RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 12 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 12 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 12/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following Articles deals with the citizenship of people of Indian origin
residing outside India?
Ans 1. Article 8

2. Article 11

3. Article 7

4. Article 9

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Q.2
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The Indian handicraft industry suffered significant decline under colonial economic

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policies. What was a major reason for the decline of Indian handicrafts during British
rule?
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Ans 1. Environmental degradation
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2. Rise of Indian industry a
3. Influx of machine-made British goods

4. Lack of domestic demand

Q.3 Which of the following countries does NOT share a land border with India?
Ans 1. Sri Lanka

2. Afghanistan

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3. China

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4. Myanmar

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Q.4 m
What is the primary goal of the Indian government's Bhashini project?
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1. To create a multilingual AI platform for real-time translation among Indian languages

ag 2. To establish a national database of dialects

3. To develop a new programming language for Indian developers

4. To digitise ancient Indian manuscripts

Q.5 What was India's Human Development Index (HDI) value in the 2025 UNDP report?
Ans 1. 0.690

2. 0.676

3. 0.685
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4. 0.700
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Q.6 Which desktop element in Windows displays system notifications, date and time, and
background apps status?
Ans 1. File Explorer

2. Notification Area

3. Start Menu

4. Control Panel

Q.7 Article 323B of the Constitution of India (added by the 42nd Amendment) empowers the
Parliament to establish tribunals for adjudication of matters related to certain subjects.
Which of the following matters is specifically covered under Article 323B?
Ans 1. Matters such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, etc., which can be assigned to tribunals by legislation

2. Appointment of Supreme Court judges

3. Recruitment and service conditions of public servants (civil services)

4. Only industrial disputes between employers and workers

Q.8 Which sector(s) employed the largest share of the working population in India on the
eve of independence?
Ans 1. Secondary sector

2. Primary sector

3. Both tertiary and secondary sectors

4. Tertiary sector

Q.9 Impulse is defined as _________.
Ans 1. rate of change of force

2. change in displacement

3. product of mass and velocity

4. product of force and time

Q.10 The First Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526, replacing the Lodi Dynasty with Mughal
rule in India. It was fought between Ibrahim Lodi and _____.
Ans 1. Shah Jahan

2. Akbar

3. Aurangzeb

4. Babar

Q.11 Which state government introduced the Drone Promotion and Utilisation Policy, 2025?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Jharkhand

3. Punjab

4. Odisha

Q.12 Which leader played the most crucial role in integrating princely states into India post-
independence?
Ans 1. BR Ambedkar

2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.13 Which of the following was the objective of the law enacted in 1856 in India?
Ans 1. Banning of child labour

2. Abolition of caste system

3. Temple entry for Shudras

4. Legalising widow remarriage
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Q.14 What was the theme of the IIAS-DARPG India Conference held in New Delhi in February
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2025?

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1. Digital Transformation in Governance – Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile
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2. Next Generation Administrative Reforms – Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile

3. Innovations in Public Policy
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4. Strengthening Federal Structures

Q.15 Which Act first created the position of a Governor-General of India with civil and military
authority?
Ans 1. Charter Act 1833

2. Regulating Act

3. Government of India Act 1858
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4. Pitt’s India Act
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Q.16
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Which level of government generally legislates on matters such as police, public health
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and agriculture in India?
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Ans
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1. Union Government
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2. State Legislatures

3. Inter-State Council

4. Local Bodies

Q.17 In which northeastern state was the Hornbill Festival held with record participation in
December 2024?
Ans 1. Nagaland

2. Meghalaya
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3. Manipur

4. Assam
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Q.18
Ans 1. 2027 ag
By what year is the India-UK FTA expected to be fully implemented?

2. 2025

3. 2030

4. 2026

Q.19 Which version of the skill development scheme, launched by the government and
implemented from FY 2022 to 2026, aims to provide free training to rural youth in India?
Ans 1. Skill India 3.0
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2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 2.0
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a Q.20 Which Indian relay team set a national record in the 4x100m event at the National Relay
Carnival 2025?
Ans 1. Gurindervir Singh, Animesh Kujur, Manikanta H, Amiya Mallick

2. Gurindervir Singh, Animesh Kujur, Manikanta H, Amlan Borgohain

3. Srabani Nanda, Dutee Chand, Hima Das, Archana Suseendran

4. Amiya Mallick, Mohammed Anas, Noah Nirmal Tom, Rajesh Ramesh

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Q.21 Which of the following is a small hand-held pointing device that controls the two-
dimensional movement of the cursor on a screen?
Ans 1. Mouse

2. Scanner

3. Touchscreen

4. Keyboard

Q.22 Article 6 of the Constitution pertains to the citizenship of persons who migrated to India
from which of the following territories?
Ans 1. Pakistan

2. Sri Lanka

3. Bangladesh

4. Myanmar

Q.23 Which of the following administrative features was common to both Pallava and Pandya
kingdoms?
Ans 1. Rule by elected monarchs

2. Division of the kingdom into Mandalams and Nadus

3. Abolition of land revenue taxes

4. Village assemblies were called Sabha and Ur

Q.24 How many total Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted at the United
Nations Sustainable Development Summit in New York in September 2015?
Ans 1. 15

2. 16

3. 17

4. 18

Q.25 Which of the following is a feature of the Eastern Coastal Plain of India?
Ans 1. Wider and formed by alluvial deposits

2. Presence of numerous estuaries

3. Located between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea

4. Narrow and rocky

Q.26 Which of the following Indian organisations successfully conducted the combat firing
of the Multi-Influence Ground Mine (MIGM) in May 2025?
Ans 1. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and Indian Air Force

2. Defence Research and Development Organisation and Indian Navy

3. Indian Space Research Organisation and Indian Army

4. Bharat Dynamics Limited and Indian Coast Guard

Q.27 Kathputli is a traditional puppet show of which of the following Indian states?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Assam

3. Odisha

4. Kerala

Q.28 As per the Ministry of Agriculture data from 1950–51 to 2014–15, which land use
category in India has shown a declining trend?
Ans 1. Net sown area

2. Forest area

3. Barren and wasteland

4. Area under non-agricultural use
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Q.29 In which year did Andre-Marie Ampère publish his magnum opus ‘Mathematical Theory
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of Electrodynamic Phenomena Deduced Solely from Experiments’?

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Ans 1. 1833
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2. 1827

3. 1818
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4. 1811

Q.30 Harold C Urey was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, in 1934:
Ans 1. for discovery in the chemistry of the transuranium elements

2. for the discovery of heavy hydrogen

3. for the discovery and development of conductive polymers

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4. for the development of the density-functional theory

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Q.31
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Which of the following instruments is primarily used by the RBI for monetary policy

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implementation in the post 1991 reform era?
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Ans 1. Repo rate

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2. Export incentives

3. Tariff rates

4. Direct taxes

Q.32 Which economic system dominated India on the eve of independence (in 1947)?
Ans 1. Import substitution industrialisation

2. Colonial agrarian economy

3. Global free market
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4. Socialist planned economy

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Q.33
Ans 1. Dissolving the Lok Sabha without advice
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Which of the following is a discretionary power of the President of India?

