements are TRUE?
(C) Forward recovery
(A) Only S1 and S3
(D) Triggering
(B) Only S2 and S3

(C) Only S1

(D) Only S1 and S2

107. A motor draws a starting current much higher than 108. A magnetic material has a hysteresis loop area of
its running current. What should be considered when 0.4 J for each cycle. If the material is subjected to a
selecting a relay? frequency of 40 Hz, what is the total hysteresis loss per
second?
(A) Relay contact rating must exceed the motor's peak
starting current (A) 16 W

(B) Relay contact rating should match only the motor (B) 20 W
running current (C) 12 W
(C) Relay selection depends solely on the coil voltage (D) 10 W
specification.

(D) Relay selection should focus only on minimum coil
voltage

109. In the 8085 microprocessor, what does the 110. An engineer is designing a feedback control system
instruction PCHL do? using a potentiometer transducer to measure angular
position. What is the primary effect if a voltmeter with
(A) Loads the PC with HL
low resistance is connected to measure the
(B) Pops the PC from the stack
potentiometer output?
(C) Loads HL with the PC
(A) It increases output signal noise regardless of wiper
(D) Pushes PC onto the stack
position

(B) It maximizes sensitivity and accuracy of the measuring
instrument

(C) It reduces the mechanical lifespan of the potentiometer
due to excess current

(D) It causes loading error, resulting in nonlinear output
voltage relative to wiper position

111. Which characteristic primarily defines how 112. When a NOR-based SR flip-flop with active HIGH
accurately the vertical deflection system of a CRO inputs receives a momentary logic high on its S (set)
displays signals of different amplitudes and frequencies? input while the R (reset) input remains low, what will be
the resulting state of the Q output?
(A) Operation of the sweep circuit and retrace interval

(B) Phosphor persistence on the CRT screen (A) Q becomes HIGH and remains latched HIGH

(C) Accelerating anode voltage in the electron gun (B) Both outputs will become high during the pulse

(D) The gain and frequency response of the vertical (C) The Q output will become low after S returns to low

amplifier (D) The Q output will toggle between high and low
repeatedly

113. What does the instruction ORA B do in 8085? 114. Which statement is TRUE about if statement in the C
programming language?
(A) Subtracts B from accumulator

(B) Performs AND between accumulator and B (A) A non-zero value written in the condition means True

(C) Adds B to accumulator (B) A value of 0 written in the condition means True

(D) Performs logical OR between accumulator and B (C) Every if statement must have a matching else

(D) if statement cannot be nested

115. In a 4-to-2 priority encoder, if both D1 and D3 are 116. What is the function of the INTA' signal in the 8085
HIGH, which input determines the output and why? microprocessor?

(A) The output is undefined due to multiple actives (A) To enable interrupts

(B) Both D1 and D3 set the output together (B) To acknowledge an interrupt request

(C) D1 determines the output because it is the lower (C) To disable interrupts
number (D) To reset the processor
(D) D3 determines the output because it has higher priority

117. In the Hexagonal cell model, where is the Base 118. Which type of network typically experiences the
Transceiver Station (BTS) typically located to provide lowest transmission delay?
uniform coverage?
(A) WAN
(A) Outside the cell boundary to avoid interference (B) Satellite Network
(B) At any one of the six corners (C) MAN
(C) Along the longest edge of the cell (D) LAN
(D) Exactly at the center of the hexagon

119. What does the remanence (B ) indicate in a magnetic 120. What is the main reason high-frequency Carrier
hysteresis loop? r signals are used in modulation?

(A) It is the maximum magnetic flux density reached in the (A) To amplify the original message signal.
loop. (B) To make the signal move at the speed of light.
(B) It is the applied field needed to reduce flux to zero. (C) To eliminate the need for a receiver.
(C) It is the residual magnetic flux density after removing (D) To reduce the physical size of the required antenna.
the applied field.

(D) It is the area enclosed by the hysteresis loop.

