RRB JE 2027 Sample Paper (CBT 2 - CMA)

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - CMA)
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

150 150 120 Min +1 / −0.33

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 150 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 1 mark; 0.33 mark (one-third of the marks) is deducted for each wrong answer.

4. Total time allowed is 120 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

RRB JE 2027 (CBT 2 - CMA)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 150 Max Marks 150 Time 120 Min Marking +1 / −0.33

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

GENERAL AWARENESS & APTITUDE

1. The term 'smog' is a combination of ____________. 2. The Kol Rebellion (1831–32) mainly affected which
plateau region?
(A) Smog and mist

(B) Smoke and fog (A) Chotanagpur Plateau

(C) Smoke and haze (B) Malwa Plateau

(D) Fog and clouds (C) Deccan Plateau

(D) Meghalaya Plateau

3. A student pushes a heavy box that is already moving 4. Biomedical waste handlers in a hospital are at risk of
across a rough floor. If the force applied by the student is occupational hazards. The most effective way to protect
exactly equal to the frictional force opposing the motion, them from exposure to infectious materials is:
what will happen to the box?
(A) Regular medical check-ups
(A) The box will gradually come to rest (B) Segregation of waste into color-coded bins
(B) The box will move at a constant speed (C) Use of protective equipment and safe handling
(C) The box will accelerate forward (D) Vaccination against common infections
(D) The box will move at increasing speed

5. The primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak 6. Which function returns the smallest value?
Yojana (PMGSY) is to:
(A) COUNT()
(A) Develop urban infrastructure (B) MAX()
(B) Provide rural connectivity through road construction (C) AVERAGE
(C) Enhance telecommunication services in cities (D) MIN()
(D) Promote renewable energy usage

7. Which Quick Style type is applied only to selected 8. Which condition is required for a displacement reaction
words or individual characters within a paragraph in MS between a metal and salt solution?
Word 2010?
(A) Metal must be same as salt constituent
(A) Character styles (B) Salt must be insoluble in water
(B) Linked styles (C) Metal must be higher in reactivity series
(C) Paragraph styles (D) Reaction must be endothermic
(D) Page styles

9. Which of the following is/are the primary reasons to 10. The pollutant group commonly associated with oil
fall in the trap of Email fraud or phishing? A) Paying spills in oceans is ______________.
attention to lucrative offers. B) Not checking on links or
(A) agricultural pesticides
attachments from unknown senders C) Providing official
(B) chemical fertilizers
information via email D) Paying attention to the company
logo sent in the email (C) petroleum products

(D) synthetic detergents
(A) A only

(B) A, B, D Only

(C) A, B Only

(D) A, B, C Only

11. Which of the following statements best describes the 12. Which of the following is a primary mission under
behavior of magnetic field lines around a straight India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)?
current-carrying conductor?
(A) National Nutrition Mission
(A) They form concentric circles centered on the conductor. (B) National Highway Development Project
(B) They radiate straight outward from the wire. (C) National Solar Mission
(C) They are parallel straight lines along the wire. (D) National Rural Livelihood Mission
(D) They change direction randomly along the wire.

13. Which of the following satellites was launched on 14. A factory plans to install a powerful electromagnet
November 2, 2025, to enhance the Indian Navy’s secure for lifting metal scraps. To maximize the magnetic field
communication network and maritime surveillance strength around the coil, which of the following
capabilities? combinations would be most effective?

(A) Cartosat-3 (A) Using a soft iron core, increasing coil turns, and

(B) RISAT-2B increasing current through the coil

(C) CMS-03 (GSAT-7R) (B) Using an air core, decreasing coil turns, and keeping
current constant
(D) GSAT-6A
(C) Using a copper core, increasing coil turns, and lowering
current

(D) Using a steel core, decreasing coil turns, and lowering
current

15. Which of the following Articles states about the right 16. Which British colonial building in Mumbai, completed
of individual to form associations or unions or co- in 1888, showcases a blend of Victorian Gothic and Indian
operative societies? architectural elements?

(A) Article 19 (1) (a) (A) Bombay Town Hall

(B) Article 19 (1) (b) (B) Gateway of India

(C) Article 19 (1) (d) (C) Rajabai Clock Tower

(D) Article 19 (1) (c) (D) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus

17. th The Mappila Uprisings of the 19 century occurred 18. What file extension is used to save an MS PowerPoint
mainly in which region of India? 2021 presentation?

(A) Konkan region of Maharashtra (A) .docx

(B) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu (B) .pdf

(C) Sunderbans region of West Bengal (C) .pptx

(D) Malabar region of Kerala (D) .xlsx

19. If 10 grams of salt are dissolved in 100 mL of water, 20. Which of the following options must be DISABLED
which component is the solute? before manually setting the date and time in Windows?

(A) Neither (A) Set time zone globally

(B) Water only (B) Set time automatically

(C) Both salt and water (C) Night Light

(D) Salt only (D) Enable multiple clocks

21. The atmospheric component that remains largely 22. Which of the following statements is true about the
unreactive is _____________. Outbox?

(A) Methane (A) It is used to receive incoming emails.