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3. Appointing a Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority

4. Giving assent to a Money Bill

Q.34 The Gulf of Mannar lies between:
Ans 1. mainland India and Andaman Islands

2. India and Sri Lanka

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3. Sri Lanka and Maldives

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4. India and Maldives

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Q.35 What is the purpose of the 'Melt and Pour' rule introduced in the DMI&SP Policy 2025?
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1. Importing partially processed steel and finishing it domestically qualifies as “domestic”

a 2. Steel exports must include documentation of Indian melting processes

3. Steel used in government-funded projects is completely manufactured in India

4. Biometric authentication is required at smelting plants for traceability

Q.36 Which important Sikh festival is on 5 November 2025?
Ans 1. Baisakhi

2. Lohri

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3. Guru Nanak Jayanti

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4. Holi

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Q.37 Which film won the Best Picture award at the 25th IIFA Awards in 2025?
Ans 1. Article 370

2. Laapataa Ladies

3. Stree 2

4. Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3

Q.38 Which Indian space tech startup along with Google launched India's first private
satellite constellation?
Ans 1. Ship Rocket

2. Udaan

3. Livspace

4. Pixxel

Q.39 The government initiative known as KIRTI, an acronym for Khelo India Rising Talent
Identification, was inaugurated in ______.
Ans 1. 2023

2. 2024

3. 2025

4. 2022

Q.40 Which Indian city was announced by the global governing body WPA as the host of the
2025 Para Athletics World Championships?
Ans 1. New Delhi

2. Chennai

3. Bengaluru

4. Mumbai

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 A man driving a car at a speed of 99 km/hr crosses a bridge in 1.2 minutes. Find the
length (in metres) of the bridge.
Ans 1. 1970

2. 1980

3. 1960

4. 1950

Q.2 Sapna invested ₹20,900 on simple interest, partly at 9% per annum and partly at 13%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 3 years, then find
the sum invested at 9% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 12,349

2. 12,350

3. 12,352

4. 12,348

Q.3 Rahul, Monika, and Yuvraj invest ₹1,310, ₹1,430, and ₹1,040, respectively, to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,890, then what is the share of Yuvraj in
the profit?
Ans 1. ₹519

2. ₹523

3. ₹520

4. ₹522

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Q.4 The perimeter of a square is 336 m. Its area (in m2) is:
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Ans 1. 7052

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2. 7036

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4. 7056

Q.5 3 years ago, the age of a father was 21 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 18

2. 23

3. 15

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4. 21

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Q.6
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A trader claims to sell vegetables at a profit of 57%, but also dishonestly uses a weight

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which is 13% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit

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earned by the trader. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
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1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Which of the following numbers divides 86,16,16,843?
Ans 1. 43

2. 47
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3. 50

4. 36
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Q.8
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If the 6-digit number N18M05 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
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Ans 1. M = N

2. M - N = 2

3. M - N = 1

4. M + N = -2

Q.9 Which of the following ratios is the greatest?
Ans 1. 37 : 76
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2. 43 : 65
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a Q.10
Ans
Which of the following statements is correct?
1. A square is a special case of neither a rectangle nor a rhombus.

2. A square is a special case of a rhombus only.

3. A square is a special case of both a rectangle and a rhombus.

4. A square is a special case of a rectangle only.

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Q.11 I bought two dresses for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 9% and the second at a
gain of 18%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of
the first dress.
Ans 1. 824

2. 820

3. 784

4. 800

Q.12

Ans 1. ₹75,143

2. ₹75,148

3. ₹75,131

4. ₹75,150

Q.13

Ans 1. 33.25

2. 27.25

3. 30.25

4. 31.25

Q.14 Find the value of: [459 ÷ {11 + 2 × ( 5 − 9 )}].
Ans 1. 153

2. 155

3. 152

4. 154

Q.15

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.17 What is the area of a triangle with a base of 12 cm and a height of 8 cm?
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Ans 1.

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4.

Q.18 After giving two successive discounts, each of x% on the marked price of an article, the
total discount is ₹18,000. If the marked price of the article is ₹50,000, find the value of x.
Ans 1. 20

2. 30

3. 10

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4. 40

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Q.19
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The average of first 160 even numbers is

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Ans 1. 161.5

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2. 162
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3. 161

4. 160.5
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Q.20 Pipe A can fill a tank in 18 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 21 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 16 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

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2.

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3.
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4.

Q.21 Which of the following numbers divides 81,42,42,541?
Ans 1. 7

2. 12

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3. 8

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4. 15

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Q.22 In covering a distance of 30 km, Anmol takes 7 hours more than Nikhil. If Anmol doubles
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Ans 1. 7 km/hr

2. 1 km/hr

3. 6 km/hr

4. 3 km/hr

Q.23 The current population of a town is 12,500. It increases by 52% and 30% in two
successive years but decreases by 15% in the third year. What is the population of the
town at the end of the third year?
Ans 1. 20,995
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2. 20,991
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3. 20,990
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4. 20,998
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Q.24 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 702. The greater of the two numbers
is:
Ans 1. 26

2. 27

3. 38

4. 24

Q.25 The LCM of the numbers 12.8 and 0.004 is:
Ans 1. 128

2. 0.128

3. 1.28

4. 12.8

Q.26 A retailer offers the following discount scheme to his customers for the purchase of
articles.

'Buy 30 and get 10 free'

Find the discount percentage offered.
Ans 1. 26%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 28%

Q.27 Find the value of x satisfying: 5(2x2 − 7) − 2(5x2 + 8x − 2) = 12
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.28 ₹12,300 were divided among A, B and C such that 3 times the share of A = 6 times the
share of B = 2 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹4,100

2. ₹3,915

3. ₹4,063

4. ₹3,924

Q.29 Find the value of 50−6 ÷ 5018 × 50−5.
Ans 1. 50−19

2. 50−29

3. 50−36

4. 50−32

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Q.30 Find the median of 26, 13, 14, 15, 8, 36, 23, 35 and 50.
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Ans 1. 35

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4. 50

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Town H is to the east of town R and to the north of town D. Town E is southeast of town
H. In which direction is town D with respect to town R?
Ans 1. Southeast

2. Southwest
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3. North
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4. West

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Q.2 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.

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Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) > 5 * \ + 9 & 6 # 6 4 $ & / @ # $ & 8 3 < (Right)

How many such symbols are there that are immediately preceded by a number and also
immediately followed by another symbol?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

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A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Q
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sits to the immediate right of D. Only three people sit between Q and S, when counted

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from the left of Q. Only three people sit between D and C. A sits to the immediate right
of R. How many people sit between D and R, when counted from the right of R?
Ans 1. One
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2. Four

3. Three

4. Two

Q.4 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

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JUNK - UJNK - KUJN

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LACK - ALCK - KALC

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Ans 1. BUNS - UBNS - SUNB

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2. MOST - OMST - OSTM

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Q.5 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

51 + 8 − 8 ÷ 80 × 4 = ?
Ans 1. 26

2. 20

3. 14

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4. 7

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Q.6 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. OJR

2. JEM

3. GBI

4. LGO

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

90 90 91 95 104 ?
Ans 1. 122

2. 120

3. 121

4. 119

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘4259’ and ‘SARI’ is coded as ‘9725’.
What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 9

3. 2

4. 7

Q.9 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only three boxes are kept below F. Only two boxes are kept between F and
A. Only D is kept immediately above B. C is kept at some place below G and at some
place above E. How many boxes are kept between B and F?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

Q.10 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LNH

2. GIC

3. EGB

4. IKE

Q.11 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

18 − 2 + 48 × 4 ÷ 21 = ?
Ans 1. 35

2. 45

3. 30

4. 40

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Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

