RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 04 Sep (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 04 Sep

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 04/09/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which reformer is known for his efforts to promote widow remarriage and women’s
education in Bengal?
Ans 1. Keshab Chandra Sen

2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

3. Debendranath Tagore

4. Swami Vivekananda

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Q.2
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Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for the power of the
President to specify the Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution?
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Ans 1. Article 342
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2. Article 343
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3. Article 336 a
4. Article 340

Q.3 Which of the following Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) were granted
'Miniratna' Category-I status by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh in May 2025?
Ans 1. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)

2. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

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3. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)

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4. Munitions India Limited (MIL)

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Q.4 m
In 2025, the Central government selected which of the following start-ups to build
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l as India’s first indigenous artificial intelligence (AI) large language model (LLM)?
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2. Sarvam

3. Srijan

4. Sarvshresht

Q.5 What does the abbreviation 'MAN' stand for in computer networking?
Ans 1. Mobile Area Network

2. Medium Access Network
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3. Main Access Node

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4. Metropolitan Area Network

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Q.6 As of June 2025, how many languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. 24

2. 18

3. 22

4. 14

Q.7 President Droupadi Murmu conferred how many Kirti Chakras, including four
posthumous, during Phase-I of the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 in May 2025?
Ans 1. Fifteen

2. Nine

3. Six

4. Twelve

Q.8 Tuhin Kanta Pandey succeeded whom as the chairman of the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI) in March 2025?
Ans 1. Ajay Tyagi

2. UK Sinha

3. Madhabi Puri Buch

4. CB Bhave

Q.9 Which of the following states was NOT formed through the State Reorganisation Act of
1956?
Ans 1. Rajasthan State

2. Goa State

3. Mysore State

4. Bombay State

Q.10 Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State for promotion of cottage
industries in rural areas?
Ans 1. Article 41

2. Article 36

3. Article 55

4. Article 43

Q.11 Which of the following is the first African country to sign the International Solar Alliance
(ISA) in April 2025?
Ans 1. Senegal

2. Lesotho

3. Mauritius

4. Egypt

Q.12 Which of the following plateaus lies between the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats?
Ans 1. Chhota Nagpur Plateau

2. Deccan Plateau

3. Malwa Plateau

4. Meghalaya Plateau

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Q.13 Which organisation unveiled the strategic report titled 'Designing a Policy for Medium
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Enterprises' emphasising their role in India’s development?

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Ans 1. Reserve Bank of India
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2. Ministry of MSME

3. Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
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4. NITI Aayog

Q.14 Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative powers
between the Union and the States?
Ans 1. Article 368

2. Article 240

3. Article 280
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4. Article 246
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Q.15
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What pigment do petunias have that gives them a reddish-purple colour in an acidic
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environment (low pH)?
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Ans
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1. Anthocyanins
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2. Carotenes

3. Betalains

4. Lycopene

Q.16 Which of the following organisations oversees the Kutiyattam Kendra located in
Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, India?
Ans 1. Kerala Tourism Department

2. Ministry of Education
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3. UNESCO

4. Ministry of Culture
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Q.17
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Which of the following officers managed stores and the supply of weapons like spears
and swords during the Gupta period?
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Ans 1. Ranabhandagarika

2. Sandhivigrahika

3. Kumaramatya

4. Mahadandanayaka

Q.18 Which two places are in the news due to the approval of Greenfield airports for better
connectivity by the Central Government on 5 May 2025?
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Ans 1. Pakyong and Kalaburagi
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2. Navi Mumbai and Itanagar

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a Q.19 Who is the director of the Indian entry at the 78th Cannes Film Festival named
‘Homebound’, starring Janhvi Kapoor, Ishaan Khatter and Vishal Jethwa?
Ans 1. Neeraj Ghaywan

2. Karan Johar

3. Anurag Kashyap

4. Anurag Basu

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Q.20 Why is the net sown area low in hilly states like Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand?
Ans 1. Due to urban expansion

2. Because of steep slopes and thin soil layers

3. Because of poor soil fertility

4. Due to frequent floods

Q.21 Which one of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) aims to ensure
access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all?
Ans 1. Goal 12

2. Goal 5

3. Goal 7

4. Goal 10

Q.22 According to an official report released in April 2025, AI-based real-time forest
monitoring system has been implemented for the first time in which state sensitive
forest divisions?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Odisha

3. Gujarat

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.23 Which of the following is a primary memory of a computer?
Ans 1. Hard Disk

2. CD-ROM

3. Floppy Disk

4. RAM

Q.24 Which mineral helps in the formation of insulin granules, digestion, metabolism and
functioning of the male prostate?
Ans 1. Iron

2. Zinc

3. Phosphorus

4. Nickel

Q.25 In India, Red Bull India Private Limited (RBIL) has imported and sold Red Bull Energy
Drink and its variants since _______.
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2007

3. 2000

4. 2002

Q.26 Which of the following Indian space missions captured its first image of a solar flare in
February 2025?
Ans 1. Aditya-L1

2. AstroSat

3. Mangalyaan-2

4. Chandrayaan-3

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Q.27 In 1947, the Indian economy was marked by deep poverty. Which sector dominated the
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Indian economy at the time of independence?

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Ans 1. Agricultural sector
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2. Industrial sector

3. Services sector
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4. Manufacturing sector

Q.28 In which year did India officially start economic liberalisation?
Ans 1. 1995

2. 2000

3. 1985

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4. 1991

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Q.29
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Select the right bank tributary of the Indus River system.

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Ans 1. Jhelum River

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2. Ravi River
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3. Kabul River

4. Chenab River

Q.30 What is the main function of carbohydrates in the body?
Ans 1. It is crucial for growth.

2. It regulates hormones.

3. It provides energy.

4. It insulates the body.
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Q.31
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The Lower Palaeolithic period in India, including the Acheulian phase, spans
approximately how many years BP?
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Ans 1. 6,00,000–1,50,000 years BP
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2. 1,65,000–31,000 years BP a
3. 1,00,000–10,000 years BP

4. 40,000–12,000 years

Q.32 Who organises Lok Adalats in India?
Ans 1. Bar Council of India

2. National and State Legal Services Authorities

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3. Law Commission of India

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4. Advocate General of State

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Q.33 Which novel earned Percival Everett the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2025?
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3. James

4. Glyph

Q.34 In which of the following institutes was ‘Shri S. Ramakrishnan Centre of Excellence in
Fluid and Thermal Science Research’ launched in March 2025?
Ans 1. Indian Institute of Technology, Madras

2. Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur
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3. Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay

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4. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
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Q.35 Which of the following states of India has Konkani as a prominently spoken language?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Tripura

3. Goa

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.36 Which of the following is a major difference between planted and natural vegetation?
Ans 1. Presence of fruits

2. Place of origin

3. Human supervision involved

4. Number of leaves

Q.37 Who is the 52nd Chief Justice of India?
Ans 1. Justice DY Chandrachud

2. Justice NV Ramana

3. Justice BR Gavai

4. Justice Sanjiv Khanna

Q.38 What does the term 'net sown area' refer to?
Ans 1. Total area cultivated with crops during the year

2. Total area under irrigation

3. Land covered with forests

4. Land left uncultivated for more than five years

Q.39 What is the main aim of globalisation?
Ans 1. Limit foreign trade

2. Reduce employment

3. Increase local production

4. Integrate the Indian economy with the world

Q.40 The Non-cooperation Movement in 1920 included all the following, EXCEPT:
Ans 1. violent attacks on officials

2. refusal to pay taxes

3. boycott of British courts

4. closure of schools and colleges

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 60°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 49°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 80°

2. 87°

3. 85°

4. 79°

Q.2 The average weight of Rupesh, Mandar and Ketan is 45 kg. If the average weight of
Rupesh and Mandar is 43 kg and that of Mandar and Ketan is 49 kg, then the weight of
Mandar (in kg) is:
Ans 1. 64

2. 49

3. 69

4. 59
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Q.3
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2. −86x − 124

3. 86x + 124

4. 86x − 124

Q.4 Pipe A can fill a tank in 17 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 24 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 18 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
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1.
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2.
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4.