(B) Argon (B) It holds emails that have been successfully sent.

(C) Carbon dioxide (C) It temporarily stores emails that are queued for sending.

(D) Oxygen (D) It contains emails that are currently being drafted.

23. Which new warship was commissioned by the Indian 24. According to Thomson’s model, how are electrons
Navy in November, 2025, to strengthen anti-submarine arranged in an atom?
and coastal defence capabilities?
(A) Moving in fixed orbits around the nucleus
(A) INS Mahe (B) Randomly placed inside the nucleus
(B) INS Vikrant (C) Embedded in a positively charged sphere like seeds in a
(C) INS Arnala watermelon

(D) INS Ikshak (D) Orbiting around neutrons in elliptical paths

25. What is the main reason sulfur dioxide irritates the 26. According to the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution,
upper respiratory mucous membrane? the total number of ministers (including the Prime
Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed
(A) It combines with other pollutants and polymerizes in the
what percentage of the total members of the House of
lungs
the People, i.e., Lok Sabha?
(B) It oxidizes to sulphur trioxide and inhaled deep into lung
(A) 15%
(C) It dissolves in moisture in upper respiratory tract and
forms irritant (B) 25%

(D) It combines with haemoglobin and effect the oxygen (C) 20%

transport (D) 10%

27. Which type of computer virus attaches itself to 28. A field exposed to excessive pesticide use shows a
executable files and gets activated when the file is run? sharp decline in earthworm population. The resulting
effect on soil is:
(A) Macro Virus

(B) Boot Sector Virus (A) Increased water retention

(C) File Infector Virus (B) Enhanced decomposition

(D) Worm (C) Improved aeration

(D) Reduced soil fertility

29. Which pair of sectors is commonly addressed 30. The primary method of managing biodegradable
together in State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC) domestic waste after collection is _________________.
adaptation planning?
(A) burnt in open air
(A) Textile design and fashion marketing (B) conversion into compost
(B) Water resources and health systems (C) sending for recycling
(C) Heavy industry and entertainment (D) throwing into sewers
(D) Information technology and space research

31. Which experimental discovery contradicted 32. When was the 11th National Handloom Day
Thomson's model of the atom and led to its rejection? celebrated across India under the coordination of the
Ministry of Textiles?
(A) Alpha particle scattering showing deflection at large
angles (A) October 7, 2025

(B) Discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick (B) September 7, 2025

(C) Measurement of atomic radius using X-ray diffraction (C) August 7, 2025

(D) Observation of line spectra of hydrogen by Bohr (D) November 7, 2025

33. A farmer applies large amounts of chemical fertilizers 34. What is the general formula of alkenes?
over several years. Which consequence most likely
(A) C H n 2n−2
results from this practice leading to soil pollution?
(B) C H n 2n+2
(A) Faster plant growth every season
(C) C H n n
(B) Increase in earthworm population
(D) C H n 2n
(C) Accumulation of toxic substances in soil

(D) Erosion of surface soil layers

35. Which of the following statements best describes how 36. Match the following columns. Pardoning power
the power of accommodation enables the human eye to Function
focus on both near and distant objects?
(A) 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a
(A) The cornea provides all the focusing power required for (B) 1-c, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d
clear vision
(C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-b
(B) The retina moves forward and backward to adjust the
(D) 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a
focus

(C) The eye lens changes its focal length by altering its
shape through ciliary muscle action

(D) The iris controls the amount of light entering and helps
to focus

37. Which of the following best describes how sound 38. You want to automatically advance slides with
travels through air? narration and animations during a presentation. Which
MS PowerPoint feature should you use to achieve this?
(A) The air particles move in circular paths as the wave
passes (A) Slide Sorter

(B) The air particles remain stationary while the wave (B) Action Buttons
moves through (C) Rehearse Timings
(C) The air particles vibrate up and down perpendicular to (D) Presenter View
the direction of the wave

(D) The air particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the
direction of the wave

39. On which date is National Handloom Day observed in 40. Which of the following best describes the velocity-
India? time graph for an object moving with uniform velocity?

(A) 2 October (A) A straight horizontal line parallel to the time axis

(B) 5 September (B) A curved line above the time axis

(C) 18 August (C) A straight line sloping upwards from the time axis

(D) 7 August (D) A line starting from the origin and sloping upwards

41. Which of the following indicators is NOT typically 42. If cell A1 = 10 and B1 = 20, what will `=A1+B1`
used to measure sustainable development? return?

(A) Biocapacity (A) Error

(B) Human Development Index (HDI) (B) 1020

(C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate (C) 30

(D) Ecological Footprint (D) 200

43. The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred 44. The Atal Bhujal Yojana 2020 focused on improving
mainly in which region of India? water resources management of how many states?