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statements.
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se Statements: All cars are buses. Some cars are trucks.
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Conclusions (I): Some trucks are cars.
Conclusions (II): Some buses are cars.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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Q.13 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a

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certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

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COME - OCME - EOCM
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Ans
NEAT - ENAT - TENA

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1. SANK - ASNK - KASN
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2. GONE - OGNE - EONG

3. DOST - DSOT - TSOD

4. HEAT - EHAT - EATH

Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
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3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(38, 12, 456)
(44, 11, 484)
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Ans 1. (67, 5, 365)

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2. (38, 8, 304)

3. (61, 4, 254) ag
4. (43, 6, 278)

Q.15 Harry starts from Point A and drives 1 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn
and drives 7 km, then turns right and drives 8 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
15 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 7 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

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Ans 1. 8 km to the west

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2. 10 km to the west
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a Q.16 Seven boxes U, V, W, X, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
Only two boxes are kept between V and X. Only W is kept above F. No box is kept below
X. E is kept at some place below G but at some place above U. Which box is kept third
above U?
Ans 1. X

2. G

3. E

4. W
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Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All trams are cows.
No cow is a bun.

Conclusions:
(I): No tram is a bun.
(II): Some buns are cows.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.18 SWER is related to GKSF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, WAIV is related to KOWJ. To which of the given options is MQYL related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. AEMZ

2. AEMU

3. AZEM

4. AZME

Q.19 Each of the digits in the number 19758436 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. Three

4. One

Q.20 Each of the digits in the number 8934612 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 10

3. 7

4. 8

Q.21 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
99, 100, 102, 106, 114, ?
Ans 1. 130

2. 135

3. 125

4. 103

Q.22 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

3 13 28 48 ? 103
Ans 1. 71

2. 73

3. 68

4. 70

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.co
Q.23 Seven people, D, E, F, G, H, I and X, are sitting in a row facing North. Only two people sit
m
to the left of G. Only three people sit between G and H. Only one person sits between H

. co and F. E sits to the immediate left of I. D is not an immediate neighbour of H. How many
people sit to the right of X?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. One

2. Three ag l
3. Four

4. Two

Q.24 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?

VRM 9 WTJ 6 XVG 3 YXD 0 ?
Ans 1. ZZA -3
m
2. ZYZ -3
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3. ZZA -6
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. ZZZ -6

l a
Q.25
ag
Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 $ % 4 & 1 9 @ 5 & 3 Ω 8 * 2 £ # 6 (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be sixth from
the right?
Ans 1. 1

2. 5

3. 9
m
4. 4

m .co
s e
la
Q.26 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the

g
English alphabetical order?

VEC WFD XGE YHF ? a
Ans 1. ZVG

2. ZWR

3. ZIG

4. ZML

Q.27 Seven boxes V, W, X, Y, Z, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept between Q and V. Only Y is kept above W. No box
m
.co
is kept below V. X is kept at some place below Z but at some place above R. Which box
m
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is kept third above R?

e m
s
Ans 1. Z

e m l a
l as 2. Q

ag
ag 3. X

4. W

Q.28 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. EAW

2. OKG
m .
3. DZB
.co s e m
4. MIE
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.29 A is the son of S. D is the daughter of F. F is the father of G. G is the sister of A. A is
married to Q. W is the son of A. How is S related to D?
Ans 1. Mother's mother

2. Father's sister

3. Mother

4. Sister

Q.30 In a certain code language, ‘FOUR’ is coded as ‘5427’ and ‘RISE’ is coded as ‘6143’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 3

3. 4

4. 6

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m
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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 12/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which country hosted the 6th BIMSTEC Summit in March 2025?
Ans 1. Bangladesh

2. India

3. Thailand

4. Sri Lanka

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Q.2 Which of the following is a water pollutant?

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Ans 1. Carbon dioxide

2. Lead
s e
3. Oxygen
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4. Nitrogen gas a
Q.3 Who was called the 'Grand Old Man of India' and the first Indian to demand Swaraj?
Ans 1. Surendranath Banerjee

2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

4. Dadabhai Naoroji
m
m .co
.co
Q.4 The Queen's Stepwell in Gujarat, known officially as Rani-ki-Vav, is situated along the
course of which river?
e m
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Ans
m 1. Sabarmati
l as
l as 2. Tapi
ag
ag 3. Saraswati

4. Narmada

Q.5 After its 1971 electoral victory, Indira Gandhi’s government amended the Constitution to
remove legal obstacles to abolishing which of the following privileges?
Ans 1. Zamindari system

2. Monopoly trade licenses

3. Privy purses of former princely rulers
m .
.co m
4. Separate electorates for minorities

s e
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 Which two countries signed a historic peace treaty on 13 March 2025, ending nearly
four decades of conflict over the Nagorno-Karabakh region?
Ans 1. Azerbaijan and Georgia

2. Armenia and Turkey

3. Georgia and Russia

4. Armenia and Azerbaijan

Q.7 Which of the following statements about the Gram Sabha is correct?
Ans 1. It consists only of elected members of the Gram Panchayat.

2. It has authority to override the decisions of the Panchayat.

3. It meets only once every five years.

4. It comprises all adult voters in the Panchayat area; its role is defined by state law.

Q.8 The primary sector saw uneven regional development during 1947-91. Which region
benefitted the most from the Green Revolution?
Ans 1. Western India

2. Eastern India

3. Northern India

4. Southern India

Q.9 Which of the following types of memory is volatile, meaning its contents are lost when
the computer is turned off?
Ans 1. ROM

2. Hard Disk

3. Pen Drive

4. RAM

Q.10 What was the mascot name of Khelo India Youth Games 2025 held in Bihar in May 2025?
Ans 1. Appu

2. Nini

3. Dou Dou

4. Gajsimha

Q.11 The first cross-country pipeline in Asia connected the Naharkatiya oilfield in Assam to
which refinery?
Ans 1. Mathura Refinery

2. Haldia Refinery

3. Barauni Refinery

4. Panipat Refinery

Q.12 What was the name of stadium where India beat Bangladesh in South Asian Football
Federation (SAFF) Under-19 Championship 2025?
Ans 1. JRD Tata Sports Complex, Jamshedpur

2. Yupia Outdoor Stadium, Arunachal Pradesh

3. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Delhi

4. Salt Lake Stadium, Kolkata

Q.13 If the temperature of air increases, what happens to the speed of sound and the
minimum distance to hear an echo?
Ans 1. Speed decreases, minimum distance increases

2. Speed increases, minimum distance decreases

3. Speed increases, minimum distance increases

4. Speed decreases, minimum distance decrea
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Q.14 The 25th Amendment curtailed the right to property by amending which Article of Indian
m
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Constitution?

