RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 01 Sep (in English)

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RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 01 Sep

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 01/09/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 After his election as the first American pope, what papal name did Cardinal Robert
Prevost choose?
Ans 1. Pope Leo XIV

2. Pope John XXIV

3. Pope Benedict XVII

4. Pope Francis II

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Q.2
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Which of the following is the correct terminology for the gap between two neurons
where they communicate?
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Ans 1. Node gap
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2. Synaptic cleft
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3. Dendritic cleft a
4. Axonal gap

Q.3 Which farming type involves small landholdings, simple tools, and production mainly
consumed by farmers and their families in India?
Ans 1. Plantation farming

2. Commercial farming

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3. Commercial grain farming

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4. Subsistence farming

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Q.4 m
Which type of natural vegetation in India is known for forests with hardwood trees such
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l as as sal, teak, and bamboo?
ag
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2. Thorn forests

3. Tropical evergreen forests

4. Montane forests

Q.5 Which memory is non-volatile, meaning it retains data even after the computer is turned
off?
Ans 1. Virtual Memory

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2. Cache Memory

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3. ROM

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4. RAM

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Q.6 During which of the following seasons was the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme
launched to protect the farmers against crop losses suffered on account of natural
calamities such as droughts, floods, hailstorms, cyclones, pests and diseases?
Ans 1. Rabi 1999-2000

2. Kharif 2001-2002

3. Rabi 2005-2006

4. Kharif 1998-1999

Q.7 The 'Keel Laying' ceremony of the first of the five Fleet Support Ships (FSS) for the
Indian Navy was held at which place in November 2024?
Ans 1. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd., Cochin

2. Hindustan Shipyard Ltd., Visakhapatnam

3. Goa Shipyard Limited

4. ABG Shipyard Ltd., Mumbai

Q.8 Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in British India?
Ans 1. Lord Dalhousie

2. Lord Wellesley

3. Thomas Munro

4. Lord Cornwallis

Q.9 ____________ is a classical dance form characterised by elaborate facial makeup,
colourful costumes, and themes from Hindu epics, mainly performed by male dancers.
Ans 1. Kathak

2. Kathakali

3. Bharatanatyam

4. Mohiniyattam

Q.10 Which company signed a ₹1,220 crore deal for Software Defined Radios with Defence
Ministry in February 2025?
Ans 1. Bharat Electronics Limited

2. Reliance Naval Systems

3. Hindustan Shipyard

4. L&T

Q.11 Which archaeological site shows pit dwellings and evidence of domesticated dogs
during the Neolithic period?
Ans 1. Chirand

2. Burzahom

3. Koldihwa

4. Hallur

Q.12 In January 2025, the Gujarat government declared the 'Inland Mangrove of Guneri',
located in which district, as its first Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS)?
Ans 1. Morbi

2. Kutch

3. Vadodara

4. Rajkot

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Q.13 Infrastructure has been a key pillar for sustained growth. Which initiative was launched
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in 2020 to coordinate infrastructure projects in India?

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Ans 1. Digital India
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2. Make in India

3. PM Gati Shakti
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4. Bharatmala Pariyojana

Q.14 During the Revolt of 1857, Rani Laxmibai led the rebellion from:
Ans 1. Faizabad

2. Kanpur

3. Awadh

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4. Jhansi

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Q.15
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Who among the following decides the allocation of portfolios among Indian state
ministers?
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Ans 1. Prime Minister

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2. Governor

3. Chief Minister

4. Chief Justice of the High Court

Q.16 As per April 2025 announcement, CRPF decided to raise which battalion for counter
terror operation in Jammu and Kashmir?
Ans 1. Garud Commando Force

2. Special Frontier Force (SFF)

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3. Para (Special Forces)

4. CoBRA Battalion

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Q.17
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Which of the following cases CANNOT be taken up by a Lok Adalat?
Ans 1. Non-compoundable criminal offences
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2. Land acquisition cases

3. Motor accident claims

4. Divorce disputes under mutual consent

Q.18 In which of the following years did Edward, Prince of Wales visit India on behalf of his
father King George V, to thank the nation for the essential role it had played during the
First World War?
Ans 1. 1921
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2. 1920
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a Q.19 Which of the following countries withdrew from the OCED Global Tax Deal in January
2025?
Ans 1. Russia

2. India

3. USA

4. China

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Q.20 DIGIPIN, an open-source nationwide geo-coded addressing system, is an alphanumeric
code of how many characters based on latitude and longitude coordinates?
Ans 1. 6 characters

2. 8 characters

3. 12 characters

4. 10 characters

Q.21 As announced in January 2025, which Indian pharmaceutical company is set to
manufacture Paracetamol domestically?
Ans 1. Ajanta Pharmaceuticals

2. Satya Deeptha Pharmaceuticals

3. Alkem Laboratories

4. Lupin

Q.22 Which of the following exercises was jointly conducted by the Indian Army and NDRF
on May 2025 as a large-scale humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR)
simulation?
Ans 1. Prakampana

2. Raahat

3. Shakti

4. Mitra Shakti

Q.23 The International Date Line approximately follows which meridian?
Ans 1. 90° E

2. 180°

3. 75° W

4. 0°

Q.24 Which example best reflects the need for the Constitution in daily life?
Ans 1. Celebrating national festivals

2. Resolving a family dispute

3. Buying groceries from a local store

4. Class deciding rules for representation and resource sharing

Q.25 Which of the following players broke National Record in Women’s 3000 m steeplechase
at Doha Diamond League 2025 and qualified for the World Athletics Championships?
Ans 1. Parul Chaudhary

2. Chaitali Borekar

3. Garima Yadav

4. Ekta Pradeep Dey

Q.26 A primary goal of LPG reforms was macroeconomic stabilisation. Which indicator
improved significantly post-1991 reforms?

Ans 1. Revenue deficit

2. Foreign exchange reserves

3. Fiscal deficit

4. Rural unemployment

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Q.27 What is a key obligation of citizens toward fellow citizens and society?
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Ans 1. Serve in the military automatically and responsibly

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m 2. Participate morally and socially, not just legally
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4. Maintain political silence responsibly

Q.28 Seasonal unemployment is common in rural economies. Which sector in India
experiences the most seasonal unemployment?
Ans 1. Transport

2. Information technology

3. Agriculture

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4. Manufacturing

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Q.29
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What type of pressure develops over the Indian subcontinent during the summer,
attracting monsoon winds?
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Ans 1. Anti-cyclonic high over land

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2. Low pressure over land

3. High pressure over land

4. Cyclonic high over land

Q.30 Which type of reaction is involved in the rusting of iron?
Ans 1. Displacement

2. Redox

3. Combination
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4. Decomposition

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Q.31
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In which year was the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) formed under the
Disaster Management Act of 2005?
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Ans 1. 2005
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2. 2007

3. 2006

4. 2004

Q.32 Which Constitutional Amendment added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' to
the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. 42nd Amendment
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2. 38th Amendment
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3. 52nd Amendment

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g l a Q.33 Who among the following was the first Indian athlete to win an Olympic gold medal? a
a Ans 1. Abhinav Bindra

2. Milkha Singh

3. Neeraj Chopra

4. KD Jadhav

Q.34 On May 20, 2025, the Supreme Court has made minimum how many years of legal
practice mandatory for entry into the judicial service?