Q.5 Neha, Rajat, and Avinash invest ₹1,430, ₹1,680, and ₹1,340, respectively, to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,780, then what is the share of Avinash
in the profit?
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Ans 1. ₹537

2. ₹536
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3. ₹533
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4. ₹538
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Q.6

Ans 1. 30.75

2. 31.75

3. 27.75

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4. 33.75

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Q.7
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The LCM of the numbers 4.7 and 0.04 is:

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Ans 1. 9.4

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a 3. 94

4. 0.094

Q.8 A woman travels 488 km at 61 km/hr, a second distance of 468 km at 78 km/hr and a
third distance of 210 km at 35 km/hr. Find her average speed for the whole journey (in
km/hr).
Ans 1. 61.1

2. 68.8

3. 59.7
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4. 58.3
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Q.9 If the third proportional of 50 and 30 is x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 21

2. 15

3. 20

4. 18

Q.10 If 3 times Mary's present age is 22 years more than 5 times Dia's present age, and 3
times Dia's present age is 2 years less than Mary's present age, then what is the
difference (in years) between the ages of Mary and Dia?
Ans 1. 7

2. 13

3. 10

4. 15

Q.11 If the radius of a sphere is increased to twelve times its original radius, then by how
many times does its surface area increase?
Ans 1. 128

2. 144

3. 64

4. 164

Q.12 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining
constant speed and thus takes a total time of 4 hours 30 minutes. He would have gained
2 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to walk both ways
with same walking speed?
Ans 1. 6 hours 30 minutes

2. 7 hours 30 minutes

3. 5 hours 15 minutes

4. 6 hours 45 minutes

Q.13 The value of 67 − 9 × [ 4 + 3 × { 16 − 8 ( 6 − 5 ) × 2} ÷ 32] is:
Ans 1. 40

2. 25

3. 31

4. 47

Q.14 The cost of 10 pens and 3 pencils is ₹129. If the cost of a pen decreases by ₹6 and the
cost of a pencil increases by ₹9, then the cost of 8 pens and 2 pencils is ₹72. What is
the original cost of 9 pens and 16 pencils?
Ans 1. ₹156

2. ₹160

3. ₹155

4. ₹161

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 3% per month in 4 months.
Ans 1. 24

2. 12

3. 32

4. 144

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Q.16 A book has a marked price of ₹500. During a festive sale, it is sold at a 10% discount.
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What is the amount of discount given?

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Ans 1. ₹60
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2. ₹50

3. ₹45
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4. ₹40

Q.17

Ans 1. -10

2. -16

3. -8
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4. -7
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Q.18
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The sides of a triangle are 72 cm, 90 cm, and 54 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
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Ans 1. 1973
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2. 1944

3. 1912
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4. 1954

Q.19

Ans 1. ₹14,095
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2. ₹14,100

3. ₹14,104
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4. ₹14,112
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Q.20 ag
The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 11 and 440, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 55, find the other one.
Ans 1. 10

2. 70

3. 14

4. 88

Q.21 Manisha bought a toy for ₹849, decorated it at a cost of ₹6 and sold the toy for ₹441.
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Find the loss or profit percentage.
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Ans

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1.
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4.

Q.22

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Ans 1. 4.52

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2. 5.64

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3. 11.04

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4. 6.17
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Q.23 Abdul and Mohsin together invested ₹79,200 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹14,400, Mohsin's share was ₹2,600. What was the difference between
their investments?
Ans 1. ₹52,000

2. ₹50,600

3. ₹49,800

4. ₹51,400

Q.24 The income of Raman is ₹91,700. He saves 25% of his income. If his income increases
by 27% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:
Ans 1. decrease by ₹2,751

2. increase by ₹2,753

3. decrease by ₹2,753

4. increase by ₹2,754

Q.25

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.27

Ans 1. 28

2. 35

3. 31

4. 26

Q.28 An article listed at ₹500 is sold at successive discounts of 10% and 14%. The buyer
wants to sell it at a profit of 15% after offering a 10% discount. What should be his list
price (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 484.50

2. 485

3. 494.50

4. 474

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Q.29 A trader claims to sell pulses at a profit of 48%, but also dishonestly uses a weight
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which is 12% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit

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1.

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2.

3.
a
4.

Q.30 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80 and the third
number is 108. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.
Ans 1. 189

2. 193.5
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3. 194.5
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4. 188

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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
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Q.1
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If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
4562734, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 6

4. 7

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Q.2 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

CURD - RCUD - DRUC
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KIDS - DKIS - SDIK
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Ans 1. SLAY - ASLY - LAYS

2. PEAT - EPAT - TEAP ag
3. TEAM - TAEM - MAET

4. WASH - SWAH - HSAW

Q.3 Seven people, I, J, K, L, M, N and O, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people
sit to the left of K. Only three people sit between K and L. Only one person sits between
L and J. N sits to the immediate left of I. M is not an immediate neighbour of L. How
many people sit to the right of O?
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Ans 1. Four

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2. Two

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3. Three

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a Q.4 HLOY is related to KNRA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, TTAG is related to WVDI. To which of the given options is CZJM related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. FBOM

2. FOMB

3. FBMO

4. FMOB

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Q.5 Riya starts from Point P and drives 8 km towards the south. Then she takes a right turn,
drives 11 km, she turns right again and drives 14 km. She then takes a right turn and
drives 15 km. Then she takes left turn and drives 2 km, she takes a left turn again and
drives 4 km and stops at Point Q. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should she drive in order to reach Point P again? (All turns are 90-degree
turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km towards the south

2. 4 km towards the north

3. 8 km towards the south

4. 6 km towards the north

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘DONT’ is coded as ‘1097’ and ‘NATO’ is coded as ‘0187’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 0

3. 8

4. 1

Q.7 This question is based on five, four-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 4138 2345 6367 5353 1276 (Right)

(Example: 6975 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9, third digit = 7 and fourth digit = 5)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second largest number is multiplied
to the second digit of the largest number?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 7

4. 9

Q.8 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KO-RN

2. NR-UP

3. AE-HC

4. QU-XS

Q.9 Town T is to the west of Town S. Town U is to the south of Town T. Town V is to the west
of Town U. Town W is to the south of Town V. Town X is to the west of Town W. What is
the position of Town X with respect to Town S?
Ans 1. Southwest