. Ans 1. Article 33
e m
m as
se 2. Article 12

3. Article 13 ag l
4. Article 31

Q.15 Which of the following is a Buddhist text containing stories related to the previous
births of the Buddha?
Ans 1. Panchatantra

2. Jatakas

3. Arthashastra
m
4. Manusmriti
m .co
m .co s em
Q.16 Which of the following best defines the strategy of Passive Resistance as advocated by
Extremists?
s e l a
Ans
l a
1. Boycott, Swadeshi and non-cooperation with rulers
ag
ag
2. Assassination of British officers

3. Military training of Indian youth abroad

4. Armed confrontation with colonial forces

Q.17 Which of the following natural regions is known for evergreen dense forests and high
biodiversity?
Ans 1. Equatorial region

m
2. Tundra region

3. Steppe region

m .co
4. Mediterranean region
s e
g la
a
Q.18 A mixed economy involves both private and public ownership. What was a distinctive
feature of India's mixed economy model?
Ans 1. Public sector dominance in core industries

2. Absence of licensing

3. Full privatisation

4. Focus on consumerism

Q.19 What is the significance of DRDO's successful test of the Long-Range Anti-Ship Missile
(LRAShM) in 2025?
m
m .co
Ans 1. It replaced the need for aircraft carriers

m.co 2. It enhances India's strategic deterrence capabilities

s e m
s e 3. It was the first missile to use solar propulsion

g l a
g l a 4. It marked India's first hypersonic missile test
a
a Q.20 What is baking soda chemically known as?
Ans 1. Sodium carbonate

2. Sodium bicarbonate

3. Calcium carbonate

4. Magnesium hydroxide

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.21 The vast network of railways that helped people meet their family and relatives was
pioneered during the latter half of which of the following centuries in India?
Ans 1. 19th

2. 17th

3. 20th

4. 18th

Q.22 The Harappans were first in Eurasia to grow ___.
Ans 1. Indigo

2. Mustard Seeds

3. Potato

4. Cotton

Q.23 Which of the following options best describes the state of Indian industries under
British rule?
Ans 1. Promotion of indigenous entrepreneurship

2. Rapid growth of modern manufacturing

3. Widespread industrialisation across rural India

4. Systematic decline of traditional industries

Q.24 In the 2024 Global Innovation Index, which country was ranked as the most innovative?
Ans 1. United States

2. Switzerland

3. Singapore

4. Sweden

Q.25 As per the ‘India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023), which Indian state has the
largest forest cover (area-wise) in the country?
Ans 1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.26 Which of the following types of cases is NOT generally taken up by Lok Adalats in
India?
Ans 1. Murder trials

2. Motor accident claims

3. Divorce settlements

4. Utility bill disputes

Q.27 What is the dimensional formula for mechanical energy that refers to the total energy of
an object due to its position and motion?
Ans 1. [ML²T⁻3]
2. [M¹L²]

3. [M2L²T⁻1]
4. [M¹L²T⁻²]

Q.28 According to a Times of India report from April 2025, there have been plans to locally
manufacture which tetravalent dengue vaccine under the ‘Make‑in‑India’ initiative?
Ans 1. CYD‑TDCV

2. Dengvaxia

3. TV003 / TV005

4. QDENGA (TAK‑003)
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Q.29 On 15 May 2025, the Supreme Court of India issued an immediate direction to the
m
Centre to set up dedicated courts to deal with which cases?

. co
Ans 1. Serious offenses like murder
s e m
m a
se l
2. Constitutional interpretations

3. Dowry harassment
ag
4. Child sexual abuse

Q.30 What happens when you create a folder with the same name in the same location?
Ans 1. It gives an error.

2. It replaces the old folder.

3. It opens the original folder.

m
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4. The system automatically renames it.

m
Q.31
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As per Deloitte, how much will AI in healthcare boost India’s GDP by 2025?

m s em
Ans
e
1. USD 35–40 billion

s l a
l a
2. USD 25–30 billion
ag
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3. USD 12–18 billion

4. USD 45–50 billion

Q.32 Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Dweep is a part of which island?
Ans 1. Majuli Island

2. Rameswaram Island

3. Lakshadweep Islands

4. Andaman Islands
m
Q.33
m .co
Crafted using the lost-wax technique in Mohenjo-daro, a significant city of the Indus

s e
Valley Civilisation, the prehistoric Dancing Girl figurine is primarily made of which of
the following materials?

g la
Ans 1. Stone

2. Copper
a
3. Terracotta

4. Bronze

Q.34 Which country won both the Men’s and Women’s titles at the Kabaddi World Cup 2025,
held at Wolverhampton in England?
Ans 1. Iran

m
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2. Pakistan
m
.co m
3. Bangladesh

m s e
s e
4. India

g l a
g l a Q.35 Which is the first Indian state/UT to launch the nPROUD (New Programme for Removal a
a Ans
of Unused Drugs) project?
1. Delhi

2. Kerala

3. Maharashtra

4. Telangana

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.36 Which of the following initiatives was launched by the National Commission for Women
(NCW) on 22 May 2025 to promote AI literacy and digital safety among women,
especially in rural and semi-urban areas?
Ans 1. Yashoda AI: Your AI SAKHI

2. Tech Sakhi: Empowering Women

3. Digital Shakti: Women in Tech

4. Cyber Sakhi: AI Awareness Program

Q.37 Harsabardhan Sahu who built a new record in the field of 49 kg (Clean and Jerk)
Weightlifting category, at Khelo India Youth Games 2025 is from which state?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Bihar

3. Odisha

4. Mizoram

Q.38 The typical landform seen in the Thar Desert is:
Ans 1. sand dunes

2. glacial moraines

3. river deltas

4. alluvial plains

Q.39 Which of the following is the main objective of the Right to Information Act?
Ans 1. To ensure secrecy in public administration

2. To provide private data to media houses

3. To promote transparency and accountability

4. To prevent public access to government records

Q.40 Tariff reforms were central to the liberalisation of trade. What happened to import tariffs
after 1991?

Ans 1. It increased

2. It gradually reduced

3. It remained unchanged

4. It was replaced with import bans

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The population of a district is 328000, out of which 164000 are males. 24% of the
population is literate. If 34% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
literate?
Ans 1. 13%

2. 11%

3. 17%

4. 14%

Q.2 If the 6-digit number N75M52 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M = N

2. M - N = 1

3. M + N = -1

4. M - N = 5

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Q.3 A number, when decreased by 6%, gives 3760. The number is:
m
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Ans 1. 2000

. e m
m 2. 4000
as
se 3. 12000
ag l
4. 8000

Q.4 If the third proportional of 9 and 60 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 398

2. 400

3. 402

4. 401
m
m .co
.co
Q.5 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 552. The greater of the two numbers
is:
em
Ans 1. 24
e m l as
2. 18
l as ag
3. 15

4. 27
ag
Q.6 Which of the following numbers divides 6,30,605?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 7

4. 14
m
Q.7 What is the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with side 13 cm?
m .co
s e
la
Ans 1. 52 cm

2. 39 cm
ag
3. 40 cm

4. 26 cm

Q.8 The LCM of 33 × 82 × 13, 32 × 132 × 16 and 83 × 132 × 162 is:
Ans 1. 33 × 83 × 132 × 162

2. 33 × 82 × 132 × 16

3. 32 × 83 × 13 × 162
m
m
4. 32 × 82 × 132 × 163
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m.co s e m
s
Q.9
e
The number 253118139 is divisible by which of the following?

g l a
a
Ans 1. 3

g l a
a
2. 12

3. 5

4. 8

Q.10 The average of first 169 even numbers is
Ans 1. 170

2. 171

3. 169.5
m .
4. 170.5
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.11 A shopkeeper offers the following three schemes. Which scheme has the maximum
discount percent?