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Ans 1. 2 years

2. 4 years
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3. 5 years
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4. 3 years
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Q.35 Which of the following substances is classified as an elastomer?
Ans 1.
Tissue in Veins

2.
Tissue in Kidney

3. Tissue in Pancreas

4. Tissue of Aorta

Q.36 As in May 2025, who was the Chairman of the National Highways Authority of India
(NHAI)?
Ans 1. Santosh Kumar Yadav

2. Shri Alok Deepankar

3. Vishal Chauhan

4. Anil Choudhary

Q.37 Which of the following is NOT an epigraphic record for the reign of King Harsha?
Ans 1. Banskhera Copper Plate

2. Nalanda Seals

3. Muzaffarnagar Seals

4. Aihole Inscription

Q.38 Which city hosted the inaugural World Audio Visual & Entertainment Summit (WAVES)
in May 2025?
Ans 1. Bengaluru

2. Mumbai

3. Hyderabad

4. Chennai

Q.39 Who among the following was conferred with a Padma Vibhushan Award 2025
(Posthumous) in the field of literature in April 2025?
Ans 1. Shri Shekhar Kapur

2. Shri MT Vasudevan Nair

3. Dr. Duvvur Nageshwar Reddy

4. Shri Nandamuri Balakrishna

Q.40 What does CPU stand for in computer systems?
Ans 1. Central Processing Unit

2. Control Processing Unit

3. Computer Processing Unit

4. Central Program Unit

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-2) × 7
Ans 1. -32

2. -31

3. -28

4. -29

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Q.2
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1.
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2.

3.

4.

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Q.3
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Which of the following numbers divides 54,10,96,943?
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Ans 1. 103

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2. 97
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3. 87
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4. 107
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Q.4

Ans
1.

2.

3.
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Q.5
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A product is marked at ₹7,500. Two successive discounts of 8% and 5% are offered.
What is the final selling price?
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Ans 1. a
2.

3.

4.

Q.6

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Ans
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1. 100x + 126
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a Q.7 The selling price of 50 books is equal to the cost price of 16 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage.
Ans
1.

2. 68% gain

3. 68% loss

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Q.8 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 29°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 25°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 100°

2. 86°

3. 93°

4. 90°

Q.9 An open metallic box is 60 cm long, 40 cm wide and 23 cm high. Its thickness is 3 cm. If
1 cm3 of metal used in the box weighs 0.5 grams, find the weight (in kg) of the box.
Ans 1. 8.46

2. 9.24

3. 10.82

4. 10.42

Q.10 M and N start a business. M invests ₹39,000 more than N for 4 months and N invests for
7 months. M's share is ₹508 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹4,064. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹70,322

2. ₹70,391

3. ₹70,243

4. ₹70,200

Q.11 On a marked price of ₹5,000, a dealer offers successive discounts of 10% and 5%. Find
the selling price.
Ans 1. ₹4,320

2. ₹4,250

3. ₹4,280

4. ₹4,275

Q.12 The population of a district is 374000, out of which 165000 are males. 21% of the
population is literate. If 40% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
literate?
Ans 1. 8%

2. 6%

3. 7%

4. 5%

Q.13 Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 16 minutes and 32 minutes, respectively.
There is a pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are
opened simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 12 minutes. How long will
the pipe at the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other
pipe is then open?
Ans 1. 192 minutes

2. 144 minutes

3. 160 minutes

4. 96 minutes

Q.14 Find the mean proportional of 490 and 10.
Ans 1. 70

2. 67

3. 68

4. 71

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Q.15 Find the value of: [616 ÷ {26 + 9 × ( 5 − 7 )}].
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Ans 1. 78

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4. 82

Q.16 The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members, whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg,
56 kg, 74 kg, and 39 kg, is:
Ans 1. 52.6

2. 50.6

3. 53.6

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4. 51.6

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Q.17
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A, B and C started a business investing ₹1,340, ₹1,100 and ₹2,440, respectively. If B's

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share in the profit earned by them is ₹814, what is the difference in the profit (in ₹)
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earned by A and C?
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Ans 1. ₹811
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2. ₹815
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3. ₹816

4. ₹814

Q.18 The sum of two numbers is 84 and their L.C.M. is 120. What are the two numbers?
Ans 1. 65, 19

2. 60, 24

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3. 53, 31

4. 58, 26

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Q.19 The LCM of the numbers 5.1 and 0.102 is:
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Ans 1. 51
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2. 5.1

3. 0.51

4. 0.051

Q.20

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Ans 1. ₹1,46,429
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2. ₹1,46,416

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g l a 4. ₹1,46,404
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a Q.21 The average price of three items of furniture is ₹ 16860. If their prices are in the ratio
3:5:7, the price of the costliest item (in ₹) is
Ans 1. 23604

2. 7868

3. 10116

4. 5620

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Q.22 Amit bought some erasers at the rate of ₹150 a dozen. He sold them for ₹42 each. His
profit percentage is ______%.
Ans 1. 236

2. 240

3. 234

4. 238

Q.23 What is the area (rounded off to the nearest integer) of a triangle whose three sides
measure 11 cm, 15 cm and 16 cm?
Ans 1. 79 cm2

2. 82 cm2

3. 84 cm2

4. 87 cm2

Q.24 In covering a distance of 60 km, Pranay takes 6 hours more than Aman. If Pranay
doubles his speed, then he would take 9 hours less than Aman. Pranay's speed is:
Ans 1. 12 km/hr

2. 2 km/hr

3. 11 km/hr

4. 9 km/hr

Q.25

Ans 1. 26.75

2. 23.75

3. 29.75

4. 27.75

Q.26 5 years ago, the age of a father was 11 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 10

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

Q.27 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 4
months.
Ans 1. ₹16

2. ₹32

3. ₹36

4. ₹192

Q.28 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 600. The greater of the two numbers
is:
Ans 1. 31

2. 25

3. 40

4. 16

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Q.29 A man riding on a bicycle at a speed of 24 km/hr crosses a bridge in 3.1 minutes. Find
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the length of the bridge.

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Ans 1. 0.34 km
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2. 1.24 km

3. 0.62 km
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4. 1.64 km

Q.30 Pipe A can fill a tank in 20 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 25 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 10 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

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2.

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3.
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4.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

72 × 3 − 8 ÷ 5 + 31 = ?
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Ans 1. 33

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2. 35
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3. 37
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4. 31 a
Q.2 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ICWS

2. DXRN
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3. KFYU
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4. NHBX

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Q.3 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
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g l a 8147563, what will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second
from the right? a
a Ans 1. 14

2. 4

3. 10

4. 6

Q.4 MJRN is related to KHPL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, PMUQ is related to NKSO. To which of the given options is SPXT related,

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following the same logic?

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Ans 1. NQRV

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2. QNRV

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3. NQVR

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4. QNVR
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Q.5 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. D is kept immediately above A. G is kept immediately above B. Only E is
kept above C. Only two boxes are kept above D. G is not kept at the third position from
the bottom. How many boxes are kept above G?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

4. 2

Q.6 I is the daughter of X. K is the son of R. X is married to Z. Z is the mother of N. F is
married to R. F is the brother of X. How is X related to K?
Ans 1. Father's father

2. Mother's brother

3. Father's brother

4. Father

Q.7 Town P is to the south of Town Q. Town R is to the west of Town Q. Town S is to the
west of Town R. Town T is to the north of Town S and also to the south of Town U. What
is the position of Town U with respect to Town S?
Ans 1. West

2. East

3. South

4. North

Q.8 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PS−RU

2. YB−ZF

3. EH−GJ

4. IL−KN

Q.9 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

300, 194
315, 209
Ans 1. 272, 166

2. 255, 159

3. 288, 180

4. 240, 124

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘LOAN’ is coded as ‘4257’ and ‘NIKE’ is coded as ‘1346’.
What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 7

4. 4

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Q.11 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
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(Left) 512 648 729 378 462 (Right)

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(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

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What will be the resultant if the first digit of the lowest number is added to the third digit
of the highest number?
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 13

4. 11

Q.12 I, J, K, L, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
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P sits third to the left of K. O sits second to the left of J. Only K sits between Q and O. L

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is not an immediate neighbour of P.