2. Southeast

3. Northwest

4. Northeast

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

USR ROT OKV LGX ?
Ans 1. IDS

2. ICZ

3. JWZ

4. LKX

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Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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3. 563

4. 565

Q.12 Seven boxes F, G, H, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. O is kept immediately above F. G is kept immediately above M. Only P is
kept above N. Only two boxes are kept above O. G is not kept at third position from the
bottom. How many boxes are kept between H and P?
Ans 1. Four

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2. Three
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3. Two

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4. One

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Q.13 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

32 B 5 C 63 B 5 D 89 C 9 A 9 D 7 = ?
Ans 1. 293

2. 380

3. 349

4. 308

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Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘LOAD’ is coded as ‘5364’ and ‘GOLD’ is coded as ‘4136’.
What is the code for ‘G’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6
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2. 4
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3. 1
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4. 3

Q.15 In a certain code language,
'A ¥ B' means ‘A is the father of B’,
'A # B' means ‘ A is the brother of B’,
'A % B' means ‘A is the son of B’ and
'A = B' means ‘A is the wife of B’.

How is A related to D if 'A = S # G % E ¥ D'?

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Ans 1. Brother's wife

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2. Sister's brother

m 3. Sister's son
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g l a 4. Brother's son
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a Q.16 Karan, Shiv, Ritu, Himani, Gunjan and Pari are sitting in a straight line, facing north.
Karan sits third to the left of Himani. Himani sits second from the right end. Pari sits to
the immediate left of Gunjan. Shiv does not sit next to Karan. Who sits second to the
right of Gunjan?
Ans 1. Karan

2. Shiv

3. Ritu

4. Himani

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Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All forks are spoons. Some forks are caps.

Conclusions (I): Some spoons are caps.
Conclusions (II): All caps are forks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.18 RBNH is related to LVHB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, TDPJ is related to NXJD. To which of the given options is BLXR related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. VFLR

2. VRFL

3. VFRL

4. VLRF

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(48, 26, 15)
(88, 46, 25)
Ans 1. (12, 6, 7)

2. (58, 34, 19)

3. (36, 20, 8)

4. (24, 14, 9)

Q.20 Each of the digits in the number 67849315 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and third from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 10

3. 7

4. 11

Q.21 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follow.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 \ & > 3 @ 8 * & @ 7 1 ^ @ 4 ? \ ? 4 5 < (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. Three

4. One

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.co
Q.22 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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se Statements:
All gardens are forests. ag l
All forests are meadows.

Conclusions:
(I) All gardens are meadows.
(II) All meadows are forests.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
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4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.23
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Mr. Toni ranked 94 from the bottom and 65th from the top in his class. How many
th
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students are there in his class?
l a
Ans 1. 159
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2. 156 ag
3. 157

4. 158

Q.24 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

19 42 78 122 179 ?
Ans 1. 234

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2. 244

3. 243
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4. 204
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Q.25 ag
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NIO

2. KFM

3. TOV

4. QLS

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Q.26
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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154 181 208 ? 262 289
s e m
s e
Ans 1. 242
g l a
g l a 2. 235 a
a 3. 228

4. 260

Q.27 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

LSP 15 OOO 12 RKN 9 UGM 6 ?
Ans 1. DLV 4

2. XCL 3
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3. DSR 9
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4. XLC 7

g la
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.28 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. KO-RW

2. IM-PT

3. MQ-TX

4. FJ-MQ

Q.29 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

14 ÷ 4 + 78 × 13 − 13 = ?
Ans 1. 65

2. 55

3. 63

4. 58

Q.30 Raj ranked 35th from the top and 27th from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans 1. 60

2. 62

3. 63

4. 61

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 04/09/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Durgapur Steel Plant of West Bengal is situated on the banks of which river?
Ans 1. Damodar

2. Teesta

3. Mahananda

4. Hooghly

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Q.2 What is the primary purpose of Judicial Review in India?
Ans 1. To examine the constitutionality of laws

e m
2. To amend the Constitution

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3. To appoint ministers

4. To elect judges ag
Q.3 Within how many days must information be provided under the RTI Act for general
requests?
Ans 1. 30 days

2. 20 days

3. 60 days

4. 15 days
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m .co
Q.4
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On which of the following dates did Mahatma Gandhi begin a 21-day fast of self-

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purification to support the Harijan movement?
s e m
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Ans 1. 9 March 1930
g l a
g l a 2. 7 May 1923 a
a 3. 8 September 1927

4. 8 May 1933

Q.5 Which of the following was NOT a part of the New Economic Policy reforms introduced
in 1991?
Ans 1. Liberalisation

2. Globalisation

3. Privatisation
m .
4. Nationalisation of banks
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 The Indian Army celebrated its 77th Army Day at Pune on which date, which marked the
third occasion that the Army Day Parade was held outside Delhi?
Ans 1. 5 March 2025

2. 5 February 2025

3. 15 February 2025

4. 15 January 2025

Q.7 Who headed the Diwan-i-Arz and was responsible for managing soldiers, branding
horses, and administering war provisions?
Ans 1. Naib

2. Amir-i-Dad

3. Ariz-i-Mumalik

4. Dabir-i-Khas

Q.8 How did globalisation impact Indian industries?
Ans 1. Made them weaker

2. Banned private companies

3. Gave more competition and modern technology

4. Closed them down

Q.9 Which one of the following statements correctly explains the cause of volcanism?
Ans 1. It results from molten rock rising from the Earth’s interior.

2. It is caused by excessive surface erosion.

3. It happens because of atmospheric disturbances.

4. It is due to the movement of glaciers.

Q.10 Social life in the Vedic period was divided into how many ashramas?
Ans 1. Four

2. Three

3. Six

4. Ten

Q.11 Which statement best differentiates ROM from RAM in terms of volatility and usage?
Ans 1. RAM is volatile and stores temporary data; ROM is non-volatile and stores boot instructions.

2. ROM is used for multitasking; RAM is used for storing BIOS.

3. ROM is volatile and used for running programs; RAM is non-volatile and stores firmware.

4. RAM is permanent; ROM is temporary.

Q.12 The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided by ______.
Ans 1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

2. Dadabhai Naoroji

3. Mahadev Govind Ranade

4. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

Q.13 Which of the following could be regarded as the only positive outcome of the British
reforms in India?
Ans 1. Deindustrialisation

2. Ruralisation

3. One-way free trade

4. Social reform laws

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Q.14 In February 2025, which Indian agency launched a ₹500-crore Technology Adoption
m
Fund to support early-stage space startups and reduce import dependency?

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Ans 1. Antrix Corporation
s e m
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2. ISRO

3. DRDO
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4. IN-SPACe

Q.15 The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution was introduced through the 73rd
Amendment. What is its significance in the context of Panchayati Raj?
Ans 1. It outlines administrative powers of the Gram Sabha.