121. Which arrangement is used in a CRT of Cathode Ray 122. A coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the
Oscilloscope (CRO) to achieve proper electrostatic area of the coil is doubled while the magnetic field
focusing of the electron beam? strength and orientation remain unchanged, how will the
magnetic flux through the coil be affected assuming the
(A) A cathode at high potential followed by only high
initial magnetic flux is a non-zero finite value?
potential accelerating anodes

(B) A fluorescent screen at lower potential placed after the (A) The magnetic flux will remain the same

high potential accelerating anodes (B) The magnetic flux will decrease to half

(C) A focusing anode at lower potential placed between two (C) The magnetic flux will become four times
high potential accelerating anodes (D) The magnetic flux will double
(D) Two accelerating anodes at equal potential without a
focusing anode

123. In a LAN environment, switches improve network 124. What happens to the frequency of an astable
efficiency primarily by: multivibrator if the value of ONLY the timing capacitor is
doubled?
(A) Forwarding frames selectively using MAC addresses

(B) Increasing collision occurrences and retransmitting (A) The frequency is reduced by half.

(C) Broadcasting all frames to every device in the network (B) The frequency remains the same.

(D) Converting digital signal to analog signal (C) The frequency increases fourfold.

(D) The frequency doubles.

125. A resistor connected to a DC supply of 20 V produces 126. Which of the following is a false statement
the same heating effect as an AC supply connected regarding the non-inverting amplifier using OP-AMP?
across the same resistor. What is the RMS value of the AC
(A) It offers high input impedance
voltage?
(B) It provides higher magnitude gain for the same resistor
(A) 10 V values when compared to the inverting amplifier
(B) 28.28 V (C) It is ideal for use in instrumentation and buffer circuits
(C) 20 V (D) It is limited to handling only DC signals
(D) 14.14 V

127. In a CRO time-base circuit, why is constant-current 128. Consider an abrupt p-n junction under thermal
charging preferred for generating the sweep voltage? equilibrium. If the acceptor doping concentration (N ) in
the p-region is made significantly larger than the donor
(A) It ensures the capacitor voltage rises uniformly over
doping A ≫ concentration (N ) in the n-region (i.e., N N ),
time, forming a linear sweep
how is the depletion region physically D A D distributed?
(B) It causes the capacitor voltage to rise exponentially with
time, distorting the sweep (A) It extends primarily into the lightly doped n-type region.

(C) It makes the retrace interval longer than the sweep (B) It extends equally into both the p-type and n-type

interval regions.

(D) It relies on the transistor's collector current to set the (C) It extends primarily into the heavily doped p-type region.

linearity (D) It is confined strictly to the metallurgical junction with
zero penetration into either region.

129. A constant negative DC voltage is applied to the 130. In a pulsed radar system, the __________ power is the
input of an inverting integrator. Assuming the op-amp maximum instantaneous power delivered during the
starts at zero volts and remains unsaturated, the output pulse width, whereas the __________ power is the mean
will be: power output calculated over the total transmission
cycle.
(A) A square wave

(B) A positive-going linear ramp (A) Pulsed; Continuous

(C) A negative-going linear ramp (B) Effective; Gain

(D) A constant DC voltage (C) Average; Peak

(D) Peak; Average

131. In the 8085 microprocessor, what operation is 132. Why is earthing necessary for electrical equipment?
performed by the instruction SUI 20H?
(A) To decrease power consumption
(A) Subtracts 20H from the accumulator (B) To increase wire length
(B) Subtracts 20H from the accumulator with borrow (C) To improve light brightness
(C) Adds 20H to the accumulator (D) To protect people from electric shock
(D) Compares with 20H with the accumulator

133. In a centralized switching system, what is the 134. If the strength of the current in a straight wire is
Control Unit responsible for? doubled, how does the magnitude of the magnetic field
at a fixed distance from the wire change?
(A) Generating the ringing voltage only

(B) Processing dialed digits and managing call setup (A) The field strength is halved

(C) Generating the voice of the caller (B) The field strength doubles

(D) Physically moving the copper wires (C) The field strength remains unchanged

(D) The field strength quadruples

135. Which operator is used for dynamic memory 136. Which cable transmits data using light signals?
allocation in C++?
(A) Twisted pair cable
(A) delete (B) Coaxial cable
(B) allocate (C) USB cable
(C) new (D) Fiber optic cable
(D) alloc