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How many people sit between I and O when counted from the right of I?
Ans 1. One
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2. Four
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3. Three

4. Two

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

890 891 893 896 900 ?
Ans 1. 903

2. 906

3. 905
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4. 904

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Q.14 Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the

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same order. Z is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between Z and

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R. X is kept at one of the positions below Z. Only S is kept between R and Y. P is kept at
one of the positions above R. How many boxes are kept between Q and R?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Two

4. Three

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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56 58 63 73 90 ?
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.co m
Ans 1. 115

m s e
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2. 112

g l a
g l a 3. 114
a
a 4. 116

Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. CXZ

2. OJL

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3. ZTW

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4. IDF

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Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘learning is lifelong’ is written as ‘fk mb tb’ and ‘is school
over’ is coded as ‘jt mt fk’. How is ‘is’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. jt

2. tb

3. fk

4. mb

Q.18 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits third to
the left of G. C sits second to the left of B. F sits to the immediate right of D. E sits to
the immediate right of G. How many people sit between A and D when counted from the
left of A?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Two

Q.19 Bimal starts from Point Y and drives 44 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 56 km, turns right and drives 37 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 23 km.
He takes a right turn, drives 28 km. He then turns right, drives 38 km, turns left and
drives 53 km, turns right and drives 19 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 90 km towards west

2. 87 km towards east

3. 92 km towards east

4. 84 km towards south

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

UNA OHU IBO CVI ?
Ans 1. WSP

2. WPC

3. WPS

4. WCP

Q.21 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DLY 15, BJW 22, ZHU 29, XFS 36, ?
Ans 1. VDP 41

2. WER 43

3. VDQ 43

4. VER 42

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.co
Q.22 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
s e m
m a
se Statements:
ag l
Some crafts are handlooms.
All shawls are handlooms.

Conclusions:

(I) Some crafts are shawls.
(II) All handlooms are shawls.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
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3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
m s em
s e l a
Q.23
l a
Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
ag
ag
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 8 £ 1 7 & $ $ 7 # 4 1 8 9 @ 7 5 7 £ @ 2 & (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

m
4. 2

Q.24
m .co
DJMS is related to FORU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
e
same way, LDGA is related to NILC. To which of the given options is RSVG related,
s
la
following the same logic?
Ans 1. TAXI

2. TIXA ag
3. TXAI

4. TXSW

Q.25 Each of the digits in the number 2516984 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and third from the
right in the new number thus formed?

m
Ans 1. 12

m
2. 10
.co
m.co 3. 9
s e m
s e 4. 7
g l a
g l a a
a Q.26 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

ABLE - BLAE - ELBA
ITEM - TEIM - METI
Ans 1. SACK - ASCK - KACS

2. OPEN - OEPN - NEPO

3. SLOT - LOST - TOLS

4. CAME - AMCE - AMEC
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.27 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: Some laptops are computers. No computer is a mobile.

Conclusions (I): No laptop is a mobile.
Conclusions (II): Some laptops are mobile.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.28 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

191 192 196 205 221 ?
Ans 1. 231

2. 241

3. 236

4. 246

Q.29 Each of the digits in the number 5648321 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 5

4. 8

Q.30 In a row of certain number of people facing north, Rahul is sitting 245th from the left end
and 19th from the right end. What is the total number of people in that row?
Ans 1. 226

2. 236

3. 263

4. 264

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 01/09/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which year was the Second Pay Commission appointed in India?
Ans 1. 1957

2. 1965

3. 1962

4. 1950

m
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Q.2 Climatic maps are primarily based on data related to:
Ans 1. temperature and rainfall

e m
2. population growth

las
3. soil moisture content only

4. industrial zones ag
Q.3 Which country retained the top spot for the second consecutive year in the Henley
Passport Index released in January 2025?
Ans 1. Singapore

2. Japan

3. Germany

4. South Korea
m
m .co
Q.4
.co
On which river is the Bhakra Nangal Dam constructed?

m s e m
s
Ans
e
1. Ravi

g l a
g l a 2. Yamuna
a
a 3. Satluj

4. Ganga

Q.5 Gandhiji gave a call for a satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act in which of the following
years?
Ans 1. 1919

2. 1922

3. 1930

m .
.co m
4. 1915

s e
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), in collaboration
with which of the following universities, organised the symposium ‘India 2047: Building
a Climate-Resilient Future’ at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, in March 2025?
Ans 1. University College London

2. Harvard University

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology

4. University of Toronto

Q.7 In 2025, the United Nations called for peace talks between which two countries after
missile exchanges intensified their long-standing conflict?
Ans 1. Russia and Ukraine

2. North Korea and South Korea

3. Israel and Iran

4. India and Sri Lanka

Q.8 Which key is used to rename a file or folder in Windows?
Ans 1. F5

2. ESC + N

3. CTRL + N

4. F2

Q.9 Which eminent Kathak dancer from Gujarat was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2025
for her outstanding contributions to Indian classical dance?
Ans 1. Sonal Mansingh

2. Rukmini Devi

3. Mallika Sarabhai

4. Kumudini Lakhia

Q.10 According to the 2025 report by McKinsey & Company and BoF, by what percentage is
India's ultra-high-net-worth individual (UHNWI) population expected to grow by 2028?
Ans 1. 30%

2. 50%

3. 40%

4. 60%

Q.11 Who among the following Mughal rulers is considered to be the last powerful Mughal
ruler?
Ans 1. Dara Shukoh

2. Bahadur Shah Zafar

3. Shah Jahan

4. Aurangzeb

Q.12 Which Article was inserted into the Constitution by the 103rd Amendment Act to provide
for EWS reservation?
Ans 1. Article 14A and 16A

2. Article 15(6) and 16(6)

3. Article 21C and 22A

4. Article 18A and 19A

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Q.13 Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is provided under Article 40
m
of the Indian Constitution?

. co
Ans 1. Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas
s e m
m a
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2. Provision for a uniform civil code

3. Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry
ag
4. Organisation of village panchayats

Q.14 Vembanad Lake, India’s longest lake facing severe degradation, is located in which
state?
Ans 1. Assam, home to the Brahmaputra river basin

2. Kerala, known for its backwaters and lagoons

3. West Bengal, near the Sundarban mangrove forests
m
m
4. Odisha, famous for Chilika Lake ecosystem
.co
Q.15
m .co
Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. K

l a
ag
2. Rb

3. Li

4. Na

Q.16 Which Indian ministry has put in the public domain the Draft National Code Against Age
Fraud in Sports (NCAAFS) 2025 for inviting comments and suggestions from the
general public and stakeholders, as part of the consultation process in March 2025?
Ans 1. Ministry of Law and Justice

2. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
m
.co
3. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
e m
las
Q.17
g
In which of the following years was the National Telecom Policy (NTP), that envisaged
a
the objective of one public call office (PCO) for every 500 persons in the urban areas,
formulated?
Ans 1. 1992

2. 1999

3. 1994

4. 1997

Q.18 The Faraizi Movement was a religious reform movement of the 19th century in _______.
m
m .co
Ans 1. Bengal

m.co 2. Rajasthan

s e m
s e 3. Gujarat

g l a
g l a 4. Maharashtra
a
a Q.19 In which year was India’s first operational six-lane expressway, the approximately 95 km
long Mumbai–Pune Expressway, inaugurated?
Ans 1. 2002