2. It lists subjects to be legislated by the Union government.

3. It specifies 29 functional subjects to be devolved to Panchayats by States.
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4. It specifies 44 functional subjects to be devolved to Panchayats by States.
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m .co s em
Q.16 Who became the Chief Minister of Delhi after the February 2025 Legislative Assembly
elections?
s e l a
Ans
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1. Arvind Kejriwal
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ag
2. Parvesh Verma

3. Atishi Marlena

4. Rekha Gupta

Q.17 According to a March 2025 PIB report, India's defence production reached ₹1.27 trillion
in FY 2023-24, showing an increase of what percentage from FY 2014-15?
Ans 1. 200%

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2. 174%

3. 130%

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4. 151%
s e
g la
a
Q.18 The Appropriation Bill 2025, was introduced in the Lok Sabha by which Ministry?
Ans 1. Ministry of External Affairs

2. Ministry of Defence

3. Ministry of Finance

4. Ministry of Home Affairs

Q.19 In which of the following years was Amazon.in launched in India?
Ans 1. 2013
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2. 2008
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3. 2015

m s e
s e 4. 2010

g l a
g l a Q.20 Where was the 12th International Tourism Mart (ITM) held in November 2024 to promote a
a Ans
Northeast India's tourism potential?
1. Imphal, Manipur

2. Kaziranga, Assam

3. Aizawl, Mizoram

4. Shillong, Meghalaya

Q.21 What is the known equation that connects the concentration of a buffer solution's

m .
constituents, weak acid/salt or weak base/salt, and its pH?

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Ans 1. Arrhenius equation

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2. Nernst - Boyle equation

s l a
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3. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

g ag
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4. Van't Hoff equation
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Q.22 Which of the following is not a function of biosphere reserves?
Ans 1. Cultural heritage preservation

2. Promotion of monoculture farming

3. Sustainable development of local communities

4. Conservation of biodiversity

Q.23 Which sector was the largest contributor to India's GDP between 1947 and 1991?
Ans 1. Service sector

2. Agriculture sector

3. Industrial sector

4. Financial sector

Q.24 Which of the following is considered a non-renewable natural resource?
Ans 1. Wind energy

2. Forests

3. Solar energy

4. Natural gas

Q.25 In which of the following years was Sanskrit declared a Classical Language in India?
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2003

3. 2010

4. 2002

Q.26 Which of the following cities hosted the 2025 Conferences of the Parties for the
Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions (BRS COPs)?
Ans 1. Geneva

2. Rotterdam

3. Stockholm

4. Hong Kong

Q.27 The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill passed in the Rajya Sabha in March 2025 extended
the tenure of Directors of co-operative banks to how many years?
Ans 1. 10 years

2. 6 years

3. 9 years

4. 8 years

Q.28 Which of the following organisations unveiled the country's first five Carbon Capture
and Utilisation (CCU) testbeds in the cement sector in May 2025?
Ans 1. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

2. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)

3. Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India

4. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

Q.29 The retreating monsoon causes rainfall mainly in _____.
Ans 1. Assam

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Maharashtra

4. Punjab

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Q.30 In an optical fibre, the core is made of a _________.
m
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Ans 1. material with higher refractive index

. e m
m 2. material with lower refractive index
as
se 3. material with higher density
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4. material with lower density

Q.31 Which Indian actress was honoured at Cannes 2025 as part of the 'Women in Cinema'
initiative?
Ans 1. Deepika Padukone

2. Jacqueline Fernandez

3. Priyanka Chopra

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4. Alia Bhatt

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Q.32
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Which Constitutional Amendment has most recently extended the reservation of seats

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for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State
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Legislative Assemblies for another ten years?
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Ans th
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1. 15 Amendmenta ag
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2. 42nd Amendment

3. 104th Amendment

4. 61st Amendment

Q.33 A person who migrated from Pakistan after 19 July 1948 could become an Indian citizen,
only if:
Ans 1. he was registered by an officer of the Dominion of India

2. he was a resident of Pakistan in 1948
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3. he took an oath of allegiance

4. he was born in India before 1947
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las
Q.34
g
Shambhu Maharaj, awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 1967, was
a
renowned for his contribution to which of the following Indian art forms?
Ans 1. Carnatic music

2. Bharatanatyam dance

3. Hindustani classical music

4. Kathak dance

Q.35 What is the industrial name for calcium sulphate hemihydrate?
Ans 1. Gypsum
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2. Quick lime
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m.co 3. Plaster of Paris
s e m
s e 4. Slaked lime
g l a
g l a a
a Q.36
Ans
Which of the following is the highest Himalayan peak located in India (excluding POK)?
1. Dhaulagiri

2. Kanchenjunga

3. Mount Everest

4. Nanga Parbat

Q.37 Which of the following is a good way to organise files in Windows?

m .
Ans 1. Store all files on the desktop

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2. Create separate folders for different types of files
s e m
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3. Keep files with different subjects in one folder
s l a
la
4. Rename all files with random numbers
g ag
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Q.38 Who was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 for becoming the
youngest World Chess Champion in January 2025?
Ans 1. Arjun Erigaisi

2. Nihal Sarin

3. R Praggnanandhaa

4. Gukesh D

Q.39 Who was elected as the President of Lebanon in January 2025, ending a two-year
vacancy?
Ans 1. Hassan Diab

2. Michel Aoun

3. Joseph Aoun

4. Saad Hariri

Q.40 In May 2024, the World Health Organization (WHO) prequalified the QDENGA vaccine
developed by Takeda Pharmaceuticals. This vaccine is designed to protect against
which disease?
Ans 1. Dengue

2. Malaria

3. Chikungunya

4. Zika

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 4 years ago, the age of a father was 33 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 29

2. 28

3. 34

4. 25

Q.2
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 A woman travels 432 km at 72 km/hr, a second distance of 275 km at 55 km/hr and a
third distance of 680 km at 85 km/hr. Find her average speed for the whole journey (in
km/hr).
Ans 1. 76

2. 80

3. 66

4. 73

Q.4

Ans 1. 16.76

2. 4.97

3. 7.76

4. 10.48

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Q.5 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.
m
. co 10, 13, 17, 11, 11, 13, 14, 16, 13, 13

s e m
m a
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The mode of the data is:
Ans 1. 13
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2. 11

3. 17

4. 10

Q.6 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 63°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 76°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 91°

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2. 103°
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3. 105°

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4. 96°

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.7 Ayushi bought a toy for ₹461, decorated it at a cost of ₹15, and sold the toy for ₹918.
Find the loss or gain percentage.
Ans
1.

2.

3.
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4.
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Q.8
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Ans 1. ₹38,841

2. ₹38,819

3. ₹38,828

4. ₹38,836

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Q.9 Find the simple interest (in ₹) if a sum of ₹400 is borrowed for 5.5 years at 8% per

m
annum rate of interest.