(A) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu (A) five

(B) Sunderbans region of West Bengal (B) seven

(C) Konkan region of Maharashtra (C) eight

(D) Malabar region of Kerala (D) ten

45. A student accidentally spills some hydrochloric acid 46. Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the
on a table. Which substance should be used to neutralise eastern coastal plains?
the acid safely?
(A) Ganga
(A) Vinegar (B) Narmada
(B) Lemon juice (C) Tapi
(C) Baking soda solution (D) Godavari
(D) Sugar solution

47. A construction worker needs to lift a heavy metal 48. How can we locate a file with a known extension but
beam using a lever but has a limited length of plank. an unknown name in a large directory?
Which adjustment would allow the worker to lift the
(A) Through File Explorer
beam with the least effort if the position of the fulcrum
(B) Using the Search box in File Explorer with *.ext
can be changed but the plank length remains constant?
(C) Checking the Recycle Bin
(A) Keep the fulcrum fixed at any point
(D) Using the dir command
(B) Move the fulcrum closer to the worker

(C) Move the fulcrum closer to the beam

(D) Place the fulcrum at the center of the plank

49. Consider the following statements regarding chemical 50. In a real-life scenario, a chemist discovers a
reactions and choose the correct option. Statement I: compound with the formula CH CH CH(CH )CH CH OH.
Every reaction in which two or more reactants combine to What is the correct IUPAC name for this compound? 3 2 3
form a single product is classified as a combination 22
reaction regardless of heat change. Statement II: The
(A) 2-methylhexanol
reaction CaO(s) + H O(l) → Ca(OH) (aq) + heat is both a
(B) 3-methylpentan-1-ol
combination 2 2 reaction and an exothermic reaction.
(C) 3-methylhexanol
(A) Both statements are correct
(D) 4-methylpentanol
(B) Both statements are incorrect

(C) Only Statement I is correct

(D) Only Statement II is correct

COMPUTER, METALLURGICAL & ALLIED (TECHNICAL)

51. Which of the following correctly describes a 52. Isotopes of the same element possess different
homogeneous mixture? atomic masses because they contain different numbers of
________.
(A) It forms separate layers on standing

(B) It contains only solid components (A) Electrons in outer shell

(C) It has uniform composition throughout (B) Neutrons inside nucleus

(D) It has visible particles that settle on standing (C) Protons inside nucleus

(D) Positive ions in orbit

53. A chemist is analyzing an unknown organic sample. If 54. Which of the following statements best explains how
the compound contains a benzene ring directly attached the speed of sound changes when it travels from air into
to a methyl group, how should the compound be water?
classified based on its structure?
(A) Sound cannot travel through water at all because it is a
(A) Open-chain alkene liquid and not a gas.

(B) Aliphatic alcohol (B) Sound travels at the same speed in both air and water

(C) Aromatic hydrocarbon because both are fluids with similar properties.

(D) Cyclic ether (C) Sound travels slower in water than in air because water
particles are further apart, making transmission more
difficult.

(D) Sound travels faster in water than in air because water
particles are closer together, enabling quicker transmission
of vibrations.

55. Which of the following observations confirm a double 56. If the frequency of a sound wave increases while its
displacement reaction? speed in the medium remains unchanged, what happens
to its wavelength?
(A) Formation of a precipitate when two solutions are mixed

(B) Formation of a single product from two reactants (A) Its wavelength remains the same.

(C) Release of hydrogen gas when metal reacts with acid (B) Its wavelength becomes zero.

(D) Colour change due to displacement of metal (C) Its wavelength decreases.

(D) Its wavelength increases.

57. The amplified output signal in a common emitter 58. Which of the following statements correctly describe
transistor amplifier is usually taken from _________. similarities between a bar magnet and a current-carrying
solenoid?
(A) Base-emitter circuit

(B) Collector-emitter circuit (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(C) Base terminal only (B) 1 and 3 only

(D) Emitter terminal only (C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

59. A student wants to compare the magnetic field patterns produced by a straight current- carrying wire and a
current-carrying circular loop. Which experimental setup would best demonstrate the difference in their magnetic field
lines?

(A) Using a compass to detect direction of magnetic field at various points near the wire only

(B) Measuring the force between two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction

(C) Using iron filings around both the straight wire and the circular loop to visualize their magnetic field patterns

(D) Placing a bar magnet near both conductors to observe attraction or repulsion

60. Cathode rays observed in discharge tubes are best 61. Which of the following best explains why radio waves
described as: are suitable for long-distance communication compared
to other regions of the electromagnetic spectrum?
(A) Streams of photons emitted from heated metal
electrodes (A) Radio waves are the exclusive electromagnetic signals

(B) Streams of protons moving from anode toward cathode generated by electronic circuits.

(C) Streams of neutrons moving randomly inside the tube (B) Radio waves exhibit much higher energy per photon
than optical frequency signals.
(D) Streams of electrons moving from cathode toward anode
(C) Radio waves are less likely to be absorbed or scattered
by Earth's atmosphere.

(D) Radio waves travel at significantly higher velocities
through dense atmospheric layers.

62. What determines the reactivity of elements in 63. A particle of mass m starts from rest and moves with
chemical reactions? constant acceleration 'a'. After travelling a distance 's',
what is its kinetic energy?
(A) Reactivity depends on ease of electron loss or gain

(B) Reactivity remains constant for all chemical elements (A) (1/2)ma2

(C) Reactivity independent of electron transfer in reactions (B) mas

(D) Reactivity depends only on nuclear properties of atoms (C) 2mas

(D) (1/2)mas

64. A cylinder fitted with a frictionless movable piston 65. Read the below Assertion and Reason and choose the
contains 2 moles of an ideal gas at 27°C and a volume of correct option. Assertion (A): Bleaching powder is used
10 L. The gas is heated to 127°C while maintaining as an oxidising agent in chemical industries. Reason (R):
constant pressure. What will be the final volume of the Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine
gas? on dry slaked lime.