2. 2000

3. 2004

4. 1998

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.20 Which of the following elements belongs to the s-block of the periodic table?
Ans 1. Iron

2. Chlorine

3. Calcium

4. Uranium

Q.21 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions the Council of Ministers to aid and
advise the President?
Ans 1. Article 74

2. Article 80

3. Article 85

4. Article 76

Q.22 Which river rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi
district?
Ans 1. Chenab river

2. Yamuna river

3. Bhagirathi river

4. Son river

Q.23 What was a major challenge faced by the Indian manufacturing sector after
liberalisation?
Ans 1. Increased competition from cheaper imports

2. High industrial licensing fees

3. Shortage of raw materials

4. Decline in capital inflow

Q.24 What is the function of the Alt + F4 shortcut?
Ans 1. Opens a new window

2. Closes the current window or application

3. Refreshes the browser

4. Saves the document

Q.25 Which of the following is an example of plasticity in plants?
Ans 1. Phototropism

2. Heterophylly

3. Vernalisation

4. Photoperiodism

Q.26 The Centre of Excellence on 'Classical and Quantum Communications for 6G'
inaugurated at IIT‑Madras in July 2024, functions under which umbrella programme?
Ans 1. SAMARQAND

2. IN-SPACe

3. Telecom Centres of Excellence (TCoE)‑India

4. MeitY FutureNET

Q.27 Which of the following Articles deals with the Right against Exploitation?
Ans 1. Articles 31–32

2. Articles 25–28

3. Articles 29–30

4. Articles 23–24

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.co
Q.28 In 2025, which State/UT's police launched the 'Shishtachar' squad to keep a check on
m
sexual harassment of women in public places?

. co
Ans 1. Delhi
s e m
m a
se l
2. Puducherry

3. Haryana
ag
4. Maharashta

Q.29 Unemployment reflects the inability of the economy to provide jobs to those willing to
work. Which organisation conducts the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in India?
Ans 1. Ministry of Labour and Employment

2. RBI (Reserve Bank of India)

3. NITI Aayog
m
m
4. NSO (National Statistical Office)
.co
Q.30
m .co
Buddha Purnima was celebrated on which date in 2025?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. 12 May

l a
ag
2. 23 March

3. 10 April

4. 19 February

Q.31 Which of the following statements is correct about Article 323B of the Constitution?
Ans 1. It permits tribunals for matters like taxation, land reforms, and labour disputes.

2. It allows the creation of tribunals only for the armed forces.

3. It restricts tribunals to environmental cases only.
m
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4. It empowers states to establish tribunals for local governance.

e m
Q.32
s
Which foreign trade relation was badly affected when Byzantium learned silk production
in the 6th century CE?
la
Ans 1. Indo-Roman trade
ag
2. Indo-Byzantine trade

3. Indo-Persian trade

4. Indo-Arab trade

Q.33 What is one key benefit of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) model shared at the
BRICS meeting in 2025?
Ans 1. Reducing financial exclusion
m
.co
2. Exporting digital gadgets
m
.co m
3. Promoting space exploration

m s e
s e 4. Increasing tax rates

g l a
g l a Q.34 Who among the following is a famous Indian classical dancer known for popularising a
a Ans
Bharatanatyam globally?
1. Hema Malini

2. Mallika Sarabhai

3. Sonal Mansingh

4. Rukmini Devi Arundale

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.35 Which of the following influential poets was renowned for employing ultabasi (also
written as ulatbansi), a distinctive poetic style characterised by paradoxes and
enigmas?
Ans 1. Kabir

2. Agyeya

3. Bal Krishna Sharma Naveen

4. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar

Q.36 Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent List?
Ans 1. Banking

2. Criminal law

3. Defence

4. Police

Q.37 Who won Best Supporting Actress for her role in Baby Reindeer at the BAFTA TV
Awards held at London's Royal Festival Hall in May 2025?
Ans 1. Jessica Gunning

2. Olivia Colman

3. Helena Bonham Carter

4. Lesley Manville

Q.38 Which of the following is a reason for the uneven distribution of rainfall in India during
the southwest monsoon?
Ans 1. Mountain ranges influence wind direction and intensity.

2. Monsoon winds blow equally everywhere.

3. The Himalayas stop all monsoon rainfall.

4. Southern states alone receive all rainfall.

Q.39 Which of the following is a classification of economic activities undertaken by the
Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in India?
Ans 1. Classification Code of India-2000

2. National Industrial Classification-1998

3. Industrial Classification Structure-2005

4. National Code for Agriculture and Industrial Classification-2009

Q.40 In 2025, which organisation has developed a new nanoporous multilayered polymeric
membrane for high-pressure seawater desalination?
Ans 1. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

2. Indian Institute of Science

3. Defence Research & Development Organisation

4. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 A number when increased by 100% gives 2760. The number is:
Ans 1. 2760

2. 4140

3. 690

4. 1380

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m
.co
Q.2
m
. co s e m
m a
se Ans 1.
ag l
2.

3.

4.

Q.3 M and N started a business. M invested ₹31,000 more than N for 2 months, while N
invested for 7 months. M's share is ₹139 more than that of N, out of a total profit of
₹5,977. Find the capital contributed by M.
Ans
m
1. ₹42,529

2. ₹42,625
m .co
3. ₹42,561

m .co s em
4. ₹42,441
s e l a
l a ag
Q.4
ag
Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 6
months.
Ans 1. ₹48

2. ₹24

3. ₹44

4. ₹288

Q.5 The cost of 9 pens and 14 pencils is ₹95. If the cost of a pen decreases by ₹3 and the

m
cost of a pencil increases by ₹7, then the cost of 9 pens and 3 pencils is ₹78. What is

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the original cost of 17 pens and 13 pencils?

m
Ans 1. ₹162

s e
la
2. ₹166

3. ₹169

4. ₹161
ag
Q.6

Ans 1. 79x − 92

2. 79x + 92
m
m
3. −79x + 92
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m.co 4. −79x − 92
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.7 The sides of a right-angled triangle are x cm, (x + 2) cm and (x + 4) cm, respectively. If
the area of the triangle is 24 cm2, find its perimeter (in cm). a
a Ans 1. 28

2. 24

3. 26

4. 30

Q.8

Ans 1.
m .
2.
.co s e m
3.
s em l a
4.
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.9

Ans 1. -42

2. -32

3. -41

4. -36

Q.10 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.

20, 20, 20, 19, 14, 18, 20, 12, 11, 17

The mode of the data is:
Ans 1. 20

2. 14

3. 19

4. 18

Q.11 The selling price of 40 books is equal to the cost price of 30 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage.
Ans 1. 25% loss

2.

3.

4. 25% gain

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6.75% per annum rate of interest deposited
on 24 February 2024 and withdrawn on 25 April 2024.
Ans 1. ₹46

2. ₹43

3. ₹44

4. ₹45

Q.13 Given that 950.53 = x, 950.83= y and xz = y8, then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 12.53

2. 13.4

3. 15.92

4. 11.75

Q.14 The population of a district is 342000, out of which 228000 are males. 44% of the
population is literate. If 59% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
literate?
Ans 1. 12%

2. 17%

3. 14%

4. 16%

Q.15 Train A leaves station M at 7:55 a.m. and reaches station N at 2:55 p.m. on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 9:55 a.m. and reaches station M at 2:55 p.m. on the same day.
Find the time when Trains A and B meet.
Ans 1. 1:49 a.m.