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Ans 1. 176

m s e
s e 2. 276

g l a
g l a 3. 156
a
a 4. 226

Q.10 The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 2 and 410, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 82, find the other one.
Ans 1. 54

2. 93

3. 10

4. 11
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.11 The income of Raman is ₹34,000. He saves 28% of his income. If his income increases
by 11% and expenditure increases by 30%, then his savings will:
Ans 1. decrease by ₹3,604

2. decrease by ₹5,649

3. increase by ₹3,644

4. increase by ₹5,639

Q.12

Ans 1. 9.88

2. 10.57

3. 10.6

4. 14.94

Q.13

Ans 1. 60.5%

2. 63.3%

3. 63.5%

4. 62.4%

Q.14 The sides of a triangle are 72 cm, 97 cm, and 65 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 2323

2. 2355

3. 2340

4. 2378

Q.15 A wholesaler increases the cost price of an item by 90% while marking it. He then offers
a 60% discount on this marked price but finds that he incurs a loss. If the wholesaler
wants to achieve no profit and no loss, by what percentage should he change the
selling price of the item? (Rounded to one decimal place.)
Ans 1. 32.1% decrease

2. 35.7% decrease

3. 31.6% increase

4. 34.5% increase

Q.16 The average of first 157 even numbers is
Ans 1. 158.5

2. 157.5

3. 159

4. 158

Q.17 The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 28 and 840, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 168, find the other one.
Ans 1. 140

2. 196

3. 84

4. 112

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Q.18 An amount of ₹432 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 5 : 14 : 17. The
m
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:

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Ans 1. 144
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m a
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2. 62

3. 178
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4. 132

Q.19 A kurta is marked for ₹750 and sold for ₹660. The rate of discount is:
Ans 1. 14%

2. 15%

3. 12%

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4. 20%

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Q.20
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Find the mean proportional between 15 and 240.

m s em
Ans 1. 60

s e l a
2. 58
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3. 63

4. 57
ag
Q.21

Ans 1.

2.

3.
m
4.
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s e
la
Q.22 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 272. The greater of the two numbers

Ans
is:
1. 9 ag
2. 36

3. 28

4. 17

Q.23 Pipe A can fill a tank in 17 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 27 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 12 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
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Ans
m
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1.

e m
e m l as
l as 2.
ag
ag
3.

4.

Q.24 Simplify: x(3x - 6) + 4(x2 -5) + 15
Ans 1. -7x2 -6x + 5
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2. -7x2 -6x -5
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3. 7x2 - 6x + 5
s em l a
4. 7x2 - 6x - 5
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 ₹13,700 were divided among A, B and C such that 4 times the share of A = 7 times the
share of B = 2 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹3,921

2. ₹3,836

3. ₹3,988

4. ₹3,664

Q.27 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining
constant speed and thus takes a total time of 7 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained
6 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to walk both ways
with same walking speed?
Ans 1. 13 hours 45 minutes

2. 14 hours 15 minutes

3. 13 hours 30 minutes

4. 12 hours 45 minutes

Q.28 The LCM of the numbers 2.8 and 0.217 is:
Ans 1. 86.8

2. 8.68

3. 0.868

4. 868

Q.29 Evaluate 34 2.
Ans 1. 1166

2. 1186

3. 1156

4. 1176

Q.30

Ans 1. 9.25

2. 15.25

3. 13.25

4. 12.25

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 FJEC is related to LPKI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, IMHF is related to OSNL. To which of the following is LPKI related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. VROQ

2. RVOQ

3. RVQO

4. VRQO
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Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘TEAR’ is coded as ‘7165’ and ‘SEAT’ is coded as ‘5678’.
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What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?

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Ans 1. 8
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2. 5

3. 7
ag
4. 6

Q.3 Samad starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards East. He then takes a left turn,
drives 6 km, turns left and drives 12 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 8 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km towards North

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2. 4 km towards South
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3. 2 km towards West

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4. 4 km towards North

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.4 Seven boxes V, W, X, Y, Z, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. No box is kept above Z. Only three boxes are kept between Z and W. Only
one box is kept between V and R. R is kept immediately above W. Only four boxes are
kept between V and X. Q is kept at some place above Y. Which box is kept second below
Q?
Ans 1. Y

2. R

3. X

4. W

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Q.5 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.

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Counting to be done from left to right only. (Note: All numbers are single digit numbers
only).
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(Left) 4 7 + $ £ 3 & 8 5 @ 1 Ω # * % 6 2 9 (Right)
g la
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How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by another
number and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 1

4. 3

Q.6 Mayank ranked 39th from the top and 11th from the bottom in his class. How many
m
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students are there in his class?

.co m
Ans 1. 49

m s e
s e 2. 48

g l a
g l a 3. 47
a
a 4. 50

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

550 555 565 570 580 585 ? 600
Ans 1. 610

2. 595

3. 590

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4. 605

e m
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las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 27 of 48

Q.8 Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the
same order. Only S is kept above X. Only two boxes are kept between X and Z. Only P is
kept below R. Q is not kept immediately above Z. How many boxes are kept between Y
and P?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. Four

4. One

Q.9 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. EHC

2. NQK

3. YBW

4. SVQ

Q.10 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LQ-NJ

2. NS-PK

3. JO-LH

4. HM-JF

Q.11 Sumit, Jatin, Ramesh, Priya, Kavita and Manoj are sitting in a straight line, facing north.
Sumit sits third from the left end. Manoj sits second to the right of Sumit. Jatin sits to
the immediate left of Kavita. Priya does not sit at the end. Who sits second to the left of
Priya?
Ans 1. Ramesh

2. Manoj

3. Kavita

4. Sumit

Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

16 28 50 82 124 ?
Ans 1. 162

2. 176

3. 194

4. 185

Q.13 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RXT

2. MSO

3. FLG

4. IOK

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.co
Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All mugs are cups. ag l
Some mugs are forks.

Conclusions:
(I): Some cups are forks.
(II): Some forks are mugs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Both conclusions I and II follow.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follow.
m
4. Only conclusion II follows.
m .co
m .co s em
Q.15
e
In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a

s l a
ag
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

l a
ag
BOAD - OBAD - BADO
DUCK - UDCK - DCKU
Ans 1. CAME - ACME - AMEC

2. HEAP - EHAP - PEAH

3. FEAN - EFAN - FANE

4. RUSK - RSUK - KSUR

Q.16 A is the sister of H. H is the mother of R. R is the son of M. G is the mother of M. How is

m
A related to M?

.co
Ans 1. Son's daughter

2. Son's wife's mother
e m
3. Wife's sister
las
4. Son's wife's sister
ag
Q.17 Each of the digits in the number 4796583 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are first from the left and first from the right
in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 10

3. 7

4. 12
m
m .co
Q.18

m.co
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

s e m
s e 24 ? 45 66 94 129
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 44
a
a 2. 41

3. 31

4. 38

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.19 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
All numbers are single-digit. Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) + # 5 3 $ Ω 4 ? 9 1 & % 7 * @ 2 £ 6 8 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans 1. None

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

Q.20 Amit started from Point A and travelled 9 km east. He then turned right and travelled 6
km. He then turned right and travelled 7 km. He finally turned right and travelled 6 km to
stop at Point E. What is the shortest distance between Point E and Point A? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only.)
Ans 1. 4 km

2. 3 km

3. 2 km

4. 5 km

Q.21 In a certain code language, ‘EXAM’ is coded as ‘3579’ and ‘HAME’ is coded as ‘5327’.
What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 7

3. 5

4. 3

Q.22 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(46, 2208, 24)
(4, 192, 24)
Ans 1. (37, 451, 6)

2. (7, 245, 17)

3. (39, 546, 7)

4. (24, 967, 20)

Q.23 Each of the digits in the number 7231456 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.24 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
78 × 2 − 2 + 12 ÷ 6 × 5 + 4 ÷ 4 × 24 = ?
Ans 1. 124

2. 148

3. 154

4. 136

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m
.co
Q.25 Seven people, I, J, K, L, P, Q and R are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit
m
to the left of R. Only three people sit between R and L. I sits second to the right of R.