(A) 15.0 L (A) A is true, but R is false

(B) 13.3 L (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct

(C) 12.0 L explanation of A

(D) 10.8 L (C) A is false, but R is true

(D) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A

66. A body of mass m is dropped from a height h. When it 67. According to the Aufbau principle, how are electrons
has fallen through a distance of 2h/3, the ratio of its distributed among atomic orbitals?
kinetic energy to potential energy is __________.
(A) Electrons fill highest energy orbitals before lower ones
(A) 3:1 (B) Electrons occupy orbitals randomly without any energy
(B) 2:1 order

(C) 1:2 (C) Orbital filling is independent of relative energy levels

(D) 1:1 (D) Filling occurs in order of increasing energy of orbitals

68. Why is the net magnetic flux through any closed 69. Which of the following statements correctly describe
surface always zero? magnetic field lines around a bar magnet?

(A) Magnetic field lines are straight (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) Electric charges cancel magnetic field (B) 1 and 3 only

(C) Magnetic monopoles do not exist (C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) Magnetic field is weak (D) 2 and 3 only

70. For an sp³ molecule with one lone pair, how and why 71. A molecule containing a hydroxyl group attached to a
does the bond angle change compared to the ideal saturated carbon atom is most appropriately classified
tetrahedral angle? under which category?

(A) The bond angle will decrease due to lone pair-bond pair (A) It is an aldehyde
repulsion (B) It is an ether
(B) The bond angle will increase due to electron sharing (C) It is an amide
(C) The bond angle will remain unchanged due to stable (D) It is an alcohol
geometry

(D) The bond angle will decrease due to increased nucleus
attraction

72. In the output characteristics of a transistor, the 73. Which statement best explains why exchange energy
nearly horizontal curves indicate that collector current is stabilizes half-filled subshell configurations?
__________.
(A) Opposite spins create stronger exchange interactions
(A) Alternating continuously increasing stability

(B) Zero for all voltages (B) Stability depends only on nuclear attraction to electrons

(C) Highly dependent on V CE (C) Exchange energy has no role in determining electronic

(D) Nearly constant for fixed base current stability

(D) Parallel spins allow exchange interactions increasing
configuration stability

74. What happens to a plane wavefront after reflecting 75. Which process uses oil and water to separate
from a concave mirror whose principal axis is valuable minerals from impurities during ore
perpendicular to the incident wavefront? concentration?

(A) It retains its structural orientation to emerge as a flat (A) Electrolytic refining method
plane wavefront moving along the parallel axis. (B) Leaching process
(B) It breaks apart into irregular fragments to emerge as a (C) Magnetic separation method
highly scattered wave moving in random paths.
(D) Froth flotation method
(C) It undergoes a shape transition to emerge as a spherical
wavefront converging toward a focal point.

(D) It undergoes a shape transition to emerge as a spherical
wavefront expanding outward toward infinity.

76. The stability of the nucleus is mainly due to the 77. A company is designing a heating element and wants
balance between ________. to reduce the resistance of a conductor. The material,
temperature, and length of the conductor must remain
(A) Electron attraction and neutron decay
unchanged. Which modification will most effectively
(B) Gravitational force and magnetic flux
decrease the resistance?
(C) Atomic volume and electric current
(A) Raising the resistivity of the conductor
(D) Nuclear attraction and proton repulsion
(B) Decreasing the cross-sectional area of the conductor

(C) Increasing the cross-sectional area of the conductor

(D) Decreasing the resistivity of the conductor.

78. A satellite is placed in a circular orbit around Earth at 79. Which combination of objective and eyepiece focal
a fixed orbital radius. If the mass of the satellite is lengths will result in the highest magnifying power for a
doubled while keeping the orbital radius unchanged, how simple astronomical telescope?
does the gravitational force between Earth and the
(A) Short focal length eyepiece and long focal length
satellite change according to Newton’s law of
objective
gravitation?
(B) Short focal length eyepiece and short focal length
(A) The gravitational force quadruples objective
(B) The gravitational force halves (C) Long focal length eyepiece and short focal length
(C) The gravitational force doubles objective

(D) The gravitational force remains the same (D) Long focal length eyepiece and long focal length
objective

80. In the formation of sp hybrid orbitals, what is the 81. A copper plate and an aluminum plate of equal
geometry adopted by a molecule such as BeCl ? 2 thickness and area are maintained at the same
temperature difference. If the thermal conductivity of
(A) Linear
copper is twice that of aluminum, what will be the ratio
(B) Tetrahedral
of heat flow through copper to that through aluminum?
(C) Trigonal planar
(A) The ratio will be 4:1 for copper to aluminum.
(D) Octahedral
(B) The ratio will be 1:1 for copper to aluminum.

