RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 13 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 13 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 13/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In March 2025, which company unveiled Vayu, an overall AI cloud offering for
enterprises?
Ans 1. Reliance Communication

2. Tata Communication

3. Airtel Communication

4. Bajaj Communication

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Q.2
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Which act gave statutory status to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?

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Ans 1. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 1964
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2. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003

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3. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
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4. Lokpal Act, 2013

Q.3 The Earth completes one rotation on its axis approximately in:
Ans 1. 365 days

2. 24 hours

3. 30 days

4. 12 hours
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Q.4
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Which British Prime Minister officially announced the decision to grant independence to

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India and withdraw British forces from the subcontinent?
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Ans 1. Stafford Cripps
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a 3. Clement Atlee

4. Winston Churchill

Q.5 What was the theme of the 10th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog that was held
on 24 May 2025?
Ans 1. Sustainable Growth for India

2. Viksit Bharat for All

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3. Empowering States for Development

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4. Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047

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Q.6 Which of the following schemes on Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) encourages
entrepreneurs to set up CBG plants, produce and supply CBG to Oil Marketing
Companies (OMCs) for sale as automotive and industrial fuels?
Ans 1. Biogas Programme (India)

2. Waste to Energy Programme (India)

3. Cent Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) Scheme (India)

4. Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT)

Q.7 Which of the following belongs to the Lakshadweep group of islands?
Ans 1. Kannur Islands

2. Kamorta Island

3. Chowra Island

4. Milo Island

Q.8 Which of the following British officials found India as an uncivilised country and had to
be civilised, following which the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced?
Ans 1. Henry Thomas Colebrooke

2. William Jones

3. Thomas Macaulay

4. Nathaniel Halhed

Q.9 Which of the following two rice varieties were unveiled as a part of India's genome-
editing initiative in May 2025?
Ans 1. Kamala and Pusa DST Rice 1

2. Pusa DST Rice 2 and Swarna Rice

3. Swarna Rice and Golden Rice

4. Kamala and Basmati Gold

Q.10 Which of the following Vedic words literally means search for cows and also refers to
battle?
Ans 1. Duhitri

2. Gaveshana

3. Gopala

4. Gomat

Q.11 Which Article of the Constitution deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. Article 332

2. Article 331

3. Article 334

4. Article 330

Q.12 Which of the following is the primary objective of the Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban
Mission (SPMRM)?
Ans 1. Electrification of rural households

2. Development of rural clusters with urban-like facilities

3. Skill development for rural youth

4. Ensuring 100 days of wage employment in rural areas

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Q.13 What does the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + R do in web browsers?
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Ans 1. Renames a file or folder

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m 2. Runs a program
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4. Restores deleted files

Q.14 Which of the following is an example of structural unemployment?
Ans 1. A worker choosing not to work due to a lack of job opportunities

2. A worker being unable to find a job due to discrimination

3. A worker losing their job due to a recession

4. A worker being unable to find a job due to a lack of skills in a new and expanding industry
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Q.15 What is the term period of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?

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Ans 1. 5 years or 62 years

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2. 6 years or 60 years

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3. 6 years or 65 years

4. 4 years or 60 years

Q.16 The northern part of the plains along the Bay of Bengal is referred to as the Northern
Circar, while the southern part is known as the ___________.
Ans 1. Southern Circar

2. Utkal Plains

3. Coromandel Coast

4. Andhra Plains
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Q.17
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Who was honoured with the Luminous Lummer Dai Literary Award in 2025 for their
contributions to Assamese literature?
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Ans 1. Nirupama Borgohain
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2. Indira Goswami a
3. Ramchandra Chutia

4. Homen Borgohain

Q.18 Which of the following is a correct representation of a compound formed by ionic
bonding?
Ans 1. H₂O

2. CO₂
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3. NaCl
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s g l a
e Which of the following countries does Amelia Kerr, the ICC Women’s T20I Cricketer
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of the Year 2024, represent? a
a Ans New Zealand
1.

2. Australia

3. South Africa

4. England

Q.20 In May 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated 103 redeveloped railway stations
under which of the following schemes?
Ans 1. Smart Rail Mission
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2. Udan Scheme
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3. Amrit Bharat Station Scheme
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4. Bharat Mala Scheme
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Q.21 In which of the following geographical areas of India is Kumaoni spoken by a significant
portion of the population?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. West Bengal

3. Uttarakhand

4. Jammu and Kashmir

Q.22 Who is credited with the discovery of the nucleus through the gold foil experiment?
Ans 1. Bohr

2. Ernest Rutherford

3. John Dalton

4. Lavoisier

Q.23 Which of the following chemical reactions does NOT represent a balanced equation?
Ans 1. 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂

2. 4Fe + 3H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 2H₂

3. Fe + H₂O → FeO + H₂

4. 2Fe + 3H₂O → Fe₂O₃ + 3H₂

Q.24 Which exercise in 2025 involved India and the United States focusing on amphibious
warfare and HADR?
Ans 1. Exercise Vajra Prahar

2. Exercise Malabar

3. Exercise Tiger Triumph

4. Exercise Yudh Abhyas

Q.25 Which of the following minerals is known as 'Brown Gold' in India?
Ans 1. Mica

2. Copper

3. Bauxite

4. Lignite

Q.26 According to the IMF’s World Economic Outlook released in April 2025, what is India's
projected economic growth rate for the year 2025?
Ans 1. 6.2%

2. 5.6%

3. 6.5%

4. 4.8%

Q.27 Which of the following central services holds the highest prestige, pay and emoluments
among its peers?
Ans 1. Indian Foreign Service