. co Only two people sit between I and Q. K sits at some place to the right of J but at some
place to the left of P.
s e m
m a
se l
How many people sit to the right of K?
Ans 1. Three
ag
2. Two

3. Four

4. One

Q.26 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

JUN : HRP
m
.co
QWJ : OTL

m
.co
Ans 1. JTE : HQH

em
2. UTM : SRO

e m l as
3. HXB : FUE

l as ag
ag
4. GSK : EPM

Q.27 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘÷’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

27 × 11 − 3 ÷ 56 + 2 = ?
Ans 1. 22

2. 41

3. 34

m
.co
4. 26

Q.28
e m
Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?
las
Ans
OIX 28 MLT 17 ? IRL -5 GUH -16
1. KOP 6
ag
2. KOQ 8

3. KNP 8

4. KNO 6

Q.29 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

m
.co
ZXW 21 USR 20 PNM 18 KIH 15 ?
m
.co m
Ans 1. FEC 11

m s e
s e
2. FDC 11

g l a
g l a 3. GDC 10
a
a 4. FED 10

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.30 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pins are bugs.
All pins are lamps.

Conclusions:
(I): Some bugs are lamps.
(II): All lamps are pins.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 04/09/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Infrastructure development is essential for sustaining high growth and reducing
regional disparities. Which of the following sectors is NOT typically included in the core
infrastructure sectors in India?
Ans 1. Cement

2. Tourism

3. Electricity

4. Iron and Steel
m
Q.2
m .co
In which of the following years was the town of Madrasapatnam, which later expanded

s e
and developed into modern-day Chennai, purchased by the East India Company (EIC)

la
from local kings?
Ans 1. 1639
ag
2. 1690

3. 1620

4. 1658

Q.3 Which of the following services is jointly controlled by both the Union and State
Governments?
Ans 1. State Medical Service

m
.co
2. Indian Economic Service

m
.co m
3. Central Engineering Service

m s e
a
4. Indian Administrative Service

s e g l
g l a Q.4 Which missile defence system, named Sudarshan Chakra, was used by India to a
a Ans
intercept drones and missiles during Pakistan’s attempted strikes in May 2025?
1. Prithvi Air Defence

2. Akashteer

3. S-400 systems

4. Barak 8

Q.5 Which copper-based alloy is a preferred material for making standard resistors because
of its high resistivity and low temperature coefficient?

m .
.co
Ans 1. Alnico

e m
2. Manganin

em l as
3. Tungsten
las ag

4. Brass
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.6 At the time of independence, India's economy was predominantly:
Ans 1. service-based

2. agricultural

3. industrial

4. trade-based

Q.7 Which pair of scientists first proposed the double-helix model for the structure of DNA?
Ans 1. Darwin and Wallace

2. Mendel and Avery

3. Watson and Crick

4. Franklin and Chargaff

Q.8 Which of the following is located in the west of the Deccan Plateau?
Ans 1. Mahadeo hills

2. Western Ghats

3. Maikal range

4. Eastern Ghats

Q.9 The World Meteorological Organization's (WMO) report, Global Annual to Decadal
Climate Update (2025-2029), warns that the Earth’s average temperature may rise by
how much above pre-industrial levels?
Ans 1. 2.5°C to 3.0°C

2. 1.2°C to 1.9°C

3. 0.8°C to 1.2°C

4. 2.0°C to 2.5°C

Q.10 What was the main focus of India’s Second Five Year Plan with respect to the economy?
Ans 1. Heavy industrialisation

2. Expansion of services

3. Promotion of tourism

4. Green revolution

Q.11 Which shortcut key combination allows you to quickly switch between open
applications on a Windows computer?
Ans 1. Alt + Tab

2. Alt + F4

3. Alt + Del

4. Ctrl + Tab

Q.12 Who among the following is known for popularising Bharatanatyam on the global
stage?
Ans 1. Mallika Sarabhai

2. Sonal Mansingh

3. Hema Malini

4. Rukmini Devi Arundale

Q.13 Which of the following statements about succession in the Gupta dynasty is true?
Ans 1. Sons had to prove their eligibility before an assembly

2. The eldest son was always crowned Yuvraj at priority

3. Only the eldest son could become king

4. The ruler always declared himself divine to get the throne

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m
.co
Q.14 Who piloted Vasco da Gama’s ship to Calicut during his first successful voyage to India
m
in 1498?

. co
Ans 1. Francisco Xavier
s e m
m a
se l
2. Zamorin

3. Abdul Majid
ag
4. De Almeida

Q.15 The indigenous inhabitants of India who were hostile, dark skinned and did not follow
the Vedic system are referred to in Vedic texts as:
Ans 1. Dasyus

2. Dasas

3. Dravidas
m
4. Aryans
m .co
Q.16
m .co
A small portion of the Singrauli Coalfield, which is located mainly in the Singrauli
s em
s e
district of Madhya Pradesh, falls in which other State?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Chhattisgarh
ag
ag
2. Jharkhand

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Odisha

Q.17 Which of the following countries does NOT share a land border with India?
Ans 1. Afghanistan

2. Bhutan

m
.co
3. Thailand

4. Myanmar

e m
Q.18
las
In which of the following national parks were eight African cheetahs translocated from

Ans
Namibia in September 2022?
1. Banni grasslands ag
2. Kuno National Park

3. Mukundara Tiger Reserve

4. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary

Q.19 Who launched the e-SeHAT application for accessible digital healthcare?
Ans 1. Bhupendra Patel

m
.co
2. Hemant Soren
m
.co m
3. Pema Khandu

m s e
s e
4. Omar Abdullah

g l a
g l a Q.20 A user wants to rename multiple files in a folder on Windows. What is the correct a
a Ans
approach to do this efficiently?
1. Open each file and save it with a new name

2. Select all files → Right-click → Rename → Type a base name

3. Drag files to another folder and rename them there

4. Press Ctrl + Alt + R to rename all files

Q.21 Which state hosted the 7th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games in 2025?
Ans 1. Bihar
m .
2. Karnataka
.co s e m
3. Gujarat
s em l a
4. Maharashtra
g la ag
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Q.22 Who launched Prismix, an AI-driven media company?
Ans 1. Salman Khan

2. Amir Khan

3. Ajay Devgn

4. Shahrukh Khan

Q.23 Which organisation released the State of the World’s Children report, 2025?
Ans 1. UNDP

2. UNESCO

3. UNICEF

4. WHO

Q.24 Who was named Songwriter of the Year at the 2025 Ivor Novello Awards, held at
Grosvenor House, London?
Ans 1. Ed Sheeran

2. Sam Smith

3. RAYE

4. Charli XCX

Q.25 Which social activist was awarded the Rammohan Acarya Sanman 2025 for service to
rural tribal communities?
Ans 1. Medha Patkar

2. Aruna Roy

3. Parbati Mahato

4. Irom Sharmila

Q.26 According to Article 130 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi
or in such other place or places as may be appointed by:
Ans 1. the President, in consultation with the Prime Minister

2. the Parliament, through legislation

3. the Union Cabinet, with advice from the Law Ministry

4. the Chief Justice of India, with the approval of the President

Q.27 Manganese nodules are primarily found on:
Ans 1. river deltas

2. ocean beds

3. glacier surfaces

4. mountain slopes

Q.28 Who is regarded as the chief architect of India’s Green Revolution?
Ans 1. Dr. Manmohan Singh

2. PV Narasimha Rao

3. Dr. Verghese Kurien

4. MS Swaminathan

Q.29 Which Article establishes the office of the President?
Ans 1. Article 75

2. Article 53

3. Article 74

4. Article 52

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m
.co
Q.30 Which of the following Schedules deals with the administration and control of
m
Scheduled Areas and Tribes?