I. Two successive discounts of 15% and 20%.
II. Buy 4 get 2 free.
III. Buy 6 get 4 free
Ans 1. III only

2. I only

3. Both I and II

4. II only

Q.12 Daksh travels 200 km at 50 km/hr, the next 252 km at 42 km/hr and the next 204 km at 51
km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 53.31

2. 38.25

3. 46.86

4. 53.45

Q.13 Veer bought some sharpeners at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹23 each. His
profit percentage is ______% (rounded off to two decimal places).
Ans 1. 51.33

2. 53.33

3. 57.33

4. 55.33

Q.14

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Simplify x(9x − 8) + 7(x2 − 3) + 18.
Ans 1. 16x2 − 8x + 3

2. −16x2 − 8x + 3

3. −16x2 − 8x − 3

4. 16x2 − 8x − 3

Q.16 M and N start a business. M invests ₹68,000 more than N for 4 months and N invests for
7 months. M's share is ₹856 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹6,848. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹1,22,400

2. ₹1,22,000

3. ₹1,23,000

4. ₹1,23,400

Q.17 A bus travelling at 66 km/hr completes a journey in 15 hours. What should be its speed
to cover the same distance in 5 hours?
Ans 1. 202 km/hr

2. 203 km/hr

3. 198 km/hr

4. 193 km/hr
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m
.co
Q.18 The perimeter of a square is 76 m. Its area (in m2) is:
m
co m
Ans 1. 372

m . s e
a
2. 360

se 3. 361
ag l
4. 336

Q.19 Evaluate: −12 − {−8 × (6 − 12) + 30 ÷ (−6)}
Ans 1. −57

2. −52

3. −55

4. −58
m
m .co
.co m
Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) if a sum of ₹400 is borrowed for 5.5 years at 12% per
annum rate of interest.

m s e
Ans 1. 364
s e l a
2. 264
l a ag
3. 314
ag
4. 244

Q.21 A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 11 years. In how
many years will it amount to 27 times of itself?
Ans 1. 37 years

2. 26 years

3. 33 years
m
.co
4. 31 years

e m
Q.22
s
Rekha, Sanjay, and Poonam invest ₹1,320, ₹1,170, and ₹1,660, respectively, to start a

la
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,010, then what is the share of Poonam

Ans
in the profit?
1. ₹407 ag
2. ₹405

3. ₹402

4. ₹404

Q.23 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 60% above its cost price and offers a 15%
discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹117, then what is the list price (in ₹) of
the fan?
m
m .co
Ans 1. 283

m.co 2. 470

s e m
s e 3. 398

g l a
g l a 4. 520
a
a Q.24
Ans 1. 99°

2. 90°

3. 92°

4. 77°

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.25 The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg,
56 kg, 74 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 50.8

2. 49.8

3. 52.8

4. 51.8

Q.26 Five times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 29 years. After 8 years,
five times Q’s age will be 17 years less than seven times P’s age at that time. What is the
present age (in years) of Q?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 6

4. 11

Q.27 Find the value of 47 −8 ÷ 47 3 × 47 −19.
Ans 1. 47 −30

2. 47 −24

3. 47 −27

4. 47 −37

Q.28 The marked price of an article is ₹800. It is sold at two successive discounts of 24% and
15%, respectively. Find the selling price of the article.
Ans 1. ₹595.48

2. ₹686.42

3. ₹516.80

4. ₹625.78

Q.29 Simplify: (cos4 A −sin4A + 1) cosec2 A
Ans 1. tan2A

2. 2 cot2A

3. cot2A

4. 2 tan2A

Q.30 Pipe A can fill a tank in 18 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 30 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 18 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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m
.co
Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘FATE’ is coded as ‘3257’ and ‘AIDS’ is coded as ‘6142’. What
m
is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?

. co
Ans 1. 6
s e m
m a
se l
2. 5

3. 4
ag
4. 2

Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

YQT VNQ SKN PHK ?
Ans 1. MEH

2. MEG
m
3. MFG
m .co
4. MFH

m.co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
l
Ans 1. 576
ag
801 800 792 765 701 ?

2. 676

3. 656

4. 556

Q.4 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
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17 ÷ 5 − 25 + 42 × 7 = ?
Ans 1. 104
e m
2. 106
las
3. 105
ag
4. 103

Q.5 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. QU - VZ

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2. OS - TX

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3. JL - MK

e m
e m
4. EI - JN

l as
l as Q.6 SACU is related to ZHJB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
ag
ag same way, UCEW is related to BJLD. To which of the following is PXZR related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. WEGY

2. GWER

3. GTRE

4. GERT

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.7 Manoj starts from point E and drives 4 km towards west. He then takes a left turn and
drives 5 km. He takes a right turn and drives 2 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 2
km. He takes another left turn and drives 3 km. He again takes a left turn and drives 2
km. He takes a final right turn and drives 3 km to reach a point D. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point E again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless otherwise specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km east

2. 3 km east

3. 5 km north

4. 3 km north

Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All globes are ball.
All globes are map.

Conclusions:
(I): Some balls are map.
(II): All map are globe.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.9 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MG - RA

2. YE - DY

3. IL - NF

4. FV - KO

Q.10 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

SONG - OSNG - GNOS
DAWN - ADWN - NWAD
Ans 1. PLOG - LPOG - GOLP

2. ROLE - ORLE - OLER

3. EXIL - EIXL - LIXE

4. OPEN - POEN - NPEO

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

101 110 121 134 149 ?
Ans 1. 163

2. 159

3. 156

4. 166

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.co
Q.12 If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘×’ means ‘division’ and ‘÷’ means
m
‘addition’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

. co equation?

s e m
m a
se l
9 − 5 + 82 × 2 ÷ 17 = ?
Ans 1. 31
ag
2. 27

3. 21

4. 24

Q.13 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
m
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position in the letter-cluster.)

m
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Ans 1. JN-IK

em
2. DH-CF

e m l as
3. GK-FI

l as ag
ag
4. QU-PS

Q.14 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) < 7 5 9 @ ? 2 @ + $ 4 ? ? & 2 $ 5 ? 1 % * (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. Two

2. One
m
3. Four

m .co
4. Three
s e
g la
Q.15
a
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All sparrows are owls.
No sparrow is a parrot.

Conclusions:
(I): No owl is a parrot.

m
.co
(II): No parrot is a sparrow.

m
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Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

e m
e m
2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

l as
l as 3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

ag
ag 4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

QNK WTQ CZW IFC ?
Ans 1. OIL

2. LOI

3. OLI

m .
.co
4. LIO

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.17 Each of the digits in the number 8731245 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. None

Q.18 Varun ranked 34th from the top and 11th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 42

2. 43

3. 45

4. 44

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘am with you’ is coded as ‘mp rk tp’ and ‘go with him’ is
coded as ‘rk lo wt’. How is ‘with’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. rk

2. lo

3. mp

4. tp

Q.20 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

HJS : JNV
ACJ : CGM
Ans 1. LHS : NLW

2. ORC : QVF

3. OPC : QSG

4. WSK : YWM

Q.21 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

40 , 48 , 58 , 66 , 76 , ?
Ans 1. 85

2. 89

3. 84

4. 86

Q.22 Seven people, I, J, K, L, M, N and O, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people
sit between M and J. O sits to the immediate left of J. No one sits to the right of I. Only
two people sit between I and O. N sits to the immediate right of L. How many people sit
between K and N?
Ans 1. Four

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

Q.23 Piyush ranked 35th from the top and 18th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 53

2. 52

3. 54

4. 51

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.co
Q.24 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
m
the following sets.