2. Indian Defence Accounts Service

3. Indian Postal Service

4. Indian Audit and Accounts Service

Q.28 According to Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of:
Ans 1. only Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

2. Prime Minister, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

3. President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

4. President, Vice President, and Prime Minister

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Q.29 During the Mughal period, the Ain-i-Dahsala system was introduced by _____.
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Ans 1. Babur

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4. Aurangzeb

Q.30 The Tehri Dam, which serves multiple purposes including power generation, is built on
which river?
Ans 1. Yamuna

2. Ganga

3. Sutlej

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4. Bhagirathi

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Q.31
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In which State has India’s first integrated API Green Hydrogen and 2G Ethanol plant
been established?
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Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

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2. Uttarakhand

3. Goa

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.32 Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were established to promote export-oriented
industrialisation. What is a primary incentive offered to firms operating in SEZs?
Ans 1. Higher import duties

2. Strict labour laws

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3. Tax holidays and infrastructure support

4. Ban on foreign investments

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Q.33
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Special provisions for certain states are covered under which Part of the Indian

Ans
Constitution?
1. Part XIX ag
2. Part XXII

3. Part XX

4. Part XXI

Q.34 In May 2025, the Ministry of Education launched a nationwide enforcement drive around
schools and colleges for what purpose?
Ans 1. Focusing on mental health awareness
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2. Improving safety measures for female students
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a Q.35 Which major Indian company was privatised in the 2000s under the Government of
India’s disinvestment policy?
Ans 1. Maruti Udyog Limited

2. ISRO

3. BSNL

4. LIC

Q.36 What happens when a user renames a file in MS Windows?
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1. The file is converted into a different format.
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2.
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The file is moved to a different
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The file is deletedsand a new file is created.
3.

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4.
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The file's name ame.
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Q.37 Which nationwide civil defence exercise, conducted on May 7, 2025 by the Ministry of
Home Affairs and the National Disaster Management Authority, involved 244 districts
across India to enhance emergency preparedness?
Ans 1. Operation Raksha

2. Operation Abhyaas

3. Operation Trinetra

4. Operation Suraksha

Q.38 Which district in Nagaland was officially declared as the state's 17th district in
November 2024?
Ans 1. Noklak

2. Meluri

3. Shamator

4. Tseminyu

Q.39 The International Theatre Festival of India, Bharat Rang Mahotsav (BRM), held in
Bengaluru from 1 February 2025 to 8 February 2025, was organised by which of the
following institutions?
Ans 1. Sangeet Natak Akademi

2. National School of Drama

3. Indian Council for Cultural Relations

4. Kalidasa Kalakendram

Q.40 Who among the following formed a Satyagraha Sabha on 24 February 1919 in Bombay
to protest against the Rowlatt Bills?
Ans 1. Motilal Nehru

2. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The number of prime numbers lying between 476 and 491, both included, is:
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 5

4. 3

Q.2 A bus travelling at 75 km/hr completes a journey in 17 hours. What should be its speed
to cover the same distance in 5 hours?
Ans 1. 255 km/hr

2. 264 km/hr

3. 261 km/hr

4. 247 km/hr

Q.3 Find the value of 48−17 ÷ 4812 × 48−13.
Ans 1. 48−34

2. 48−37

3. 48−35

4. 48−42

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Q.4 Sneha, Yash and Rohan invested ₹1,090, ₹1,170 and ₹1,340, respectively to start a
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business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,620, what is Rohan's share of the

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3. ₹606

4. ₹602

Q.5 The number 587407 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 34

2. 43

3. 41
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4. 47
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Q.6
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On a marked price, the difference between the selling prices with a single discount of
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40% and two successive discounts of 15% and 20% is ₹400, then find the marked price
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(in ₹).
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Ans 1. ₹5,150

2. ₹4,900

3. ₹5,000

4. ₹4,950

Q.7
Ans 1. 193.58 cm3

2. 190.01 cm3
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3. 195.68 cm3

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4. 197.82 cm3
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Q.8
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By selling 6 articles for a rupee, a man loses 30%. To gain 40% how many must he sell

Ans
for a rupee?
1. 5
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2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.9 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.
19, 14, 11, 20, 18, 17, 14, 10, 11, 11
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The mode of the given data is:

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Ans 1. 19

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2. 14

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Q.10 Shivam got an increase of 4% in his sales amount in the first year and 25% in the
second year; also with this, his current sales are ₹1,40,400, what was his sales (in ₹)
two years ago?
Ans 1. ₹88,000

2. ₹1,12,320

3. ₹1,35,000

4. ₹1,08,000
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Q.11 Which of the following ratio is greatest?
Ans 1. 46 : 75

2. 34 : 77

3. 39 : 89

4. 36 : 69

Q.12

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 The selling price of 20 books is equal to the cost price of 24 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage on these books.
Ans 1. 20% loss

2. 20% gain

3.

4.

Q.14 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 22 days and B can do the same
job in 11 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Find the circumference (in m) of the largest circle that can be drawn completely inside a
rectangle whose dimensions are given as 249 m and 168 m.