2. 4:08 p.m.

3. 4:48 p.m.

4. 12:00 p.m.
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.co
Q.16 If 79% of first number is equal to four-ninths of second number, what is the ratio of first
m
number to the second number?

. co
Ans 1. 400 : 711
s e m
m a
se l
2. 396 : 709

3. 404 : 716
ag
4. 399 : 706

Q.17 On the eve of new year, a branded washing machine is sold for ₹34,340 after allowing
15% discount. What is its marked price (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 44,500

2. 40,400

3. 45,400
m
4. 44,000
m .co
Q.18
m .co
The sum of two numbers is 52 and their LCM is 651. The two numbers are:
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. 36, 16

l a
ag
2. 24, 28

3. 29, 23

4. 31, 21

Q.19

Ans
m
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1.

2.
e m
las
3.
ag
4.

Q.20 Find the surface area of a sphere whose diameter is equal to 64 cm.
Ans 1. 4096π cm2

2. 4171π cm2

3. 3994π cm2
m
m .co
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4. 4044π cm2

e m
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Q.21
m l as
l as ag
ag
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 A tradesman marks his goods at 24% above the cost price. He allows his customer a
discount of 13% on the marked price. Find his profit percentage.
m .
.co m
Ans 1. 5.76%

s e
em a
2. 8.55%

s l
la ag
3. 7.88%


4. 6.48%
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.23 A man goes to Indore from Bhopal at a speed of 9 km/hr and returns to Bhopal at speed
of 18 km/hr, through the same route. What is his average speed (in km/hr) of the entire
journey?
Ans 1. 15

2. 12

3. 9

4. 6

Q.24 If 2 times a mother's present age is 25 years more than 5 times her daughter's present
age, and 3 times the daughter's present age is 9 years less than the mother's present
age, then what is the difference (in years) between the ages of the mother and the
daughter?
Ans 1. 20

2. 28

3. 25

4. 23

Q.25 Which of the following numbers divides 488309139?
Ans 1. 9

2. 11

3. 10

4. 13

Q.26 The LCM of the numbers 2.6 and 0.084 is:
Ans 1. 546

2. 0.546

3. 5.46

4. 54.6

Q.27 Amit, Neha, and Kiran invest ₹1,220, ₹1,370, and ₹1,110, respectively, to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,160, then what is the share of Kiran in
the profit?
Ans 1. ₹345

2. ₹347

3. ₹351

4. ₹348

Q.28 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 43. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 13 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.
Ans 1. 32.91

2. 34.91

3. 35.91

4. 33.91

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m
.co
Q.29 Pallavi bought a toy for ₹670, decorated it at a cost of ₹10 and sold the toy for ₹290.
m
Find the loss or profit percentage.

. co
Ans
s e m
m a
se
1.

g l
2. a
3.

4.

m
.co
Q.30 Pipe A can fill a tank in 16 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 21 hours and pipe C

m
can fill the same tank in 11 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they

.co m
operate together is::
Ans
m s e
1.
s e l a
l a ag
2. ag
3.

4.

m
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
m .co
Q.1 In a certain code language,
s e
A + B means ‘A is the husband of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
g la
A x B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
a
How is G related to P if ‘G ÷ I x L + N – P’?
Ans 1. Mother's father

2. Father's brother

3. Brother

4. Mother's brother

m
Q.2
m
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
.co
.co m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
m s e
s e statements.

g l a
g l a Statements: a
a Some cloth are handkerchief.
All towel are handkerchief.

Conclusion:
(I): Some cloth are towel.
(II): All handkerchief are towel.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
m .
4. Only conclusion (I) follows.
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.3 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 4 & # $ 4 7 6 6 & 1 * $ 2 © 9 4 8 € $ * 4 (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 4

4. 3

Q.4 126 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Into is 11th from the right end while
Mr. Toni is 12th from the left end. How many people are there between Mr. Into and Mr.
Toni?
Ans 1. 104

2. 101

3. 102

4. 103

Q.5 Ram starts his journey from Point A. He then drives 4 km towards the west, turns left
and drives 7 km. He then turns right and drives 5 km, again turns left and drives for 3
km. After that he turns left and drives for 12 km. He takes a final left turn, drives for 10
km and stops. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction should he drive in
order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km towards the east

2. 3 km towards the north

3. 3 km towards the west

4. 8 km towards the south

Q.6 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, ‘÷’ and ‘×’
are interchanged and ‘−‘ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
13 − 5 ÷ 5 × 5 + 13 × 13 − 9 × 3 ÷ 3 − 108 = ?
Ans 1. 90

2. 129

3. 110

4. 134

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘VAST’ is coded as ‘7892’ and ‘SAVE’ is coded as ‘8629’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 9

3. 6

4. 8

Q.8 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LNH

2. KNZ

3. OQK

4. TVP

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.co
Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘WAVE’ is coded as ‘3257’ and ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘1346’.
m
What is the code for ‘V’ in the given code language?

. co
Ans 1. 1
s e m
m a
se l
2. 7

3. 3
ag
4. 5

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow/s from the given statements.

Statements:
Some wigs are roses.
All roses are bugs.
m
m .co
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Conclusions (I): Some wigs are bugs.
Conclusions (II): All bugs are roses.
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Ans
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1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
l as
l as
2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
ag
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3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.11 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, K, L and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. No box is kept above B. Only three boxes are kept between B and C. Only
one box is kept between D and L. L is kept immediately above C. Only four boxes are
kept between D and K. A is kept at some place above O.
Which box is kept second below A?
Ans 1. C

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.co
2. D

3. O
e m
4. B
las
Q.12 ag
If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

20 ÷ 55 × 5 + 7 − 4 = ?
Ans 1. 3

2. 13

3. 8

4. 17

m
Q.13
m
UP 16 is related to TK 4 in a certain way. In the same way, YT 23 is related to XO 11. To
.co
.co m
which of the following is KG 13 related, following the same logic?

m s e
a
Ans 1. IB 3

s e g l
g l a 2. JA 3
a
a 3. IA 1

4. JB 1

Q.14 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

WISE - EWSI - WEIS
PLUS - SPUL - PSLU
Ans 1. PAWN - NPWA - PANW

2. PAGE - EPAG - AGEP
m .
3. DOSE - ODSE - EOSD
.co s e m
s em l a
ag
4. BORN - NBRO - BNOR

g la
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.15 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north.
No one sits to the left of G. Only four people sit between G and A. Only three people sit
to the right of E. D sits to the immediate left of F. B is not an immediate neighbour of E.
How many people sit to the right of C?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Q.16 Farooq ranked 28th from the top and 35th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 62

2. 60

3. 63

4. 61

Q.17 Qadir starts from Point A and drives 1 km towards East. He then takes a left turn, drives
3 km, turns left and drives 8 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 7 km. He takes a
final left turn, drives 7 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns
only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km to the North

2. 4 km to the North

3. 7 km to the West

4. 6 km to the West

Q.18 If 1 is subtracted from each odd digit of the number 95423671, then what will be the sum
of the digits that are repeated more than once in the new number formed?
Ans 1. 10

2. 8

3. 6

4. 12

Q.19 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

LXU -2 OTT 4 RPS -8 ? XHQ -32
Ans 1. FHT 15

2. VXL 19

3. ULR 16

4. PHR 13

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 2 4 7 11 ?
Ans 1. 15

2. 17

3. 18

4. 16

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m
.co
Q.21 Each of the digits in the number 3875269 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
m
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in