(C) The ratio will be 2:1 for copper to aluminum.

(D) The ratio will be 1:2 for copper to aluminum.

82. A copper ore is heated in the presence of air during
metal extraction. What property of copper makes this
process effective?

(A) Copper’s low reactivity allows simple heating

(B) Copper readily combines with chlorine gas

(C) Copper requires strong reducing agents

(D) Copper forms soluble carbonates easily

83. Two objects, one made of copper and the other of aluminum, are placed in thermal contact. Both have equal
masses and are initially at different temperatures. Considering their specific heat capacities, which statement best
describes what happens as they approach thermal equilibrium?

(A) Both interacting objects experience entirely identical magnitudes of temperature shifts.

(B) The object with lower specific heat experiences larger temperature shifts.

(C) The object with higher specific heat experiences larger temperature shifts.

(D) Neither interacting object experiences any measurable variation in absolute temperature.

84. Which statement correctly describes the strength of 85. In the parallelogram method of vector addition, two
the bond in terms of orbital overlap? vectors are drawn from the same point as adjacent sides
of a parallelogram. What does the diagonal passing
(A) Lesser orbital overlap forms a stronger covalent bond
through the common point represent?
(B) Greater orbital overlap forms a stronger covalent bond
(A) The average of the two vectors
(C) Partial orbital overlap forms an ionic bond
(B) The resultant vector in both magnitude and direction
(D) Equal orbital overlap forms a weaker covalent bond
(C) The scalar sum of the two vectors

(D) The difference between the two vectors

86. A food processing company has to select materials for 87. A compass needle placed in a uniform magnetic field
storing acidic foods. Which approach is most suitable to oscillates about its equilibrium position. What is the main
reduce corrosion and ensure long-term safety? reason for this behavior?

(A) Using stainless steel for the construction of tanks (A) It experiences a net force

(B) Painting the interior with non-metallic paints (B) It gains energy from the field continuously

(C) Fixing aluminium strips on the tank walls (C) It experiences a torque

(D) Keeping silica gel packets inside the tanks (D) The magnetic field is non-uniform

88. A vehicle manufacturer is designing engines 89. Two atoms having the same number of nucleons but
compatible with both petrol and alcohol- based fuels. different atomic numbers are called ________.
What challenge must be addressed to ensure efficient
(A) Isoelectronic particles only
engine performance with alcohol blends?
(B) Isotopes only
(A) Alcohol remains completely immiscible with petroleum-
(C) Isobars only
based fuels
(D) Isotones only
(B) Alcohol tends to absorb water and corrode metallic
engine parts

(C) Alcohol shows complete resistance to combustion inside
engines

(D) Alcohol tends to freeze easily under normal room
conditions

90. A particle moves 8 m east, then 15 m north, and 91. Why does high-density polythene exhibit greater
finally 8 m west. What is the ratio of the total distance tensile strength than low-density polythene?
travelled to the magnitude of the net displacement?
(A) High-density polythene is manufactured at higher
(A) 16:15 temperatures

(B) 31:15 (B) Low-density polythene contains extensive cross-linked

(C) 31:8 structures

(D) 15:31 (C) High-density polythene contains linear and closely
packed chains

(D) Low-density polythene contains more amorphous chain
regions

92. Why are half-filled orbitals considered more stable? 93. According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle,
what happens when the precision in measuring position
(A) Half-filled orbitals are always less stable
increases?
(B) Stability does not depend on electron arrangement
(A) Measurements remain unaffected by uncertainty
(C) Equal electron distribution reduces repulsion in orbitals
principle limits
(D) Unequal electron distribution increases atomic instability
(B) Uncertainty decreases for both variables simultaneously

(C) Both variables can be measured accurately
simultaneously always

(D) Greater precision in one variable leads to greater
uncertainty in other

94. A particle moves with uniform acceleration and has 95. Which of the following equations is dimensionally
an initial velocity u. It covers distances s and 2s in two consistent?
successive equal time intervals t. What is the
(A) Velocity = mass × time
acceleration of the particle?
(B) Energy = mass × velocity
(A) 2s/t2
(C) Power = force × time
(B) s/t2
(D) Force = mass × acceleration
(C) 3s/(4t2)

(D) 2s/(3t2)

96. A scientist is designing a concert hall to optimize 97. Radioactive decay cannot be predicted exactly for a
acoustics. She wants the audience to perceive louder single nucleus because the process is __________.
sounds without increasing the energy input from the
(A) Controlled by temperature only
speakers. Which characteristic of sound should she focus
(B) Dependent on chemical state always
on modifying within the hall's design?
(C) Random in nature
(A) Frequency of the sound waves
(D) Completely deterministic
(B) Wavelength of the sound waves

(C) Speed of sound in air

(D) Amplitude of the sound waves

98. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT 99. The Bohr radius increases in higher orbits because
regarding combination reactions? the electron __________.