Ans 1. 521

2. 528

3. 530

4. 536

Q.16 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 76°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 74°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 88°

2. 99°

3. 77°

4. 100°

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Q.17 Four times P’s present age exceeds Q’s present age by 41 years. After 10 years, three
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times Q’s age will be 33 years less than seven times P’s age at that time. What is Q’s

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3. 67

4. 62

Q.18 The marked price of a shirt is ₹1,250; the shopkeeper offers a scheme of 'buy four get
two free'. What amount does a customer have to pay for taking home six shirts?
Ans 1. ₹5,200

2. ₹5,000

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3. ₹4,500

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4. ₹4,200

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Q.19
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Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 A number, when increased by 70%, gives 3230. The number is:

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Ans 1. 1900

2. 950

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3. 5700

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4. 3800
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Q.21
The value of

Ans 1. 6.94

2. 7.22

3. 9.65

4. 3.27

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Q.22 The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 1684. The sum of

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the numbers is:

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Ans

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1. 42

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4. 58

Q.23 Sapna invested ₹21,300 on simple interest, partly at 14% per annum and partly at 11%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 3 years, then find
the sum invested at 14% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 9,372

2. 9,373

3. 9,369
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4. 9,374

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Q.24 The average of first 161 even numbers is
Ans 1. 163

2. 162.5

3. 161.5

4. 162

Q.25 M and N start a business. M invests ₹38,000 more than N invests for 2 months and N for
3 months. M's share is ₹461 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹6,915. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹91,400

2. ₹91,800

3. ₹91,200

4. ₹91,000

Q.26 Simplify: x(2x - 8) + 5(x2 -3) + 12
Ans 1. 7x2 - 8x + 3

2. -7x2 -8x -3

3. 7x2 - 8x - 3

4. -7x2 -8x + 3

Q.27 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6.75% per annum rate of interest deposited
on 26 February 2024 and withdrawn on 27 April 2024.
Ans 1. ₹46

2. ₹44

3. ₹43

4. ₹45

Q.28 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 83 and 498, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 166, find the other one.
Ans 1. 166

2. 230

3. 332

4. 249

Q.29 Yash travels 200 km at 25 km/hr, the next 210 km at 21 km/hr and the next 204 km at 51
km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 30.01

2. 27.22

3. 27.91

4. 18.68

Q.30 The number of prime numbers lying between 468 and 476, both included, is:
Ans 1. 0

2. 1

3. 5

4. 2

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.1 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
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will be come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

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2. 7 ag l
3. 2

4. 10

Q.2 In a certain code language,
'A = B' means ‘A is the mother of B’,
'A $ B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A @ B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
'A * B' means ‘A is the father of B’.
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How is W related to R if W $ A = C @ D * R?
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Ans 1. Brother

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2. Mother's father
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3. Mother's mother's brother
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4. Father
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Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘DELT’ is coded as ‘1473’ and ‘BLED’ is coded as ‘7234’.
What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 4

4. 2
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Q.4
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Seven boxes G, H, I, K, L, M and S are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the

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same order. Only four boxes are kept between I and K. Only S is kept above I. Only two
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boxes are kept between M and G. H is kept immediately above L. G is not kept

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immediately above H. Which box is kept fourth from the top?
Ans 1. L
a
2. H

3. G

4. M

Q.5 L, M, N, O, Q, R, and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. R
sits third to the left of O. Only one person sits between O and S when counted from the
left of S. Only two people sit between Q and L when counted from the right of L. N is an
immediate neighbour of Q.
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Who sits third to the right of M?
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Ans 1. N

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2. L

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g l a 3. R
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a 4. Q

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

FIL ADG VYB QTW ?
Ans 1. LRO

2. LOR

3. RLO
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4. ROL

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Q.7 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

MUV : QPZ
UKD : YFH
Ans 1. TLW : XQA

2. FCV : KZQ

3. CAL : GVP

4. SLU : VGX

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘LOAN’ is coded as ‘4257’ and ‘NIKE’ is coded as ‘1346’.
What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 7

4. 4

Q.9 Each of the digits in the number 95423671 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and fourth from the
right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 10

2. 11

3. 8

4. 9

Q.10 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NQ-SL

2. JM-OH

3. CF-HB

4. FI-KD

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

561 562 564 ? 571 576
Ans 1. 569

2. 566

3. 567

4. 568

Q.12 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only C is kept above D. Only two boxes are kept between D and E. Only A is
kept below B. F is not kept immediately above E. How many boxes are kept between B
and F?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

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Q.13 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
m
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

. co 7 ÷ 4 + 20 − 72 × 6 = ?
s e m
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se Ans 1. 33

2. 26 ag l
3. 13

4. 20

Q.14 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

Z122Y V101U R82Q N65M ?
Ans 1. J49I
m
2. K50L
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3. J50I
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4. K49L

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Q.15
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Seven people G, H, I, K, L, M and S are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people
sit between I and S. M sits to the immediate left of S. No one sits to the right of H. Only
two people sit between H and M. K sits to the immediate right of L. How many people sit
between G and K?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

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Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

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that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
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or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MHN

2. SNU ag
3. PKQ

4. IDJ

Q.17 CHRX is related to HMXD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, WBPV is related to BGVB. To which of the given options is LQHN related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. QTNV
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2. QVTN

m.co 3. QTYU
s e m
s e 4. QVNT

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Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

18 23 17 24 16 ?
Ans 1. 20

2. 34

3. 25

4. 28

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Q.19 Seven boxes C, D, E, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only D is kept above C. Only E is kept between C and M. Only P is kept below N.
How many boxes are kept between O and P?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. Three

4. One

Q.20 Laxman starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 8 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to west

2. 3 km to west

3. 1 km to west

4. 4 km to west

Q.21 FI 11 is related to KN 8 in a certain way. In the same way, NQ 25 is related to SV 22. To
which of the following is OR 17 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. TW 15

2. UW 14

3. JM 11

4. TW 14

Q.22 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All bricks are spoons. No brick is a cricket.

Conclusion (I): Some crickets are spoons.
Conclusion (II): All spoons are crickets.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.23 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:

Some homestays are resorts.
Some resorts are palaces.