. co the original number?

s e m
m Ans 1. Three
a
se 2. None
ag l
3. Two

4. One

Q.22 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. IEA
m
2. XTQ
m .co
3. RNK
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. FBY

l a
Q.23
ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

QVO SRN ? WJL YFK
Ans 1. NHG

2. VML

3. MKL

4. UNM

m
.co
Q.24 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

m
(Left) 284 517 639 741 425 (Right)

s e
la
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

g
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

a
If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position(s) of how many
numbers will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. Four

4. Three

Q.25 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
m
.co
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
m
.co
LOCK – OLCK – LCKO
ACNE – CANE – ANEC
e m
e
Ans
m 1. FROG – RFOG – ROGF
l as
l as 2. OILS – IOLS – SILO
ag
ag 3. HUNT – HNUT – TNUH

4. BEAM – EBAM – BAME

Q.26 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
57, 63, 71, 81, 93, ?
Ans 1. 170

2. 105

3. 154
m .
.co m
4. 107

s e
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.27 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
17, 153
31, 279
Ans 1. 43, 387

2. 35, 326

3. 22, 216

4. 14, 122

Q.28 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

12 21 38 79 160 ?
Ans 1. 291

2. 279

3. 297

4. 219

Q.29 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LG-JN

2. JE-HL

3. OJ-MQ

4. GB-EJ

Q.30 L, M, N, O, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. M
sits fourth to the left of O. N is an immediate neighbour of O and R. S sits to the
immediate left of R. Q is not an immediate neighbour of M. Who sits third to the right of
L?
Ans 1. S

2. R

3. O

4. M

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 01/09/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
m
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following steps allows you to create a new folder on the desktop in
Windows?
Ans 1. Go to Task Manager

2. Open Notepad

3. Press Ctrl + Alt + Del

4. Right-click → New → Folder

m
Q.2
.co
During the colonial period, the manufacturing sector accounted for only ______.

m
Ans 1. 5%
s e
2. 1%

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3. 10%
a
4. 16%

Q.3 Which schedule of the Citizenship Act, 1955, contains the qualifications for
naturalisation?
Ans 1. Third Schedule

2. First Schedule

3. Second Schedule
m
m .co
4. Tenth Schedule

Q.4
m.co
When was 'Operation Shield' conducted across India’s border states and union
s e m
s e territories?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 29 May 2025
a
a 2. 31 May 2025

3. 3 June 2025

4. 7 May 2025

Q.5 Where will the 18th edition of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) be held in 2025?
Ans 1. Bhubaneswar

2. Mumbai

m .
.co
3. New Delhi

e m
4. Chennai

em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.6 According to the principle of collective responsibility in India’s parliamentary system, a
successful no-confidence motion against a single Union Minister requires which
action?
Ans 1. The Lok Sabha is immediately dissolved.

2. The entire Council of Ministers must resign.

3. Only the targeted minister must resign.

4. The President dismisses only the targeted minister.

Q.7 What is the name of ISRO's mission launched in January 2024 to study the polarisation
of cosmic X-rays?
Ans 1. XPoSat

2. Aditya-L1

3. RISAT-1

4. AstroSat

Q.8 In a chemical reaction, the substances that are initially present before the reaction
starts are called _____.
Ans 1. reactants

2. products

3. intermediates

4. catalysts

Q.9 Which of the following best describes the role of the Control Unit within the Central
Processing Unit?
Ans 1. It displays the processed output to the user.

2. It performs all mathematical and logical calculations.

3. It directs and coordinates the activities of all components of the computer.

4. It stores data and instructions temporarily during processing.

Q.10 Which of the following organisations was one of the co-organisers of the 14th Asian
Fisheries and Aquaculture Forum (14AFAF) held from 12 to 15 February 2025 at Pusa
Campus, New Delhi?
Ans 1. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

2. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

3. Asian Fisheries Society Indian Branch (AFSIB)

4. World Health Organization (WHO)

Q.11 Which of the following substances constitutes the primary material of the "Mother
Goddess" sculpture originating from the Indus Valley Civilisation?
Ans 1. Bronze

2. Limestone

3. Terracotta

4. Steatite

Q.12 The Khelo India Youth Games 2025 was organised from which date to which date at
different locations in Bihar?
Ans 1. 1 to 10 May 2025

2. 4 to 18 May 2025

3. 8 to 20 May 2025

4. 4 to 15 May 2025

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.co
Q.13 If an RTI applicant is aggrieved by the Public Information Officer’s decision (or lack of
m
response), within how many days must the first appeal be filed under Section 19 of the

. co RTI Act?

s e m
m Ans 1. 15 days
a
se 2. 90 days
ag l
3. 30 days

4. 60 days

Q.14 The Department of Financial Services (DFS) notified amalgamation of 26 Regional Rural
Banks (RRBs) on the principles of ‘One State One RRB’ in which phase of
amalgamation of RRBs in 2025?
Ans 1. Fifth

2. Second
m
3. Third
m .co
4. Fourth

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.15 Which system of land tenure prevalent before independence led to exploitation of
l
ag
farmers?
Ans 1. Mahalwari system

2. Zamindari system

3. Cooperative farming

4. Ryotwari system

Q.16 During Shahjahan’s rule, how many mansabdars out of 8000 were higher ranking
mansabdars who received 61.5% of the total estimated revenue of the empire as
salaries for themselves and their troopers?
m
.co
Ans 1. 445

2. 545
e m
3. 245
las
4. 345
ag
Q.17 Recipient of Padma Shri in 2025, Shri Onkar Singh Pahwa, is related to which cycle
company of India?
Ans 1. Avon Cycles

2. Hero Cycles

3. Atlas Cycles

4. Tata Stryder

m
Q.18
m
Which of the following places may receive an amount of rainfall in a single day that is
.co
.co m
equal to 10 years of rainfall at Jaisalmer?
Ans
m 1. Tura
s e
s e g l a
g l a 2. Leh
a
a
3. Asansol

4. Siliguri

Q.19 Urban transport infrastructure generally refers to the systems that facilitate the
movement of people and goods within a city. Which of the following is NOT a part of
urban transport infrastructure?
Ans 1. Water irrigation pipelines

2. Public bus systems

3. Metro rail networks
m .
4. Flyovers and expressways
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.20 Which statutory body organised a two-day National Conference on ‘Environment –
2025’ at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, in March 2025?
Ans 1. Central Ground Water Authority

2. Central Pollution Control Board

3. National Biodiversity Authority

4. National Green Tribunal

Q.21 Who was the first Finance Minister of Independent India?
Ans 1. John Mathai

2. R K Shanmugham Chetty

3. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

4. Jairamdas Daulatram

Q.22 Which country signed a contract with India in April 2025 to supply 26 Rafale Marine
fighter jets?
Ans 1. United Kingdom

2. France

3. United States

4. Russia

Q.23 Who obtained the first accurate value of the speed of light using a rotating mirror
apparatus in 1862?
Ans 1. Albert A Michelson

2. Charles Wheatstone

3. Jean Bernard Léon Foucault

4. Marie Alfred Alen Cornu

Q.24 What is the theoretical value of the Stefan-Boltzmann constant (σ) which defines the
power emitted per unit area by a black body as a function of its thermodynamic
temperature?
Ans 1. 5.91 × 10⁻7 Wm⁻²K⁻⁴

2. 5.17 × 10⁻9 Wm⁻²K⁻⁴

3. 5.35 × 10⁻10 Wm⁻²K⁻⁴
4. 5.67 × 10⁻⁸ Wm⁻²K⁻⁴

Q.25 Which Buddhist scripture explicitly states “All dhammas are without self,” affirming the
doctrine of Anatta?
Ans 1. Dhammapada

2. Kalpa Sutra

3. Bhagavati Sutra

4. Uttaradhyayana

Q.26 Which initiative, launched in 2025, aims to develop quantum-encrypted communication
for tamper-proof defence networks in India?
Ans 1. SecureNet India

2. National Cyber Security Mission

3. National Quantum Mission

4. Quantum Leap Program

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.co
Q.27 How does deforestation lead to desertification?
m
co
Ans 1. It increases humus in the soil.