(A) All combination reactions are endothermic in nature (A) acquires a positive charge

(B) Burning of coal is an example of a combination reaction (B) loses its entire kinetic energy

(C) Combination reactions form a single product from two or (C) completely stops revolving
more reactants (D) moves farther from the nucleus
(D) CaO reacts with H₂O to form Ca(OH)₂ with release of
heat

100. Which statement correctly explains the relationship 101. A car is at rest with its horn continuously sounding.
between pH and hydronium ion concentration? If a person walks toward the car, how does the frequency
of the sound heard by the person change?
(A) Higher the hydronium ion concentration, lower is the pH

(B) pH is independent of ion concentration (A) The frequency increases

(C) Lower the hydronium ion concentration, lower is the pH (B) The frequency remains unchanged

(D) Higher the hydronium ion concentration, higher is the (C) The frequency decreases

pH (D) The frequency fluctuates continuously

102. The magnetic field lines around an infinitely long
straight current-carrying wire are _________.

(A) Radially outward directed lines

(B) Concentric circular paths

(C) Straight parallel lines only

(D) Elliptical closed trajectories

103. A diamond (n=2.42) is immersed in a transparent liquid. A light ray inside the diamond is incident at the critical
angle at the diamond-liquid interface. If the refractive index of the liquid increases, what happens to the critical
angle?

(A) The critical angle remains unchanged as the refractive index of the liquid increases

(B) The critical angle decreases as the refractive index of the liquid increases

(C) The critical angle increases as the refractive index of the liquid increases

(D) Total internal reflection occurs at all angles as the refractive index of the liquid increases

104. Which equation below is NOT dimensionally 105. Which statement best explains how ionic radius
consistent? Ans 2 2 varies with charge and electronic configuration of ions?

(A) s = (v - u )/2a (A) Higher positive charge leads to smaller ionic radius due

(B) s = ut2 + (1/2) at to attraction

(C) s = vt 2 (B) Ionic radius remains constant regardless of ionic charge
or structure
(D) s = ut + (1/2) at
(C) Ionic charge has no influence on magnitude of ionic
radius

(D) Electronic configuration plays no role in determining
ionic size

106. Which of the following correctly identifies an acid 107. Why is molality preferred over molarity in colligative
using litmus paper? property calculations under varying temperature
conditions?
(A) Turns red litmus blue

(B) Turns blue litmus green (A) Molality depends directly on solution volume changes
with temperature
(C) Turns blue litmus red
(B) Molarity remains unaffected by temperature changes
(D) No change in red litmus
unlike molality values

(C) Molality remains unaffected by temperature changes
unlike molarity values

(D) Both molality and molarity remain unaffected by
temperature variations

108. What do electron shells represent in atomic 109. Which functional group is commonly found in
structure? vinegar and gives it acidic properties?

(A) Electron shells do not exist in atoms (A) Hydroxyl group

(B) All electrons have identical energy values (B) Ester group

(C) Electrons occupy fixed energy level shells (C) Carboxyl group

(D) Electrons move randomly without defined shells (D) Amino group

110. Stoichiometry in chemistry is mainly concerned with 111. Which molecule contains a central atom that has an
calculation of which of the following? incomplete octet in its Lewis structure and completes the
octet by accepting a lone pair through coordinate
(A) Calculations ignoring mole concept in chemical reaction
bonding?
analysis

(B) Reactant and product amounts using balanced chemical (A) In the formation of the tetrafluoroborate ion from Boron

equations trifluoride

(C) Physical properties of substances without chemical (B) In the formation of the hydronium ion from water

reaction calculations (C) In the formation of carbonate ion from carbon dioxide

(D) Reactions without using balanced chemical equation (D) In the formation of the ammonium ion from ammonia
relationships

112. According to the Kossel-Lewis approach, what is the 113. You have three test tubes: one with dilute HCl, one
main reason atoms form chemical bonds? with NaOH solution, and one with distilled water. Using
both red and blue litmus papers, which observation
(A) To maximize their energy states always
correctly identifies the test tube containing the acidic
(B) To achieve stable octets in their outermost shells
solution?
(C) To increase their atomic mass significantly
(A) No change in both red and blue litmus
(D) To share electrons regardless of stability
(B) No change in red, turns blue litmus red

(C) Turns red litmus blue

(D) Turns both red and blue litmus blue

114. Two circular current-carrying loops carry the same 115. A community water supply contains fluoride at 3
current but have different radii. Which loop produces the ppm. Which health effect is most likely to appear first
stronger magnetic field at its center? among long-term consumers of this water?

(A) Both loops produce the same magnetic field (A) Brown mottling of teeth due to excess fluoride exposure

(B) The loop with smaller radius produces a larger magnetic (B) Loss of tooth enamel due to complete fluoride absence
field (C) Severe skeletal deformities due to chronic fluoride
(C) The magnetic field at the center is zero exposure

(D) The loop with smaller radius produces a smaller (D) Increased tooth decay due to inadequate fluoride
magnetic field exposure

116. The charge of an electron is best described as: 117. Which statement best defines electron gain enthalpy
for an isolated gaseous atom?
(A) Sometimes positive charge under certain environmental
conditions (A) Energy released when atoms combine to form stable

(B) Variable charge depending on speed and energy molecules

conditions (B) Energy released or absorbed when isolated gaseous

(C) Constant negative charge independent of external atom gains electron

physical conditions (C) Energy required to remove electron from isolated

(D) Charge depending on surrounding magnetic field gaseous atom completely

conditions (D) Energy required to break bonds present in chemical
compounds

118. The existence of cut-in voltage in a diode is mainly 119. Before breakdown, increasing reverse voltage
due to the presence of __________. causes reverse saturation current to __________.