Conclusions:

(I) Some homestays are palaces.
(II) All palaces are resorts.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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.co
Q.24 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
m
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

. co 32 + 8 × 2 − 12 ÷ 5 = ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 85

2. 88 ag l
3. 89

4. 87

Q.25 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans 1. YEI
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.co m
2. BIL

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3. PWZ

s e l a
4. OVY
l a ag
Q.26 ag
This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 475 648 857 591 362 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If 1 is added to the third digit of every number, then how many numbers will become
even?
Ans 1. None

2. Two
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3. Three

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4. One
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Q.27
a
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 6 7 11 20 ?
Ans 1. 38

2. 35

3. 36

4. 37

Q.28 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question. Counting to
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be done from left to right only.
m
m.co
(Left) @ 3 5 1 7 % @ 2 © 1 © © 4 4 9 & © 1 © £ 5 5 (Right)
s e m
s e How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
g l a
g l a Ans
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
a
a
1. 4

2. 1

3. 3

4. 2

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.29 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

24, 66
18, 48
Ans 1. 22, 58

2. 30, 84

3. 20, 56

4. 28, 74

Q.30 Tirtha starts from Point Y and drives 23 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
drives 12 km. He then turns right and drives 27 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 12
km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless
specified.)
Ans 1. 9 km towards west

2. 5 km towards east

3. 4 km towards north

4. 5 km towards south

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 13/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following is an impact of river meandering in plains?
Ans 1. Formation of waterfalls

2. Formation of oxbow lakes

3. Formation of rift valleys

4. Formation of rapids

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Q.2 When was the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) launched?
Ans 1. 2 October 1985

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2. 15 August 1983

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3. 1 April 1980

4. 26 January 1982 ag
Q.3 Which of the following is NOT an instrument of parliamentary control over the executive
in India?
Ans 1. Judicial review of executive actions

2. Question Hour in the Lok Sabha

3. Approval of government bills (laws) by the Parliament

4. No-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers
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Q.4
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The concept of 'watershed' is primarily associated with:

m s e m
s
Ans
e
1. Mountain formation

g l a
g l a 2. Climate zones
a
a 3. River catchment area

4. Rainfall distribution

Q.5 Microliths, which are tiny stone tools usually stuck on to handles of bones or woods to
make tools like saws and sickles. These were mostly found in which age?
Ans 1. Paleolithic age

2. Chalcolithic age

3. Mesolithic age

m .
.co m
4. Neolithic age

s e
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 The President of India is also the Supreme Commander of which force in India?
Ans 1. Intelligence Agencies

2. Armed Forces

3. Border Security Force

4. Police Forces

Q.7 Human development is a key aspect of economic development. As per the UNDP’s
Human Development Report 2025, where does India rank globally?
Ans 1. 100

2. 144

3. 119

4. 130

Q.8 Which Act provided separate legislative subjects for the Centre and Provinces with
three distinct lists?
Ans 1. Indian Independence Act 1947

2. Government of India Act 1858

3. Government of India Act 1919

4. Government of India Act 1935

Q.9 How many public sector banks are operating in India, as on 1 May 2025?
Ans 1. 8

2. 14

3. 12

4. 10

Q.10 Tourism is classified as a tertiary activity because it involves:
Ans 1. extracting natural resources

2. production of goods

3. selling of machinery

4. providing services to people

Q.11 Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity?
Ans 1. Velocity

2. Acceleration

3. Refractive index

4. Gravitational force

Q.12 When was Maha Shivaratri celebrated in 2025?
Ans 1. 26 February

2. 12 May

3. 7 June

4. 14 March

Q.13 In December 2024, at the King Cup International Badminton Open, whom did
Lakshya Sen defeat to claim the third place?
Ans 1. Viktor Axelsen

2. Kento Momota

3. Alex Lanier

4. Anthony Sinisuka Ginting

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Q.14 In May 2025, which Indian state signed an MoU with IN-SPACe to establish a Space Tech
m
Manufacturing Park and Centre of Excellence?

. co
Ans 1. Gujarat
s e m
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2. Karnataka

3. Telangana
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4. Maharashtra

Q.15 Which of the following deserts is visible in the southern part of the world map?
Ans 1. Gobi Desert

2. Thar Desert

3. Kalahari Desert

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.co
4. Sonoran Desert

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Q.16
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The Mudumal Megalithic Menhir is located in which state that was included in the

m
tentative list of India by UNESCO World Heritage Centre in February 2025?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Karnataka

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ag
2. Tamil Nadu

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Telangana

Q.17 The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to the:
Ans 1. distribution of seats in the Lok Sabha

2. disqualification on grounds of defection

3. recognition of languages
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4. protection of land reform laws

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Q.18
Ans
What does the Alt + Tab keyboard shortcut do in Windows?
1. Locks the computer screen
las
2. Closes the current window ag
3. Switches between open applications

4. Opens the Start menu

Q.19 Which of the following is an efficient way to organise files on a computer?
Ans 1. Create different folders based on categories of files

2. Rename all files with random characters
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3. Keep all files in the same folder
m
c. o Store all files in the Recycle Bin
4.

s e m
e m l a
l asQ.20 Who among the following had given the idea to mobilise all the leading Indian political
leaders under a common platform called the Indian National Congress?
ag
ag Ans 1. A O Hume

2. Surendranath Bannerjee

3. W C Bannerjee

4. Ananda Mohan Bose

Q.21 In which of the following years did the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri
Narendra Modi, approve the Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) to boost growth in
the livestock sector?
Ans 1. 2021
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2. 2016
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3. 2019
s em l a
4. 2025
g la ag
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Q.22 Who among the following was conferred with a Padma Bhushan Award 2025 in the field
of (Posthumous) Affairs in April 2025?
Ans 1. Dr. Duvvur Nageshwar Reddy