. co
Ans 1. Ninth
s e m
m a
se l
2. Sixth

3. Fifth
ag
4. Seventh

Q.31 On May 20, 2025, the Supreme Court reinstated which requirement for candidates
aspiring to become civil judges (junior division)?
Ans 1. Mandatory Ph.D. in Law

2. Three years of legal practice experience

3. Minimum age of 30 years
m
m
4. Passing a national-level judicial service exam
.co
Q.32
m .co
September [2024] the Atacama Desert, where construction of the Extremely Large
s em
s e
Telescope (ELT) is underway, is located in which country?
l a
Ans 1. Chile
l a ag
ag
2. Argentina

3. Peru

4. Bolivia

Q.33 How is the vast distance between galaxies measured?
Ans 1. In light years

2. In seconds

m
.co
3. In miles

4. In kilometres

e m
Q.34
las
Which Indian leader emphasised a 'Nation First' ethos during a seminar in Lucknow in

Ans
May 2025?
1. Amit Shah ag
2. Rajnath Singh

3. Narendra Modi

4. Yogi Adityanath

Q.35 Murlikant Rajaram Petkar of Maharashtra was awarded with Arjuna Award 2024 in which
of the following fields?
Ans 1. Shooting
m
m
2. Para-Swimming
.co
m.co 3. Swimming
s e m
s e 4. Para-Shooting
g l a
g l a a
a Q.36 What does VLSRSAM stand for, which was successfully tested by the Indian Navy and
Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) in 2025?
Ans 1. Vertical-Launch Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile

2. Variable Launch Strategic Recon Missile

3. Very Large Surface Recon Air Missile

4. Versatile Launch System for Rocket Missiles

Q.37 Which of the following gases is released when baking soda reacts with vinegar?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Carbon dioxide

s e
em
2. Carbon monoxide

s l a
la ag
3. Ammonia


4. Hydrogen
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 37 of 48

Q.38 Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution added Article 39A (free legal aid)?
Ans 1. 86th Amendment

2. 44th Amendment

3. 73rd Amendment

4. 42nd Amendment

Q.39 Hool Diwas is celebrated on June 30 every year in India to commemorate the Santhal
Hool (rebellion) of _________.
Ans 1. 1840

2. 1855

3. 1845

4. 1850

Q.40 The Warli painting tradition gained international recognition, largely due to the efforts of
which of the following renowned painters?
Ans 1. Jivya Soma Mashe

2. MF Husain

3. Amrita Sher-Gil

4. SH Raza

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 3% per month in 5 months.
Ans 1. 15

2. 35

3. 30

4. 180

Q.2 A shopkeeper offers a scheme discount of 'Buy goods worth ₹6000 and get ₹1000 worth
of goods free'. What is the effective discount percentage (rounded off to two decimals)?
Ans 1. 12%

2. 16.67%

3. 20%

4. 14.29%

Q.3 Rupesh got an increase of 4% in his sales amount in the first year and 25% in the
second year; also with this, his current sales are ₹1,35,200, what was his sales (in ₹)
two years ago?
Ans 1. ₹84,000

2. ₹1,04,000

3. ₹1,30,000

4. ₹1,08,160

Q.4 A trader claims to sell spices at a profit of 68%, but also dishonestly uses a weight
which is 12% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit
earned by the trader. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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m
.co
Q.5
m
. co s e m
m a
se l
Ans 1.

2.
ag
3.

4.

Q.6 Shifa can do a certain piece of work in 20 days. Shifa and Afiya can together do the
same work in 12 days, and Shifa, Afiya and Mariyam can do the same work together in 9
days. In how many days can Shifa and Mariyam do the same work together?
Ans
1.
m
m .co
2.
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
3.
ag
4.

Q.7 Shahid and Mira have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Shahid is
driving at 132 km/hr while Mira is driving at 60 km/hr. Find the time taken by Mira to
reach Kanpur if Shahid takes 5 hours.
Ans 1. 4 hours
m
.co
2. 8 hours

3. 11 hours
e m
4. 1 hours
las
Q.8 ag
6 years ago, the age of a father was 40 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 30

2. 37

3. 33

4. 34

m
.co
Q.9 An amount of ₹456 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 16 : 14 : 8. The

m
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:

.co m
Ans 1. 48

m s e
s e 2. 120

g l a
g l a 3. 96
a
a 4. 133

Q.10 A number when increased by 100% gives 2690. The number is:
Ans 1. 2690

2. 672.5

3. 1345

4. 4035

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.11 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 19 days and B can do the same
job in 15 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 3 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 3 years. In how
many years will it amount to 27 times of itself?
Ans 1. 9 years

2. 3 years

3. 17 years

4. 11 years

Q.13 Ishan bought some pens at the rate of ₹150/dozen. He sold them for ₹17 each. His profit
percentage is ______%.
Ans 1. 38

2. 36

3. 40

4. 34

Q.14 If the third proportional of 8 and 56 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 392

2. 394

3. 390

4. 393

Q.15 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80, and the
third number is 103. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.
Ans 1. 184

2. 196

3. 197

4. 183

Q.16

Ans 1. 16.52

2. 11.78

3. 3.21

4. 8.04

Q.17 The sum of two numbers is 81 and their L.C.M. is 420. What are the two numbers?
Ans 1. 14, 67

2. 26, 55

3. 19, 62

4. 21, 60

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m
.co
Q.18 M and N started a business. M invested ₹66,000 more than N for 5 months, while N
m
invested for 7 months. M's share is ₹205 more than that of N, out of a total profit of

. co ₹3,895. Find the capital contributed by M.

s e m
m Ans 1. ₹1,84,910
a
se 2. ₹1,84,849
ag l
3. ₹1,84,800

4. ₹1,84,602

Q.19 The sum of two numbers is 115 and their L.C.M. is 600. What are the two numbers?
Ans 1. 38, 77

2. 45, 70

3. 33, 82
m
4. 40, 75
m .co
Q.20
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Ans 1. 38

2. 29

3. 37

4. 46

Q.21 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 30. The greater of the two numbers
is:
Ans 1. 12

2. 3
m
3. 6

m .co
4. 24
s e
g la
Q.22
a
Aryan has to reach Ahmedabad which is 977 km away in 11 hours. His starting speed
for 4 hours was 39 km/hr. For the next 140 km his speed was 35 km/hr. By what speed
he must travel now so as to reach Ahmedabad in the decided time of 11 hours?
Ans 1. 227 km/hr

2. 231 km/hr

3. 221 km/hr

4. 229 km/hr

Q.23 Find the area of a triangle whose sides are of lengths 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm.
m
Ans
m
1. 32.5 cm2
.co
m.co 2. 78 cm2
s e m
s e 3. 30 cm 2

g l a
g l a 4. 60 cm2 a
a Q.24
.