(A) Infinite conductivity (A) Become exactly zero

(B) Neutral atoms without charges (B) Increase rapidly from the beginning

(C) Depletion barrier potential (C) Remain approximately constant

(D) External magnetic field only (D) Change into forward current

120. Which of the following situations can represent non- 121. Which statement best explains origin of spectral
uniform motion of a particle? lines from quantized electronic transitions in atoms?

(A) A horizontal line in a velocity–time graph (A) Transitions occur between levels without any exchange

(B) Equal distances covered in equal intervals of time. of energy with surroundings

(C) A straight-line distance–time graph with constant slope (B) Spectral lines are independent of electronic
configuration of atoms
(D) A curved distance–time graph
(C) Electrons jump between levels emitting or absorbing
photons of specific energies

(D) Electrons move continuously between levels without
defined quantized energy states

122. Which observation confirms a displacement reaction 123. A student observes that diamond and graphite are
when an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution? both made of the same element but have different
properties. What is the element that makes up both
(A) Blue solution turns green and brown coating forms on
substances?
iron

(B) A white precipitate is formed in the solution (A) Hydrogen

(C) Blue solution turns colourless with no change in iron (B) Oxygen

(D) No colour change and no reaction occurs (C) Carbon

(D) Nitrogen

124. If a hydrocarbon undergoes oxidation in the 125. Proton discovery is associated with which
laboratory and a sweet-smelling liquid is produced, which observation in discharge tube experiments?
class of compound is most likely formed?
(A) Cathode rays contain negatively charged particles
(A) A ketone is most likely formed during the reaction identified as protons

(B) An amide is most likely formed during the reaction (B) Canal rays contain neutral particles identified as

(C) An alkene is most likely formed during the reaction neutrons

(D) An ester is most likely formed during the reaction (C) Cathode rays contain photons emitted from metal
electrodes

(D) Canal rays contain positively charged particles identified
as protons

126. Which statement correctly explains the modern
periodic law of elements?

(A) Atomic number has no effect on chemical properties

(B) Properties repeat periodically with increasing atomic
number values

(C) Properties depend only on atomic mass values of
elements

(D) Properties vary randomly without any periodic trend
observed

127. Which of the following best explains how the thermal conductivity of a metal rod can be determined
experimentally?

(A) By enclosing the metallic structure inside a vacuum chamber and monitoring the resulting thermal radiation emissions over
time.

(B) By measuring the steady rate of heat flow through the metal rod when its boundaries are maintained at two distinct
temperatures.

(C) By evaluating the absolute volumetric mass density shifts of the metal rod samples before and after a prolonged thermal
exposure.

(D) By tracking the localized color variations along the metal rod surface when it undergoes direct heating at one focal terminal.

128. Which process is mainly responsible for ozone layer 129. Which of the following statements correctly
depletion in the stratosphere? describes electric circuit diagrams? 1. They help in
analyzing paths of electric current. 2. They provide a
(A) Industrial dust particles in the air
simplified representation of a circuit. 3. The symbols
(B) Urban heat island effect
used in them should be standardized. 4. They eliminate
(C) Acid rain due to sulfur emissions the need for actual electrical components.
(D) Reactions involving chlorofluorocarbons
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

130. A chemistry student is asked to explain why 131. The electric field outside a uniformly charged
ethanoic acid is often stored in tightly sealed bottles. spherical shell behaves as if the _________.
Which property of ethanoic acid best justifies this
(A) Entire charge was concentrated at the center
storage practice?
(B) Field lines became circular around shell
(A) Ethanoic acid is volatile and can evaporate if not tightly
(C) Electric fields were always zero everywhere
sealed
(D) Charges were uniformly spread in surrounding space
(B) Ethanoic acid becomes solid on exposure to air at room
temperature

(C) Ethanoic acid rapidly decomposes into water and carbon
dioxide

(D) Ethanoic acid reacts with plastic to form toxic gases

132. Electric potential at a point is defined as the work 133. Which of the following correctly describes the
done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to gaseous state of matter?
that point ________.
(A) Particles are close but can move around
(A) Without changing kinetic energy (B) Particles have definite shape and volume
(B) With infinite acceleration always (C) Particles are far apart and move freely
(C) Along a circular closed path (D) Particles are very close and fixed in position "
(D) Only in magnetic fields

134. Beta decay helps unstable nuclei achieve stability 135. The spectral lines in a hydrogen series become
mainly by adjusting the __________. closer together because the energy levels at higher n
values __________.
(A) Neutron-proton ratio

(B) Electron orbital speed only (A) Remain equally spaced

(C) Atomic radius only (B) Become farther apart

(D) Nuclear volume to infinity (C) Become closer together

(D) Disappear completely

136. A metal rod is tightly fitted between two rigid walls 137. When a hot metal block is placed in a cooler liquid
at room temperature. If the temperature increases, which inside a calorimeter, which property of the metal
outcome is most likely due to thermal expansion of primarily determines how readily heat is conducted
solids? through the block to its surface?