2. Shri Nandamuri Balakrishna

3. Shri MT Vasudevan Nair

4. Shri Sushil Kumar Modi

Q.23 Which department of the Delhi Sultanate was responsible for military organisation and
administration of the empire’s army?
Ans 1. Diwan-i-Insha

2. Diwan-i-Riyasat

3. Diwan-i-Risalat

4. Diwan-i-Arz

Q.24 Which of the following power projects is based on nuclear energy?
Ans 1. Koyna

2. Tehri

3. Kalpakkam

4. Bhakra Nangal

Q.25 Which biomolecules are responsible for catalysing biochemical reactions?
Ans 1. Polysaccharides

2. Enzymes

3. Nucleotides

4. Phospholipids

Q.26 On 22 May 2025, Israeli forces reportedly fired warning shots near a delegation of
diplomats visiting which area, leading to international condemnation?
Ans 1. Gaza Strip

2. Sinai Peninsula

3. Golan Heights

4. West Bank

Q.27 Who among the following was the first political leader in India to openly put forward, in
his newspaper Bande Mataram, the idea of complete independence for the country?
Ans 1. Swami Vivekananda

2. Sri Aurobindo

3. Rabindranath Tagore

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Q.28 Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired which edition of the Governing Council meeting
of NITI Aayog at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi on 24 May 2025?
Ans 1. 11th

2. 9th

3. 8th

4. 10th

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.co
Q.29 Which Article of the Indian Constitution was amended by the 106th Constitutional
m
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Amendment Act to provide for women’s reservation in the Legislative Assembly of

. Delhi?
e m
m as
se
Ans 1. Article 330A

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2. Article 243D

3. Article 239AA
a
4. Article 332A

Q.30 What was the life expectancy in India in 1947?
Ans 1. 31 years

2. 38 years

3. 52 years
m
4. 45 years
m .co
m .co s em
Q.31 What major change was made by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002?

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. Increased the President’s term
l
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2. Abolished the Legislative Council

3. Declared education as a Fundamental Right

4. Bifurcated the SC/ST Commission

Q.32 As per the May 2025 Supreme Court ruling, what is the minimum number of years of
legal practice required for law graduates to be eligible for Civil Judge examinations?
Ans 1. 2 years

2. 3 years

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3. 1 year

4. 5 years
e m
Q.33 What are endemic species?
las
Ans 1. Exotic animals brought from other countries
ag
2. Species found only in a particular area and nowhere else

3. Species that have migrated recently

4. Species found in every forest

Q.34 Which of the following statements about friction is correct?
Ans 1. Both static and kinetic friction depend on the area of contact.

2. Static friction opposes actual motion, while kinetic friction opposes impending motion.
m
m .co
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3. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction.

e m
e m
4. Static friction opposes impending motion and kinetic friction opposes actual motion.

l as
l asQ.35 Which Article of the Constitution provides special provisions for the State of Nagaland?
ag
ag Ans 1. Article 370

2. Article 371B

3. Article 371A

4. Article 371D

Q.36 In April 2025, IN-SPACe launched an initiative inviting private firms to develop modular
satellite platforms to host multiple payloads, aiming to reduce reliance on foreign
satellite infrastructure. What is this initiative called?
Ans
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1. Modular Orbital Hosting Programme (MOHP)
.
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2. National Space-Based Internet Mission (NSBIM)
s e m
s em l a
ag
3. Satellite Bus as a Service (SBaaS)

g la
4. ISRO Commercial Payload Initiative (ICPI)
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Q.37 Gyaneshwar (1275 A.D.) holds a unique position in Marathi literature, primarily because
he was:
Ans 1. the first and foremost Bhakti poet

2. a renowned court historian

3. a celebrated playwright

4. a compiler of ancient texts

Q.38 The Karakattam (Karagattam) dance, known for its unique balancing of pitchers, is
primarily prevalent in which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Karnataka

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.39 Which Indian AI startup launched Shuka 1.0, an open-source audio language model
supporting 10 Indian languages, in August 2024?
Ans 1. Niramai

2. HealthifyMe

3. Sarvam AI

4. Qure.ai

Q.40 In May 2025, India conducted joint military exercises with which country under the
name 'Garuda Shakti 2025', aiming to strengthen counter-terrorism cooperation?
Ans 1. Sri Lanka

2. France

3. Russia

4. Indonesia

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 1924. The sum of
the numbers is:
Ans 1. 54

2. 68

3. 62

4. 60

Q.2 If a regular polygon has 15 sides, then what is the measure (in degrees) of each interior
angle?
Ans 1. 128°

2. 156°

3. 136°

4. 160°

Q.3 Salil got an increase of 4% in his sales amount in the first year and 24% in the second
year; also with this, his current sales are ₹1,61,200, what was his sales (in ₹) two years
ago?
Ans 1. ₹1,05,000

2. ₹1,30,000

3. ₹1,25,000

4. ₹1,55,000

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.co
Q.4 Evaluate: (−9) − (−60) ÷ (−12) + (−2) × 8
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Ans 1. −30

. e m
m 2. −32
as
se 3. −29
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4. −33

Q.5

Ans
1.