. e m
m 2. It removes the top fertile soil layer, exposing hard, rocky layers.
as
se 3. It increases rainfall in dry regions.
ag l
4. It reduces soil erosion.

Q.28 What is the most direct impact of poor infrastructure on rural education?
Ans 1. Poor mid-day meals

2. Lack of trained teachers

3. High student absenteeism

4. Low awareness about schemes
m
m .co
.co
Q.29 As of 2024, who among the following holds the national record in women’s weightlifting
(49 kg category) in India?
em
Ans 1. Sanjita Chanu
e m l as
l as
2. Saikhom Mirabai Chanu
ag
ag
3. Punam Yadav

4. Karnam Malleswari

Q.30 Where was the 2025 Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Sports Policy Network
Roundtable Meeting & Forum held?
Ans 1. Japan

2. South Korea

3. China
m
.co
4. Australia

e m
Q.31
Ans
What does the term 'halocline' refer to in oceanography?
1. A layer with a rapid change in pressure
las
2. A layer with a rapid change in salinity ag
3. A zone with the highest oxygen concentration

4. A layer with a rapid change in temperature

Q.32 What does the term ‘satyagraha’ primarily mean in Gandhian philosophy for mass
mobilisation and India’s struggle for freedom during colonial rule?
Ans 1. Non-cooperation

2. Truth-force
m
m
3. Passive resistance
.co
m.co 4. Civil disobedience
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.33
Ans
Which of the following was NOT a consequence of the Revolt of 1857?
a
a
1. Policies that favoured zamindars and landlords were struck down.

2. Lands and properties of Muslims were confiscated en masse.

3. The strength of Indian soldiers in the army was reduced.

4. The Governor-General of India was given the title 'Viceroy'.

Q.34 Select the correct statement regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
of India.
Ans 1. It is a constitutional body formed by a Constitutional Amendment, with powers equal to the Supreme Court.

m .
.co
2. The NHRC has direct powers to prosecute and punish public officials for human rights abuses.

e m
em
3. It was established in 1993 by an Act of Parliament to investigate and recommend on human rights violations.

l as
las
4. The Chairperson of the NHRC is the Prime Minister of India.
ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.35 Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) India, which added more than 7.5 lac
new subscribers in the month of March 2025, comes under which ministry of
Government of India?
Ans 1. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

3. Ministry of Finance

4. Ministry of Labour and Employment

Q.36 Which tax was introduced in July 2017 to replace multiple indirect taxes in India as part
of fiscal reforms?
Ans 1. Income Tax

2. Excise Duty

3. GST

4. Sales Tax

Q.37 Which of the following options correctly lists the composition of the State Executive in
India?
Ans 1. Governor, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers

2. President, Governor and Chief Minister

3. Governor, Deputy Minister and State Council of Advisors

4. Governor, Chief Minister and State Legislative Assembly members

Q.38 The southern stretch of the Western Coast of India, sandwiched between the Western
Ghats and the Arabian Sea, is referred to as the _________.
Ans 1. Malabar Coast

2. Kathiawar Peninsula

3. Kannad Plain

4. Konkan

Q.39 Which region in France is home to the massive white hydrogen reserve discovered in
2025, which is a game-changer for clean energy?
Ans 1. Moselle

2. Provence

3. Normandy

4. Brittany

Q.40 Which of the following space agencies successfully docked the SpaDeX satellite in
January 2025?
Ans 1. National Aeronautics and Space Administration

2. Indian Space Research Organisation

3. European Space Agency

4. China National Space Administration

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 Nikhil, Nidhi and Tejas invested ₹1,200, ₹1,070 and ₹1,310, respectively to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,790, what is Tejas's share of the profit?
Ans 1. ₹654

2. ₹657

3. ₹658

4. ₹655

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m
.co
Q.2
m
. co s e m
m Ans 1.
a
se 2.
ag l
3.

4.

Q.3 A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 17 years. In how
many years will it amount to 81 times of itself?
Ans 1. 68 years

2. 59 years

m
.co
3. 58 years

m
.co m
4. 64 years

m s e
Q.4
s e l a
l a ag
Ans 1. 38

2. 50
ag
3. 51

4. 44

Q.5 A shopkeeper offers the following discount scheme to his customers for the purchase
of articles in his shop.
'Buy 20 and get 5 free'
Find the discount percentage offered.
m
.co
Ans 1. 25%

2. 30%
e m
3. 20%
las
4. 32%
ag
Q.6 Find the value of x satisfying: 5(5x2 − 5) − 5(5x2 + 7x − 2) = 14
Ans
1.

2.

m
m .co
.co m
3.

m s e
s e g l a
g l a 4.
a
a Q.7 The LCM of the numbers 2.8 and 0.217 is:
Ans 1. 0.868

2. 8.68

3. 868

4. 86.8

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.8 If 4 times a son's age is added to his father's age, the sum is 100 years. If 2.5 times the
father's age is added to the son's age, the sum is 97 years. What is the father's age (in
years)?
Ans 1. 31

2. 32

3. 36

4. 30

Q.9 4 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days, while 8 women can do it in 15 days. In
how many days can 3 women and 2 men complete this work?
Ans 1. 19 days

2. 15 days

3. 11 days

4. 14 days

Q.10 Find the number of sides of a regular polygon, each of whose interior angles measures
162°.
Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 20

4. 22

Q.11 The income of Raman is ₹80,200. He saves 7.5% of his income. If his income increases
by 34% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:
Ans 1. increase by ₹2,403

2. decrease by ₹2,406

3. decrease by ₹2,404

4. increase by ₹2,404

Q.12 Volumes of three cubes made of solid metal are 789 cm3, 865 cm3 and 1721 cm3,
respectively. After melting all the three, a solid cube was made of them. Find the length
of the edge of the new cube.
Ans 1. 15 cm

2. 25 cm

3. 12 cm

4. 14 cm

Q.13 Given that 810.65 = x, 810.26= y and xz = y7, then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 2.8

2. 4.09

3. 4.27

4. 1.32

Q.14 A tradesman marks his goods at such a price that after allowing a discount of 30%, he
still makes a profit of 10%. What is the marked price of an article (in ₹) whose cost price
is ₹1,540?
Ans 1. 2,240

2. 2,420

3. 2,440

4. 2,204

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m
.co
Q.15 A man driving a car at a speed of 48 km/hr crosses a bridge in 3.8 minutes. Find the
m
length of the bridge.

. co
Ans 1. 2.36 km
s e m
m a
se l
2. 3.04 km

3. 2.54 km
ag
4. 2.46 km

Q.16 I bought two shirts for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 8% and the second at a
gain of 24%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of
the first shirt.
Ans 1. 924

2. 884

m
.co
3. 900

m
.co m
4. 920

m s e
Q.17
s e
Find the volume of a sphere with diameter 12 cm.
l a
Ans 1.
l a ag
2.
ag
3.

4.