137. The holding current of an SCR is defined as the: 138. Which instruction is used to return from a
subroutine in 8085?
(A) Minimum anode current required to turn on the SCR

(B) Minimum anode current required to keep the SCR in (A) RET

conduction state (B) RST

(C) Gate current required to turn off the SCR (C) CALL

(D) Maximum anode current the SCR can withstand (D) JMP

139. The primary reason for the increase in resistance of 140. An op amp acting as a comparator typically operates
metallic conductors with temperature is _____________. in:

(A) Atomic collisions inside the conductor increase (A) Closed-loop mode with negative feedback

(B) Atomic vibrations inside the conductor decrease (B) Unity gain mode

(C) Number of free electrons becomes zero (C) Linear region only

(D) Conducting path inside the material becomes shorter (D) Open-loop mode

141. A single-phase AC circuit contains a resistive 142. The LPF in a PLL determines which of the following
inductive load. The current lags behind the voltage by an dynamic characteristics?
angle greater than 0° and less than 90°. What is the
(A) The input impedance of the phase detector.
power factor of the circuit called?
(B) The free-running frequency of the VCO.
(A) Zero power factor
(C) The maximum output power of the circuit.
(B) Lagging power factor
(D) Settling time and loop stability.
(C) Leading power factor

(D) Unity power factor

143. Which of the following contains only valid octal 144. If the modulating signal is a constant DC voltage,
digits? the output of a Phase Modulator will be:

(A) 2, 4, 6, 9 (A) Zero.

(B) 3, 5, 7, 9 (B) A signal with increasing frequency.

(C) 0, 3, 5, 7 (C) A constant frequency signal with a fixed phase shift.

(D) 1, 5, 7, 8 (D) A signal with varying amplitude.

145. What is the output of the give C language code 146. A 4 KB EPROM is organized with 8 data lines. How
snippet? void f(int x) { x = x + 5; } int main() { int a = many address lines does it have?
10; f(a); printf("%d",a); return 0; }
(A) 14
(A) 5 (B) 10
(B) 15 (C) 12
(C) 10 (D) 8
(D) Garbage value

147. In a monostable configuration of IC 555, why is the 148. Assume an SCR is operating in the forward blocking
Discharge pin (Pin 7) connected directly to the Threshold state. Once a sufficient positive current pulse is applied
pin (Pin 6)? to the gate terminal, the SCR triggers into the conduction
state. What happens if the gate signal is completely
(A) To prevent the capacitor from ever reaching 2/3 Vcc
removed immediately after conduction starts?
(B) To ensure the capacitor is instantly discharged once the
threshold is reached. (A) The SCR will immediately turn off.

(C) To allow the capacitor to charge very slowly for stable (B) The anode current will drop by exactly 50%.

output. (C) The SCR will begin to oscillate between the ON and OFF

(D) To trigger the next pulse automatically. states.

(D) The SCR will continue to conduct until the anode current
drops below the holding current.

149. Which of the following statements about the 150. Which protocol is responsible for delivering web
Harvard architecture used in the 8051 microcontroller is pages over the Internet?
correct?
(A) SMTP
(A) Uses single memory for program and data (B) ARP
(B) Has no external memory support (C) FTP
(C) Uses only RAM (D) HTTP
(D) Uses separate memory for program and data

ANSWER KEY

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (C)

8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C)

15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C)

22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C)

29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D)

36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D) 41. (C) 42. (D)

43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (D)

50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (C)

57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (C)

64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (B)

71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (B)

78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A) 81. (A) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (D)

85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A) 91. (B)

92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (D) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (A)

99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (D) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A)

106. (D) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (D) 111. (D) 112. (A)

113. (D) 114. (A) 115. (D) 116. (B) 117. (D) 118. (D) 119. (C)

120. (D) 121. (C)
Get Free Sample122. (D)Question Papers,
Papers, 123. (A)Tests & Study Material
Mock 124. (A) 125. (C)
at 126. (D)

127. (A) 128. (A) 129. (B) 130. (D) 131. (A) 132. (D) 133. (B)

134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D) 137. (B) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (D)

141. (B) 142. (D) 143. (C) 144. (C) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (B)

148. (D) 149. (D) 150. (D)