2.
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3.
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s e l a
l a ag
4.
ag
Q.6 Vihaan has to reach Chennai which is 886 km away in 17 hours. His starting speed for 8
hours was 53 km/hr. For the next 150 km his speed was 50 km/hr. By what speed he
must travel now so as to reach Chennai in the decided time of 17 hours?
Ans 1. 52 km/hr

2. 56 km/hr

3. 57 km/hr

m
.co
4. 51 km/hr

e m
Q.7
s
A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 5 years. In how
many years will it amount to 9 times of itself?
la
Ans 1. 11 years
ag
2. 7 years

3. 10 years

4. 19 years

Q.8 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 36% above its cost price and offers a 25%
discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹171, then what is the list price (in ₹) of
the fan?
Ans 1. 11,406
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2. 11,547
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m.co 3. 11,628
s e m
s e 4. 11,598
g l a
g l a a
a Q.9
Ans
Which of the following numbers divides 78,89,73,289?
1. 18

2. 12

3. 7

4. 13

Q.10 ₹15,500 were divided among A, B and C, such that 7 times the share of A = 4 times the
share of B = 2 times the share of C. Find the share of A.

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Ans 1. ₹2,580

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2. ₹2,542

em l as
3. ₹2,480

las ag

4. ₹2,479
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.11 Simplify the following.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 A person purchased a gift article for ₹1,800 after getting 20% discount. Find the marked
price of the gift article.
Ans 1. ₹2,500

2. ₹2,250

3. ₹2,800

4. ₹2,150

Q.13 Which of the following numbers divide 342165?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 7

4. 4

Q.14 The LCM of the numbers 3.8 and 0.052 is:
Ans 1. 49.4

2. 0.494

3. 4.94

4. 494

Q.15 Sapna invested ₹20,300 on simple interest, partly at 10% per annum and partly at 4%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 4 years, then find
the sum invested at 10% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 5,801

2. 5,800

3. 5,799

4. 5,797

Q.16 Find the mean proportional of 98 and 18.
Ans 1. 39

2. 45

3. 42

4. 44

Q.17 A dealer runs a scheme offering 'buy 5 items and get 2 items free'. Each item is priced
at ₹250. What is the total discount amount for a customer buying under this scheme?
Ans 1. ₹500

2. ₹700

3. ₹750

4. ₹600

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.co
Q.18 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 21 days and B can do the same
m
job in 15 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 2 days only. Then, C alone can do

. co the job in

s e m
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a
se 1.

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2.

3.

4.
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Q.19
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The volume of a right circular cylinder whose height is 20 cm and circumference of the
base is 44 cm is:
m s em
s e l a
a ag
(Take )
l
Ans
ag
1. 3080 cu.cm

2. 7623 cu. cm

3. 1936 cu. cm

4. 5082 cu.cm

Q.20
Ans 1.

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2.

3.

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4.
las
ag
Q.21 9 years ago, the age of a father was 25 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 21

2. 18

3. 19

4. 16

m
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Q.22 The total surface area of a cube having side 74 cm is:
m
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Ans 1. 32856 cm2
e m
e m 2. 32896 cm2
l as
l as 3. 32857 cm2
ag
ag 4. 32846 cm2

Q.23 The average of first 171 even numbers is
Ans 1. 172

2. 173

3. 172.5

4. 171.5

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.24 The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg,
56 kg, 76 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 53.2

2. 52.2

3. 50.2

4. 51.2

Q.25 Simplify: x(3x - 7) + 7(x2 -4) + 18
Ans 1. 10x2 - 7x - 10

2. -10x2 -7x -10

3. 10x2 - 7x + 10

4. -10x2 -7x + 10

Q.26 A number, when increased by 60%, gives 3580. The number is:
Ans 1. 4475

2. 6712.5

3. 2237.5

4. 1118.75

Q.27 By selling 6 buttons for a rupee, a man loses 45%. To gain 10% how many must he sell
for a rupee?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 3

4. 5

Q.28 A, B and C started a business investing ₹610, ₹630 and ₹1,450, respectively. If B's share
in the profit earned by them is ₹591. what is the difference in the profit (in ₹) earned by
A and C?
Ans 1. ₹785

2. ₹786

3. ₹791

4. ₹788

Q.29 A man goes to Indore from Bhopal at a speed of 12 km/hr and returns to Bhopal at
speed of 24 km/hr, through the same route. What is his average speed (in km/hr) of the
entire journey?
Ans 1. 12

2. 21

3. 16

4. 11

Q.30 The number of prime numbers lying between 411 and 424, both included, is:
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 5

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.1 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
m
52749631, then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus

. co formed?

s e m
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a
se 2. One
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3. Four

4. Three

Q.2 KNML is related to ADCB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, WZYX is related to MPON. To which of the given options is SVUT related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. IKLJ

2. IKJI
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3. ILKO
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4. ILKJ

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.3 If 1 is added to each even digit of the number 36719542, then what will be the sum of the
l
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digits that are repeated more than once in the new number formed?
Ans 1. 8

2. 12

3. 15

4. 10

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘CALM’ is coded as ‘3257’ and ‘MONK’ is coded as ‘1346’.
What is the code for ‘M’ in the given code language?

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Ans 1. 5

2. 3

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3. 1
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4. 7
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Q.5 In a certain code language,
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A $ B means ‘A is the son of B’
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is E related to N if ‘E $ F ÷ G + M @ N’?
Ans 1. Wife's father

2. Wife's brother

3. Father
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4. Brother

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Q.6
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
l as
l as 5 4 2 −2 −10 ?
ag
ag Ans 1. −27

2. −24

3. −26

4. −25

m .
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s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.7 Six people, D, E, F, G, H and Y, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. F
sits third to the left of G. Only one person sits between F and Y when counted from the
right of F. Only two people sit between Y and H. D is an immediate neighbour of H. How
many people sit between D and E when counted from right of E?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Zero

4. Three

Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All oranges are apples.
All apples are grapes.