. co (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
s e m
m a
se l
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag
(112, 104, 96)
(136, 128, 120)
Ans 1. (129, 121, 116)

2. (91, 83, 77)

3. (140, 134, 130)

4. (154, 146, 138)

m
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Q.25 Each of the digits in the number 81674293 is arranged in ascending order from left to

m
right. Which of the following digits will be fourth from the left?
Ans 1. 3

m .co s em
2. 6
s e l a
3. 4
l a ag
4. 7
ag
Q.26 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
All numbers are single-digit numbers. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 # % 2 ^ @ 3 & 1 $ 7 Ω 5 % # 6 * 1 9 (Right)

How many symbols in the series are immediately preceded by a symbol and
immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. One
m
.co
2. None

3. Two
e m
4. Three
las
Q.27 ag
Mr. Into ranked 96th from the top and 31st from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 126

2. 128

3. 123

4. 125

m
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Q.28 A is the father of H. H is the father of G. G is the son of E. F is the father of E. How is A

m
related to F?

.co m
Ans 1. Daughter's husband's father

m s e
s e 2. Daughter's husband's brother

g l a
g l a 3. Husband's father
a
a 4. Daughter's husband

Q.29 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
Only two people sit between A and G when counted from the right of A. Only two people
sit between G and C. Only three people sit between A and F. E sits to the immediate left
of D.
How many people sit between C and E when counted from the right of C?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

m .
.co
3. Four

e m
4. Two

em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.30 Town Q is to the east of Town P. Town R is to the south of Town Q. Town S is to the east
of Town R. Town T is to the south of Town S. Town U is to the east of Town T. What is
the position of Town U with respect to Town Q?
Ans 1. North-east

2. North-west

3. North

4. South-east

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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 12/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As of July 2025, how many Indian States have a bicameral legislature (i.e. both, a
Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council)?
Ans 1. Eight

2. Six

3. Seven

4. Five

m
Q.2
.co
In Indian State governments, to whom is the State Council of Ministers collectively
responsible?
m
Ans 1. The Governor of the State
s e
2. Council of States
g la
3. State Legislative Assembly a
4. Chief Justice of the concerned State

Q.3 Which initiative is intended to encourage domestic manufacturing and attract foreign
investment?
Ans 1. Digital India

2. Make in India

m
.co
3. Startup India

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.co
4. Skill India

e m
e
Q.4 m
The Red Fort in Delhi was constructed during the reign of which of the following Mughal
l as
l as emperors?
ag
ag Ans 1. Babur

2. Shah Jahan

3. Aurangzeb

4. Akbar

Q.5 In March 2025, ________ became the 28th legislature to join the National e-Vidhan
Application platform.
Ans 1. Odisha

m .
.co
2. Delhi

e m
3. Sikkim

em l as
4. Jharkhand
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 33 of 48

Q.6 Which revolutionary along with Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs in the Central Assembly
in 1929?
Ans 1. Bhagat Singh

2. Chandrashekhar Azad

3. Ashfaqulla Khan

4. Rajguru

Q.7 Who made history as the first woman, the youngest person, and the first African to be
elected President of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 2025?
Ans 1. Kirsty Coventry

2. Tegla Loroupe

3. Fatma Samoura

4. Nawal El Moutawakel

Q.8 Which Gupta emperor was known as the 'Napoleon of India' due to his military
conquests and strategic warfare?
Ans 1. Chandragupta I

2. Samudragupta

3. Kumaragupta

4. Skandagupta

Q.9 Which country led the 2024 Global Gender Gap Report by closing over 90% of its
gender gap?
Ans 1. Finland

2. Norway

3. Iceland

4. Sweden

Q.10 Although a colloid appears homogeneous, it is actually a __________.
Ans 1. suspension

2. true solution

3. homogeneous mixture

4. heterogeneous mixture

Q.11 What happens when you delete a file or folder using the Delete key?
Ans 1. The file is copied to another folder.

2. The file is renamed automatically.

3. The file is sent to the Recycle Bin.

4. The file is permanently deleted without warning.

Q.12 Which of the following pairs of neighbouring countries are landlocked and share only
land borders with India?
Ans 1. Bangladesh and Myanmar

2. Nepal and Bhutan

3. Pakistan and China

4. Sri Lanka and Maldives

Q.13 Which of the following represents the longitudinal extent of India?
Ans 1. 68°7'E and 97°25'E

2. 56°7'E and 87°25'E

3. 58°7'E and 94°25'E

4. 54°7'E and 77°25'E

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Q.14 Who among the following was appointed as the new Chairman of the Union Public
m
Service Commission (UPSC) in May 2025?

. co
Ans 1. Shri Rajesh Verma
s e m
m a
se l
2. Dr. Anil Kumar

3. Dr. Ajay Kumar
ag
4. Ms. Priya Sharma

Q.15 Who among the following wrote the novel Godaan, which is considered a classic of
modern Hindi literature?
Ans 1. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

2. Munshi Premchand

3. RK Narayan
m
4. Rabindranath Tagore
m .co
Q.16
m .co
Which Ministry co-organised the 9th edition of the Global Technology Summit (GTS)
s em
s e
with Carnegie India in April 2025 in New Delhi?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Ministry of External Affairs
ag
ag
2. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

3. Ministry of Communications

4. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Q.17 Which tool in Windows helps one manage and organize files and folders?
Ans 1. Paint

2. Recycle Bin

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3. File Explorer

m
4. Task Manager

s e
Q.18
la
Which of the following indigenously developed underwater naval mines was
g
a
successfully tested by DRDO and the Indian Navy in May 2025?
Ans 1. Multi-Influence Ground Mine

2. Barak Mine

3. Sea Dragon

4. Varunastra

Q.19 In April 2025, which startup, selected by the Department of Science and Technology
(DST) under the National Quantum Mission (NQM), has launched the world’s first
platform — QShield — that enables seamless cryptography management?
m
m .co
Ans 1. AMu Labs

m.co 2. SST Labs

s e m
s e 3. CCS Labs

g l a
g l a 4. QNu Labs
a
a Q.20 Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory reflects the Law of Conservation of Mass?
Ans 1. Atoms cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

2. Atoms of different elements have different masses and properties.

3. Atoms combine in simple whole-number ratios to form compounds.

4. All matter is made up of indivisible particles called atoms.

Q.21 What was the main aim of TRYSEM (Training for Rural Youth for Self-Employment)?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Offering free education in rural areas

s e
em a
2. Upgrading skills of rural youth to tackle unemployment

s l
la ag
3. Providing loans to farmers

ag
4. Building infrastructure in villages
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Q.22 Which of these was NOT a cause of popular resentment against British rule before
1857?
Ans 1. Low wages

2. High taxes

3. Religious tolerance

4. Racial discrimination

Q.23 Padma Vibhushan awardee of 2025, Dr. Lakshminarayana Subramaniam is a famous
musician of which instrument?
Ans 1. Shehnai

2. Violin

3. Sitar

4. Flute

Q.24 The title Devaputra, used by the Kushana rulers, implies which of the following?
Ans 1. Hereditary monarchy

2. Divine origin or claim to divinity

3. Heir to Mauryan traditions

4. Protector of Dharma

Q.25 Who is the director of the film 'Laapataa Ladies', which won Best Picture at the 2025
IIFA Awards?
Ans 1. Kiran Rao