Q.18 The selling price of 20 books is equal to the cost price of 36 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage.
Ans
1.

m
2. 80% loss

m .co
3. 80% gain
s e
g la
4.
a
Q.19 The sum of two numbers is 44 and their L.C.M. is 459. What are the two numbers?
Ans 1. 20, 24

2. 25, 19

3. 27, 17

4. 32, 12

m
m .co
.co
Q.20 The average of first 147 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans 1. 146.5
e m
e m l as
s
2. 147

l a ag
g
3. 148

a 4. 147.5

Q.21 Ishaan has to reach Kolkata which is 843 km away in 11 hours. His starting speed for 4
hours was 34 km/hr. For the next 180 km his speed was 30 km/hr. By what speed he
must travel now so as to reach Kolkata in the decided time of 11 hours?
Ans 1. 527 km/hr

2. 523 km/hr

3. 528 km/hr

m .
.co m
4. 530 km/hr

s e
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.22 The product of two positive numbers is 3645. If the first number is five times the second
number, then the sum of the two numbers is:
Ans 1. 173

2. 164

3. 162

4. 172

Q.23 A can do a work in 9 days and B can do the same work in 19 days. If they work on it
together for 6 days, then what fraction of the work is left?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 ₹35,600 were divided among A, B and C, such that 8 times of A = 3 times of B = 6 times
of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹7,194

2. ₹6,968

3. ₹7,120

4. ₹7,294

Q.25 Find the mean proportional of 324 and 16.
Ans 1. 69

2. 72

3. 74

4. 75

Q.26

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.27 The number 481355 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 3

2. 15

3. 6

4. 5

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m
.co
Q.28 Find the simple interest (in ₹) if a sum of ₹400 is borrowed for 4.5 years at 16% per
m
annum rate of interest.

. co
Ans 1. 338
s e m
m a
se l
2. 268

3. 388
ag
4. 288

Q.29 The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg,
56 kg, 74 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans 1. 52.4

2. 50.4

3. 51.4
m
4. 53.4
m .co
Q.30
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
Ans 1. 29.25

2. 25.25
ag
3. 31.25

4. 28.25

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘DRAG’ is coded as ‘5824’ and ‘GRAM’ is coded as ‘4592’.
m
.co
What is the code for ‘M’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

e m
2. 9

las
g
3. 2

4. 5 a
Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘1357’ and ‘SOUP’ is coded as ‘2146’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 2

3. 1

4. 7
m
m .co
.co m
Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
m s e
s e TAW VCY XEA ZGC ?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. BIQ a
a 2. BIX

3. BIE

4. BIP

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.4 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 625 247 156 289 362 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 10

4. 12

Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
19 + 40 − 8 × 2 ÷ 1 = ?
Ans 1. 96

2. 98

3. 99

4. 97

Q.6 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. No box is kept above G. Only three boxes are kept between G and B. Only
one box is kept between F and D. D is kept immediately above B. Only four boxes are
kept between F and E. A is kept at some place above C. How many boxes are kept above
B?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Q.7 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. UX-ZS

2. OR-TM

3. LO-QI

4. RU-WP

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

121 117.9 114.8 111.7 108.6 ?
Ans 1. 105.5

2. 107.6

3. 108.2

4. 106

Q.9 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

PKE 17 RIH 10 TGK 1 ? XCQ -23
Ans 1. VFN -8

2. VEN -10

3. VEM -10

4. EFM -8

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m
.co
Q.10 Each of the digits in the number 4512689 is arranged in ascending order from left to
m
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in

. co the original number?

s e m
m Ans 1. Three
a
se 2. Two
ag l
3. One

4. None

Q.11 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) % € 9 2 5 * $ € © @ % % 1 7 $ * @ 6 7 3 & * (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
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and also immediately followed by a symbol?

m
.co
Ans 1. 5

em
2. 4

e m l as
3. 3

l as ag
ag
4. 2

Q.12 Seven boxes U, V, W, X, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
Only three boxes are kept above V. Only one box is kept between F and V. Only three
boxes are kept between F and U. U is kept at some place above V. E is kept immediately
below U. G is kept at one of the places above X. W is not kept immediately above or
below F. Which box is kept at the lowermost position?
Ans 1. W

2. U

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3. X

4. F
e m
las
g
Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

a
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some pants are sweaters.
Some sweaters are coats.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pants are coats.
(II) Some sweaters are pants.

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Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

m
.co
2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

e m
e m 3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

l as
l as 4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
ag
ag Q.14 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LO-HJ

2. FI-BC

3. PS-LN

4. IL-EG
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.15 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. TW-VY

2. RU-TW

3. AD-CF

4. EH-GK

Q.16 L, M, N, O, Q, R, and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. S
sits fourth to the left of O. R sits fourth to the right of M. Only two people sit between O
and M when counted from the left of O. L is not an immediate neighbour of R or O. N is
not an immediate neighbour of L.
Who sits third to the right of Q?
Ans 1. O

2. S

3. N

4. L

Q.17 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

HAIR - AHIR - RIAH
MEAN - EMAN - NAEM
Ans 1. WANT - AWNT - TANW

2. LOCK - OLCK - OCKL

3. BOND - BNOD - DNOB

4. DUST - UDST - TSUD

Q.18 H, I, J, K, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only I sits between V and H. H sits third to the left of K. W sits to the immediate left of K.
J is not an immediate neighbour of H.
Who sits fourth to the left of U?
Ans 1. H

2. J

3. W

4. V

Q.19 In a certain code language,
A $ B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is E related to N if ‘E @ F ÷ G $ M + N’?
Ans 1. Mother's mother

2. Mother's sister

3. Mother's father

4. Mother's brother

Q.20 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

56 × 8 − 13 ÷ 3 + 11 = ?
Ans 1. 33

2. 34

3. 32

4. 35
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m
.co
Q.21 Which of the given numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to
m
make it logically complete?

. co 235 246 268 301 345 ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 401

2. 400 ag l
3. 410

4. 445

Q.22 Raj ranked 44th from the top and 15th from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans 1. 57

2. 59
m
3. 56
m .co
4. 58
m .co s em
s e l a
Q.23
l a
Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
ag
ag
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All Tractors are Buses.
No Buses are Trucks.

Conclusions:
I. No Trucks are Tractors.
II. Some Trucks are Tractors.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

m .co
3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
s e
4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
g la
Q.24
a
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 2 4 8 10 20 22 ?
Ans 1. 44

2. 42

3. 26

4. 24

m
Q.25
m
Shreyas starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards the north. He then takes a left turn
.co
.co m
and drives 6 km, then turns left and drives 13 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 12

m
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
s e
s e distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All

g l a
a
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

g l Ans 1. 6 km to the west a
a 2. 5 km to the east

3. 5 km to the west

4. 6 km to the east

Q.26 NWLF is related to RZHC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, VCDZ is related to ZFZW. To which of the following is DIVT related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. HMSP
m .
.co m
2. GKSP

s e
3. IMRP

s em l a
4. HLRQ

g la ag
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Q.27 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

7 − 4 + 15 ÷ 52 × 13 = ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 23

3. 28

4. 17

Q.28 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
61, 127
52, 109
Ans 1. 47, 325

2. 83, 171

3. 93, 196

4. 63, 112

Q.29 Anil starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 5 km, turns right and drives 2 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point F. How far (shortest distance) and
in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-
degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km towards the west

2. 3 km towards the east

3. 3 km towards the west

4. 4 km towards the east

Q.30 GWSK is related to CTOH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, YQKE is related to UNGB. To which of the given options is QKCY related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. LGYW

2. OHZV

3. NGXU

4. MHYV

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