Conclusions:
(I) Some apples are oranges.
(II) All grapes are oranges.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.9 112 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Into is 11th from the left end while Mr.
Toni is 19th from the right end. How many people are there between Mr. Into and Mr.
Toni?
Ans 1. 82

2. 83

3. 81

4. 85

Q.10 If 3 is added to each even digit and 2 is added to each odd digit in the number 2571463,
what will be the sum of the first and last digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 10

2. 18

3. 14

4. 12

Q.11 In a row of 47 students facing north, Sanjana is 27th from the left end. If Ananad is 18th
to the right of Sanjana, what is Ananad's position from the right end of the line?
Ans 1. 1st

2. 4th

3. 3rd

4. 2nd

Q.12 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 121 256 812 658 527 (Right)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position(s) of how many
numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Zero

4. Two

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m
.co
Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co ZFN FLT LRZ RXF ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. XSD

2. XLD ag l
3. XDL

4. XDS

Q.14 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the pair in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
m
.co
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as

m
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1

.co m
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

m s e
140, 75

s e l a
ag
168, 103

l a
ag
Ans 1. 106, 51

2. 125, 70

3. 115, 60

4. 175, 110

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

TWY RUW PSU NQS ?
Ans 1. LPR
m
2. LOQ
m .co
3. LPQ
s e
4. LOR
g la
Q.16
a
In a certain code language, ‘it is tasty’ is written as ‘mt bk lo’ and ‘did it go’ is coded as
‘mf jo mt’. How is ‘it’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. mf

2. lo

3. jo

4. mt

m
.co
Q.17 Saif starts from Point A and drives 31 km towards East. He then takes a right turn,
m
.co
drives 35 km, turns right and drives 47 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 45 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 16 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
e m
e mand towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns

l as
s
are 90° turns only unless specified.)

l a Ans 1. 11 km to the South
ag
ag 2. 10 km to the South

3. 10 km to the East

4. 11 km to the West

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.18 Suresh starts from Point M and drives 10 km towards north. Then, he takes a right turn
and drives 4 km; he turns right again and drives 4 km. Then, he takes a left turn and
drives 2 km; then, he turns right and drives 8 km. Then, he takes a final right turn,
drives 6 km and stops at Point N. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should she drive in order to reach Point M again? (All turns are 90-degree
turns only, unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km towards north

2. 4 km towards north

3. 2 km towards south

4. 4 km towards south

Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: Some trees are chairs. Some chairs are graphs.

Conclusion (I): Some trees are graphs.
Conclusion (II): All graphs are chairs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.20 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. SJ-NT

2. OF-JQ

3. MD-HN

4. KB-FL

Q.21 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FO - YJ

2. BX - US

3. WA - PV

4. TJ - LE

Q.22 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. TXR

2. NRM

3. JNI

4. QUP

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m
.co
Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 3 11 20 30 41 ?

s e m
m Ans 1. 58
a
se 2. 49
ag l
3. 67

4. 53

Q.24 Pritam is ranked 5th from the top and 21st from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans 1. 25

2. 29

m
.co
3. 24
m
.co m
4. 26

m s e
s e l a
ag
Q.25 Seven people, I, J, K, L, U, V and W are sitting in a row, facing north.

l a
Only two people sit to the right of K. Only two people sit between K and U. Only two

ag
people sit between I and V. V sits to the immediate left of K. L sits to the immediate right
of W.
Who sits at third position from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. I

2. L

3. J

4. W

Q.26 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
(Left) 570 787 488 277 102 (Right)

m .co
s e
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

la
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

ag
In how many numbers is the resultant of the summation of the first and the third digits a
prime number?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. None

Q.27 LK 19 is related to GG 2 in a certain way. In the same way, IT 29 is related to DP 12. To
m
.co
which of the following is OV 15 related, following the same logic?
Ans
m
1. JR 2

m.co 2. IS 4
s e m
s e 3. JS 4
g l a
g l a 4. IR 2 a
a Q.28 Each of the digits in the number 8357691 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. Three

4. One
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.29 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

31 20 7 −8 −25 ?
Ans 1. −42

2. −44

3. −43

4. −45

Q.30 CHRX is related to FKXD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, OTPV is related to RWVB. To which of the given options is XCHN related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. AFNU

2. AFTN

3. ATFN

4. AFNT

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 13/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants was adopted at a
Conference of Plenipotentiaries in which year?
Ans 1. 2000

2. 2002

3. 2001

4. 2003

m
Q.2 How can you access menus in the menu bar in Windows?

m .co
Ans 1. Press Ctrl + M to open the menu.
s e
la
2. Right-click on the title bar to open the menu bar.

g
a
3. Press Alt and the letter underlined in the menu title to access a menu.

4. Press F5 to open the menu bar.

Q.3 Which Indian institute introduced two new BTech programs in Computational
Engineering and Mechanics and Instrumentation and Biomedical Engineering, starting
from the academic year 2025-26?
Ans 1. Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

2. Indian Institute of Technology Bombay

m
.co
3. Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur

m
.co
4. Indian Institute of Technology Madras

e m
e
Q.4 m
When was the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) launched by the Government of
l as
l as India?
ag
ag Ans 1. 26 January 2006

2. 12 April 2004

3. 12 April 2005

4. 8 March 2004

Q.5 The Dutch East India Company established its first factory in India in _________.
Ans 1. Calicut

2. Goa
m .
.co m
3. Petapuli

s e
4. Pondicherry

s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.6 Why is an alloy considered a mixture even though it cannot be separated by physical
methods?
Ans 1. It is formed only by non-metals.