2. Yash Chopra

3. Farhan Akhtar

4. Karan Johar

Q.26 Which of the following parts of the plant is primarily responsible for sexual
reproduction in angiosperms?
Ans 1. Stem

2. Leaf

3. Flower

4. Root

Q.27 The Hazira–Vijaipur–Jagdishpur (HVJ) pipeline is mainly used to transport:
Ans 1. natural gas

2. petrol

3. crude oil

4. kerosene

Q.28 Which Indian state shares its border with China, Nepal and Bhutan?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Uttarakhand

3. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Sikkim

Q.29 What was the main aim of IRDP (Integrated Rural Development Programme) ?
Ans 1. To provide free food to rural families

2. To promote urban employment

3. To assist poor rural families in acquiring assets or skills for self-employment

4. To build schools in villages

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Q.30 Which of these is a part of solid waste management infrastructure?
m
co
Ans 1. Drainage tanks

. e m
m 2. Garbage collection and disposal
as
se 3. Sewage pipelines
ag l
4. Electricity transmission lines

Q.31 The Wahabi Movement was started by Syed Ahmad, of _____.
Ans 1. Hyderabad

2. Amritsar

3. Jhansi

4. Rae Bareli
m
m .co
.co
Q.32 Which Amendment extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the legislatures
for another 10 years till 2030?
em
Ans
e
1. 105th Amendment m l as
l as
2. 101st Amendment
ag
ag
3. 104th Amendment

4. 103rd Amendment

Q.33 The new Indian Ports Bill 2025 seeks to repeal which Indian Act?
Ans 1. The Indian Bills of Lading Act, 1856

2. The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021

3. The Calcutta Port (Pilotage) Act, 1948

4. The Indian Ports Act, 1908
m
Q.34
m .co
The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution relates to which of the following?

s e
la
Ans 1. Functions of municipalities

2. State list subjects
ag
3. Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats

4. Anti-defection law

Q.35 Privatisation under the 1991 reforms primarily involved:
Ans 1. increasing agricultural subsidies

2. reducing bank interest rates

3. nationalising private companies
m
m
4. selling government shares in public sector enterprises
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Q.36
m.co
The 'Montreal Protocol' was signed to control the emission of _____.
s e m
s e
Ans 1. chlorofluorocarbons
g l a
g l a 2. carbon dioxide a
a 3. methane

4. sulphur dioxide

Q.37 Which of the following organisations collaborated with the Indian Navy for the
VLSRSAM launch in March 2025?
Ans 1. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

2. Bharat Electronics Limited

m .
.co
3. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre

e m
4. Defence Research and Development Organisation

em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 37 of 48

Q.38 What key principle did the Supreme Court emphasise in the 2024 Property Owners
Association v State of Maharashtra case?
Ans 1. Only scarce or vital resources justify state takeover.

2. Public trust doctrine applies to all private assets.

3. State can acquire all private properties at will.

4. Government power overrides individual property rights.

Q.39 Which of the following schemes aims to empower adolescent girls?
Ans 1. NRHM

2. Kishori Shakti Yojana

3. National Nutrition Mission

4. Janani Suraksha Yojana

Q.40 Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) holders are:
Ans 1. Persons entitled to hold constitutional posts

2. Indian citizens with voting rights

3. Dual citizens of India and another country

4. Foreign nationals with special privileges

Section : Mathematics

Q.1
.

Ans 1. −130x + 126

2. 130x + 126

3. −130x − 126

4. 130x − 126

Q.2 Which of the following numbers divides 386937355?
Ans 1. 3

2. 15

3. 5

4. 14

Q.3 M and N start a business. M invests ₹79,000 more than N for 7 months and N invests for
6 months. M's share is ₹745 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹6,705. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹12,00,000

2. ₹11,80,000

3. ₹12,05,000

4. ₹11,85,000

Q.4 Find the value of [682 ÷ {20 + 2 × (5 − 4)}].
Ans 1. 31

2. 26

3. 28

4. 34

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.co
Q.5 A book seller gives a 4% discount on the marked price and gives one book free during
m
vacation for buying every pack of 15 books of the same cost, and thus gains 35%. By

. co what percentage is the marked price higher than the cost price?

s e m
m Ans 1. 35%
a
se 2. 25%
ag l
3. 40%

4. 50%

Q.6 83 mirrors were purchased for ₹83, and 22 mirrors broke in transit. The trader sold the
remaining mirrors at ₹3.60 each. Find his profit.
Ans 1. ₹144.50

2. ₹136.60

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3. ₹132.40

m
.co m
4. ₹127.70

m s e
Q.7
s e
The population of a district is 362000, out of which 181000 are males. 47% of the
l a
a ag
population is literate. If 35% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
l
ag
literate?
Ans 1. 61%

2. 58%

3. 62%

4. 59%

Q.8 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 40. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 16 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimals) in all the 33 matches.
m
.co
Ans 1. 33.73

2. 34.73
e m
3. 31.73
las
4. 32.73
ag
Q.9 The average price of three items of furniture is ₹5,325. If their prices are in the ratio 3 : 5
: 7, the price of the cheapest item (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 7,455

2. 1,065

3. 3,195

4. 5,325

m
Q.10
m .co
m.co s e m
s e
Ans 1.

g l a
g l a 2.
a
a 3.

4.

Q.11

Ans 1. 9

2. 8

3. 5
m .
4. 13
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 39 of 48

Q.12 The sides of a triangle are 28 cm, 45 cm, and 53 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 665

2. 630

3. 664

4. 658

Q.13 Rishi travels 198 km at 66 km/hr, the next 584 km at 73 km/hr and the next 656 km at 82
km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 82.07

2. 75.68

3. 82.71

4. 79.25

Q.14 The LCM of the numbers 6.3 and 0.07 is:
Ans 1. 63

2. 0.63

3. 6.3

4. 0.063

Q.15 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 330, respectively. If one of the numbers is
110, find the other one.
Ans 1. 33

2. 90

3. 75

4. 72

Q.16 A sum of ₹10,000 amounts to ₹12,321 in 2 years at a certain rate of interest per annum,
compounded annually. The rate of interest per annum is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17

Ans 1. 27.75

2. 30.75

3. 28.75

4. 24.75

Q.18 The cost of 6 pens and 19 pencils is ₹275. If the cost of a pen decreases by ₹7 and the
cost of a pencil increases by ₹7, then the cost of 15 pens and 4 pencils is ₹132. What is
the original cost of 6 pens and 2 pencils?
Ans 1. ₹88

2. ₹92

3. ₹89

4. ₹90

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.co
Q.19 Evaluate 145 2.
m
co m
Ans 1. 20975

m . s e
a
2. 21025

se 3. 21075
ag l
4. 21005

Q.20 If 2 times the mother's age is 26 years more than 4 times her daughter's age, and 3
times the daughter's age is 7 years less than the mother's age, then what is the
difference (in years) between the ages of the mother and the daughter?
Ans 1. 21

2. 24

3. 19
m
4. 23
m .co
m .co s em
Q.21 A company earns a profit (in ₹) that is distributed among the company's three partners

s e
in the ratio of 5 : 8 : 17. If the difference between the smallest and the largest shares is
l a
l a
₹78,106, the total profit (in ₹) of the company is:
ag
Ans
ag
1. 1,95,278

2. 1,95,361

3. 1,95,302

4. 1,95,265

Q.22 A man driving a car at a speed of 54 km/hr crosses a bridge in 1.7 minutes. Find the
length of the bridge.
Ans 1. 2.58 km

m
.co
2. 2.13 km

3. 1.53 km
e m
4. 0.92 km
las
Q.23 ag
Two cubes of edge 5 cm are joined to form a cuboid. Find the total surface area of the
cuboid.
Ans 1. 25 cm2

2. 250 cm2

3. 100 cm2

4. 125 cm2

Q.24
m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e
Ans 1.

g l a
g l a 2.
a
a 3.