(A) The rod will remain unaffected by the temperature (A) The thermal conductivity of the metal block
change. (B) The specific heat capacity of the metal block
(B) The rod will freely increase in length without stress. (C) The internal density profile of the metal block
(C) The rod will experience compressive stress and may (D) The absolute volume metrics of the metal block
buckle.

(D) The rod will be under tensile stress and stretch.

138. A sealed container holds equal masses of hydrogen and oxygen at the same temperature. Using the kinetic
interpretation of temperature, what can be concluded about the average kinetic energy and speed of the two types of
gas molecules?

(A) The hydrogen molecules have a higher mean kinetic energy and also maintain a higher average velocity.

(B) The hydrogen molecules have a higher mean kinetic energy but maintain the same average velocity.

(C) The mean kinetic energies of both gases are equal, but the heavier oxygen molecules maintain a higher average velocity.

(D) The mean kinetic energies of both gases are equal, but the lighter hydrogen molecules maintain a higher average velocity.

139. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 140. A mixture contains two non-reacting gases A and B.
carefully and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): If the partial pressures of A and B are 3 bar and 5 bar,
Dry HCl gas does not show acidic behaviour. Reason (R): respectively, what is the total pressure of the mixture?
HCl produces hydrogen ions only in the presence of
(A) 5 bar
water.
(B) 2 bar
(A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(C) 8 bar
explanation of A
(D) 15 bar
(B) A is false, but R is true

(C) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
of A

(D) A is true, but R is false

141. Which scenario best demonstrates the cost-effective 142. Which of the following correctly explains a
nature of green chemistry in industrial operations? precipitation reaction?

(A) Lower raw material usage and increased waste (A) Formation of an insoluble solid when two solutions are
generation during manufacturing mixed

(B) Higher raw material usage and reduced waste (B) Formation of gas during a chemical reaction
generation during manufacturing (C) Formation of a single product from two reactants
(C) Lower raw material usage and reduced waste generation (D) Breaking down of a compound into simpler substances
during manufacturing

(D) Higher raw material usage and increased waste
generation during manufacturing

143. A new physical quantity 'Y' is defined by the 144. Which combination of environmental factors would
equation Y = Power × Time / Area. Which one of the most likely accelerate the corrosion of an unprotected
following expressions correctly represents the iron bridge?
dimensions of 'Y'?
(A) Cold temperatures and low atmospheric pressure
(A) M L⁻² T (B) Continuous sunlight with dry air exposure
(B) M T⁻² (C) Low humidity and absence of pollutants
(C) M L² T⁻² (D) High humidity and presence of acidic pollutants
(D) M T⁻¹

145. Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating which of the 146. Which of the following is most relevant when
following substances? discussing health‑based international standards for
drinking water?
(A) Calcium hydroxide

(B) Gypsum (A) Permissible limits for water storage used in households

(C) Sodium chloride (B) Permissible limits for minerals present in drinking water

(D) Calcium carbonate (C) Permissible limits for contaminants in water

(D) Permissible limits for temperature in drinking water

147. Three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 5 Ω are connected in 148. Which of the following options best describes the
series. What is their equivalent resistance? behaviour of a transistor in the transition regions?

(A) 8 Ω (A) The collector current remains constant.

(B) 9 Ω (B) The transistor shows non-linear behaviour due to

(C) 12 Ω gradual switching.

(D) 10 Ω (C) The transistor does not conduct at all.

(D) The transistor has a perfectly linear response.

149. Two vectors have equal magnitudes. If the 150. What does the Aufbau principle state about electron
magnitude of their resultant is equal to the magnitude of filling in orbitals?
either vector, what is the angle between the two vectors?
(A) Orbitals filled randomly without energy consideration
∘
(B) Energy levels do not affect electron filling order
(A) 60 ∘
(C) Lower energy orbitals filled before higher energy orbitals
(B) 30 ∘
(D) Higher energy orbitals filled before lower energy orbitals
(C) 120

(D) 180∘

ANSWER KEY

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A)

8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A)

15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (B)

22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D)

29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (C)

36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (C) 42. (C)

43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (A)

50. (B) 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (C)

57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (D) 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (B)

64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (A)

71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (D) 77. (C)

78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (B)

85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (B) 91. (C)

92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (B) 95. (D) 96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (A)

99. (D) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (B) 103. (C) 104. (B) 105. (A)

106. (C) 107. (C) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (B) 111. (A) 112. (B)

113. (B) 114. (B) 115. (A) 116. (C) 117. (B) 118. (C) 119. (C)

120. (D) 121. (C) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (D) 125. (D) 126. (B)

127. (B) 128. (D) 129. (B) 130. (A) 131. (A) 132. (A) 133. (C)

134. (A) 135. (C) 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (D) 139. (C) 140. (C)

141. (C) 142. (A) 143. (B) 144. (D) 145. (B) 146. (C) 147. (D)

148. (B) 149. (C) 150. (C)