Ans 1. 103x + 108

2. 103x − 108

3. −103x − 108

4. −103x + 108
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.25 The LCM of the numbers 14.2 and 0.05 is:
Ans 1. 142

2. 1.42

3. 0.142

4. 14.2

Q.26 The marked price of a ceiling fan is ₹2,500. During off season, it is sold for ₹1,360. Find
the discount percentage.
Ans 1. 44.5%

2. 45%

3. 45.6%

4. 42%

Q.27 The LCM of the numbers 10.8 and 0.06 is:
Ans 1. 108

2. 1.08

3. 10.8

4. 0.108

Q.28 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 44. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 14 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.
Ans 1. 36.91

2. 33.91

3. 35.91

4. 34.91

Q.29 The sum of all interior angles of a regular polygon is equal to twice the sum of all its
exterior angles. The number of sides of the polygon is:
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 3

4. 8

Q.30 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 19% and its height is
increased by 122%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its
volume?
Ans 1. 33%

2. 40%

3. 50%

4. 46%

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Sophie starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards south. She then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns left and drives 5 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 6 km. She
takes a final right turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 18 km towards south

2. 22 km towards south

3. 18 km towards east

4. 22 km towards north

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m
.co
Q.2 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. SV-YD
ag
2. BE-HM

3. DG-JO

4. FI-LO

Q.3 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the pair in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.

m
.co
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down

m
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as

.co m
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
m s e
s e l a
ag
96, 12
184, 23
l a
Ans 1. 164, 20

2. 144, 18
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3. 172, 21

4. 130, 16

Q.4 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing the north. Only five
people sit to the left of B. Only five people sit to the right of A. C sits to the immediate
left of F but right of D. E does not sit to the right of D. How many people sit to the right
of G?
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Ans 1. Five

2. Zero
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3. Three
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4. Four
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Q.5 If 1 is added for each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit of the number
56218643, how many digits are repeated more than once in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. Three

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4. One

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Q.6
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
s e m
s e known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
g l a
g l a statements.
a
a Statements:
All fans are lights.
No fan is a bulb.

Conclusions:
(I) No light is an bulb.
(II) No bulb is a fan.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.
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4. Both conclusions I and II follow.
s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.7 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

PHZ 3, SKC 7, VNF 15, YQI 31, BTL 63, ?
Ans 1. EWO 127

2. FWO 127

3. EHO 127

4. EWO 128

Q.8 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

HARD - AHRD - DRAH
ITEM - TIEM - METI
Ans 1. WENT - EWNT - TENW

2. DUSK - UDSK - KSUD

3. BITE - BTIE - ETIB

4. LONG - OLNG - ONGL

Q.9 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pins are bricks.
All pins are rulers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some bricks are rulers.
(II) All rulers are pins.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.10 Yusif starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards North. He then takes a left turn, drives
4 km, turns left and drives 11 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 5 km. He takes a
final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns
only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 1 km to the West

2. 1 km to the East

3. 2 km to the North

4. 2 km to the South

Q.11 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 / \ < > 2 5 $ % + 6 3 / 6 5 6 9 3 @ < & (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by another
number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. One

4. Three

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m
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Q.12 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
given series to make it logically complete?

. co GNU 11, DKR 21, AHO 41, XEL 81, UBI 161, ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. RYF 320

2. ROF 321 ag l
3. YYF 321

4. RYF 321

Q.13 In a row of 172 students facing north, Mr. Maxi is 21st from the right end. If Mr. Han is
61st to the left of Mr. Maxi, what is Mr. Han's position from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. 91st

2. 92nd
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3. 90th

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4. 93 rd

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Q.14
l as
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
ag
Ans
48 69 94 123 156 ?
1. 223
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2. 213

3. 193

4. 203

Q.15 Seven people D, E, F, G, H, I and O are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre

m
of the table. Only one person sits between H and O when counted from the left of O. I

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sits third to the right of D. F sits third to the left of E. I sits to the immediate right of F. G
is not an immediate neighbour of F. How many people sit between G and O when
counted from the right of G?
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Ans 1. One

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2. Three

3. Two
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4. Four

Q.16 If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit of the number
56218643, how many digits are repeated more than once in the new number formed?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

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3. Three

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4. None

m s e
s e
Q.17 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
g l a
g l a are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group? a
a (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. QU-YE

2. MI-QW

3. GK-OU

4. VZ-DJ

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.18 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

FCV : KZQ
ZQB : ENW
Ans 1. MUV : QPZ

2. PWL : UTG

3. YNQ : BIT

4. FLH : KHM

Q.19 In a certain code language,
'A = B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A ¥ B' means ‘A is the father of B’,
'A # B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
'A % B' means ‘A is the sister of B’.

How is B related to S if 'B ¥ O % A = T # S'?
Ans 1. Wife's mother

2. Wife's father

3. Wife's brother

4. Wife's sister

Q.20 Seven boxes I, J, K, L, M, N and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only L is kept above M. Only P is kept between M and J. Only N is kept
below K. How many boxes are kept between I and N?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Two

Q.21 In a certain code language, 'youth shirt knife' is coded as 'nv to wh' and 'shirt son night'
is coded as 'ch rb to'. How is 'shirt' coded in the given code language?
Ans 1. nv

2. wh

3. to

4. ch

Q.22 All 119 students in a class are standing in a straight line facing north. Tika is 20th
from the right end while Vishnu is 29th from the left end. How many people stand
between Tika and Vishnu?
Ans 1. 70

2. 71

3. 72

4. 69

Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

92 83 74 ? 56 47 38
Ans 1. 67

2. 62

3. 65

4. 69

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m
.co
Q.24 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. co that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. JNT
ag
2. CGM

3. WAG

4. NRY

Q.25 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 6 12 36 ? 720
Ans 1. 108
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2. 120
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3. 172
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s e l a
ag
4. 144

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Q.26
ag
Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
EGO : FHP
WSD : XTE
Ans 1. POI : QPK

2. TYC : UZE

3. JUG : KVI

4. CUT : DVU

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Q.27 Each of the digits in the number 7841236 is arranged in ascending order from left to

m
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
s e
la
Ans 1. None

2. Three
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3. One

4. Two

Q.28 In a certain code language, ‘ALSO’ is coded as ‘4367’ and ‘SLOT’ is coded as ‘2347’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 7
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3. 3
m
m.co 4. 2

s e m
s e
Q.29 If 2 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
g l a
g l a 4792536, what will be the sum of all the even digits in the new number thus formed?
a
a Ans 1. 16

2. 18

3. 14

4. 12

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.30 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 781 752 642 105 864 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(Note: All operations to be done from left to right.)

In how many of the given numbers is the third digit of a number a factor of the first digit
as well as second digit of the same number?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. None

4. Three

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