4.

Q.25 Find the mean proportional between 19 and 76.
Ans 1. 36

2. 37

3. 38

m .
.co
4. 39

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 41 of 48

Q.26 What smallest number should be added to 16809 so that the sum is completely divisible
by 41?
Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 1

4. 4

Q.27 The selling price of 16 books is equal to the cost price of 8 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage.
Ans
1.

2.50% gain
3. 50% loss

4.

Q.28 Find the simple interest (in ₹) if a sum of ₹400 is borrowed for 5.5 years at 4% per
annum rate of interest.
Ans 1. 68

2. 138

3. 88

4. 188

Q.29 What is the equivalent single discount for successive discounts of 20% and 10%?
Ans 1. 27%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 28%

Q.30 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 17 days and B can do the same
job in 16 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Raghunandan walks 325 m towards the west to reach a cloth showroom. Then he turns
to the right and walks 220 m straight to reach the fitness centre. Again, he turns to the
right and walks for 200 m straight. Then, he turns to the right again and walks for 220 m.
How far is he from the starting point?( All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless
specified.)
Ans 1. 125 m

2. 120 m

3. 105 m

4. 150 m
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m
.co
Q.2 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
m
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

. co 28 + 125 × 5 − 12 ÷ 3 = ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 28

2. 46 ag l
3. 39

4. 21

Q.3 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
m
.co
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as

m
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3

.co m
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

m s e
37, 62

s e l a
ag
52, 77

l a
ag
Ans 1. 81, 96

2. 69, 88

3. 64, 84

4. 46, 71

Q.4 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

NUB 63, JQX 54, FMT 45, BIP 36, XEL 27, ?
Ans 1. TAI 17
m
2. UAH 20
m .co
3. TMH 15
s e
4. TAH 18
g la
Q.5
a
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ORM

2. VYT

3. RUP
m
m
4. LOI
.co
Q.6
m.co
What should come in place of the question (?) in the given series?
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans
53 70 91 116 145 ?
a
a
1. 171

2. 194

3. 186

4. 178

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.7 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. SV-UX

2. DG-FI

3. BE-DG

4. EI-HK

Q.8 Eight people, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z, are sitting in a straight line. All are facing towards
the north. S sits third from the extreme left end of the line. W is an immediate neighbour
of V. Only U sits between S and W. Z is sitting at the extreme right end of the line. T is an
immediate neighbour of both Y and S. How many people sit to the right of W?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

442 530 626 730 842 ?
Ans 1. 901

2. 1025

3. 962

4. 1090

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All forests are hills.
Some hills are deserts.

Conclusions:
(I): All hills are forests.
(II): Some deserts are hills.
Ans 1. Only Conclusion II follows

2. Only Conclusion I follows

3. Both Conclusions I and II follow

4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Q.11 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All bottles are ludo.
All ludo are dancer.

Conclusions:
(I): Some dancers are ludo.
(II): All bottles are dancers.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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m
.co
Q.12 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
given series to make it logically complete?

. co IUP -1 MRN -3 ? ULJ -27 YIH -81
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. YFQ -7

2. PQS -7 ag l
3. QOL -9

4. QOP -9

Q.13 Shekhar ranked 7th from the top and 38th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 42

2. 45
m
3. 44
m .co
4. 43
m .co s em
s e l a
Q.14
l a
In a certain code language,
ag
ag
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is Q related to D if ‘Q ÷ E – R x C + D’?
Ans 1. Brother

2. Father

3. Son's wife's father

4. Son's wife's brother
m
Q.15
m .co
HOLN is related to XGBF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the

s e
same way, TIXH is related to JANZ. To which of the given options is PKTJ related,

la
following the same logic?
Ans 1. FCBJ

2. FCBH
ag
3. FHBC

4. FCJB

Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
m
.co
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans
m
1. JQN

m.co 2. HOK
s e m
s e 3. FMI
g l a
g l a 4. LSO a
a Q.17 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

26 × 2 − 21 + 7 ÷ 4 = ?
Ans 1. 11

2. 6

3. 18

m .
.co
4. 25

e m
em l as
las ag
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Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

934 924 925 915 916 906 ? 897
Ans 1. 896

2. 908

3. 907

4. 895

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘MAZE’ is coded as ‘3527’ and ‘AIDS’ is coded as ‘2416’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 1

4. 5

Q.20 WPKD is related to TNHB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, KHYV is related to HFVT. To which of the given options is BBPP related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. YZNM

2. YMZN

3. YZMN

4. YZSD

Q.21 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
8317456, what will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second
from the right?
Ans 1. 6

2. 12

3. 10

4. 8

Q.22 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 126 257 352 984 751 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If 2 is added in the third digit of each number, how many numbers thus formed will be
odd numbers?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. None

Q.23 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 % / < 9 $ / % 6 * 4 5 8 # ? > 2 2 + 2 \ (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another symbol?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Two

4. None

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m
.co
Q.24 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number 95423671 and then the digits are
m
arranged in ascending order from left to right. Find the sum of the digits that are second

. co from the left and third from the right.

s e m
m Ans 1. 9
a
se 2. 7
ag l
3. 6

4. 5

Q.25 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only four boxes are kept between C and F. Only A is kept above C. Only two
boxes are kept between D and E. G is kept immediately above B. E is not kept
immediately above G. How many boxes are kept above G?
Ans 1. 1

m
.co
2. 3
m
.co m
3. 4

m s e
4. 2

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.26 Harini starts from Point Y and drives 7 km towards the south. She then takes a left turn,
drives 14 km. She then turns left and drives 7 km. She takes a final left turn, drives 18
km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should she drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only
unless specified)
Ans 1. 10 km towards south

2. 8 km towards west

3. 1 km towards north

4. 4 km towards east

m
.co
Q.27 Seven boxes F, G, H, I, K, L, and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the

m
same order. Only three boxes are kept below H. Only two boxes are kept between H and

e
O. Only L is kept above G. F is kept at some place below I and at some place above K.
s
la
Which box is kept at second position from the bottom?
Ans 1. O

2. G ag
3. F

4. K

Q.28 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

HTO : DWK
XHE : TKA
m
Ans
m
1. PNW : LQS
.co
m.co 2. FCV : KZQ
s e m
s e 3. HKV : ENS
g l a
g l a 4. YFH : UKD a
a Q.29 L, M, N, O, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
Only one person sits between Q and S when counted from the right of Q. Only one
person sits between S and N. Only one person sits between Q and R. Only two people
sit between L and N. Only one person sits between O and R. Who sits third to the right
of M?
Ans 1. S

2. L

3. N
m .
.co m
4. O

s e
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.30 In a certain code language, ‘BEST’ is coded as ‘3527’ and ‘EARN’ is coded as ‘1246’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 1

4. 6

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