2. It shows the properties of its constituents and can have variable composition.

3. It contains only one type of element in vapor form.

4. Alloys are always magnetic because they contain metals with a fixed composition.

Q.7 In 2025, who became the youngest Indian to summit Mt. Everest and to complete the
Seven Summits challenge?
Ans 1. Vishwanath Padakanti

2. Malavath Purna

3. Krushnaa Patil

4. Arjun Vajpai

Q.8 Which of the following projects is designed to provide irrigation to Rajasthan’s desert
areas?
Ans 1. Indira Gandhi Canal

2. Hirakud Project

3. Chambal Project

4. Kosi Project

Q.9 In most software applications, what does Ctrl + S do if pressed multiple times?
Ans 1. Updates the saved file without creating a new one

2. Reverts the document

3. Saves a new copy each time

4. Deletes the previous version

Q.10 Which department, headed by Dabir-i-Khas, handled royal correspondence and official
communication during the Delhi Sultanate?
Ans 1. Diwan-i-Riyasat

2. Diwan-i-Arz

3. Diwan-i-Insha

4. Barid-i-Mumalik

Q.11 In which Indian city was the First International Research Conference on Pension (IRCP)
inaugurated in April 2025?
Ans 1. New Delhi

2. Mumbai

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Kerala

Q.12 The western cyclonic disturbances that enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and
the northwest during the winter months originate from which of the following regions?
Ans 1. Mediterranean Sea

2. Black Sea

3. Baltic Sea

4. North Atlantic Ocean

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.co
Q.13 Which eminent violinist from Karnataka was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2025 for
m
his outstanding contributions to Indian classical music?

. co
Ans 1. Anant Nag
s e m
m a
se l
2. Lakshminarayana Subramaniam

3. Gangubai Hangal
ag
4. Ricky Kej

Q.14 Who took charge as the Vice Chief of the Air Staff of the Indian Air Force on 2 May
2025?
Ans 1. Air Marshal Anil Chopra

2. Air Marshal Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria

3. Air Marshal SP Dharkar
m
m
4. Air Marshal Narmdeshwar Tiwari
.co
Q.15
m .co
In 1995, physicists Eric Cornell and Carl Wieman created the first Bose-Einstein
s em
s e
condensate (BEC) using which isotope?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Caesium-133
ag
ag
2. Thorium-232

3. Rubidium-87

4. Sodium-23

Q.16 Which Article of the Constitution states, 'no person shall be deprived of his property
save by authority of law'?
Ans 1. Article 111

2. Article 2
m
.co
3. Article 300A

4. Article 368
e m
las
Q.17
g
As per the first Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) report released in April 2025, which
a
two states are leading with the highest number of “front runner” panchayats?
Ans 1. Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh

2. Assam and West Bengal

3. Gujarat and Telangana

4. Meghalaya and Nagaland

Q.18 What is the name of the medical instrument used to listen to internal body sounds,
especially from the heart and lungs?
m
.co
Ans 1. Barometer
m
.co m
2. Endoscope

m s e
s e 3. Stethoscope

g l a
g l a 4. Colonoscope
a
a Q.19 In 2025, which region in India witnessed Kuki groups demanding the maintenance of
buffer zones to manage ethnic tensions?
Ans 1. Nagaland

2. Assam

3. Mizoram

4. Manipur

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.20 On 23 April 2025, the Indian Government announced the suspension of which
treaty/agreement with Pakistan citing national security concerns?
Ans 1. Indus Waters Treaty

2. Tashkent Declaration

3. Simla Agreement

4. Non-Nuclear Aggression Agreement

Q.21 In which of the following cities was the Army Commanders Conference held in April
2025?
Ans 1. New Delhi

2. Jodhpur

3. Pune

4. Chandigarh

Q.22 What key emotion did the Extremists aim to arouse in people against British colonial
rule?
Ans 1. Fear

2. Sympathy

3. Loyalty

4. Indignation

Q.23 India has been a World Trade Organization (WTO) member since _____.
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2000

3. 1995

4. 1990

Q.24 What is the primary reason for overexploitation of groundwater in Punjab and Haryana?
Ans 1. Excessive use of water for domestic consumption

2. Cultivation of water-intensive crops like paddy

3. Government restrictions on surface water use

4. Presence of sandy soils with poor water retention

Q.25 The Vardhan dynasty, was also known by which of the following names?
Ans 1. Gupta dynasty

2. Pushyabhuti dynasty

3. Nanda dynasty

4. Maurya dynasty

Q.26 Which of the following states introduced India’s first AI Powered Real Time Forest alert
system in May 2025?
Ans 1. Jharkhand

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Karnataka

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.27 JD Vance was sworn in as the ________ Vice President of the United States in 2025.
Ans 1. 48th

2. 50th

3. 49th

4. 51st

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.co
Q.28 In which of the following years were the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms introduced by
m
the British Government in India to gradually establish self-governing institutions?

. co
Ans 1. 1931
s e m
m a
se l
2. 1919

3. 1944
ag
4. 1923

Q.29 Which drainage pattern resembles the branches of a tree and is common in rivers of the
northern plains?
Ans 1. Dendritic

2. Trellis

3. Centripetal
m
4. Radial
m .co
Q.30
m .co
Which of the following Indian naval platforms took part in the Indo-Oman naval exercise
s em
s e
Naseem-Al-Bahr held in October 2024?
l a
Ans
l a
1. INS Trikand and Dornier Maritime Patrol Aircraft
ag
ag
2. INS Kolkata and Sea Guardian drone

3. INS Shivalik and P-8I aircraft

4. INS Vikrant and MiG-29K fighter jets

Q.31 Which Chandela ruler is credited with the construction of the Kandariya Mahadev
Temple situated in Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh, India?
Ans 1. Yashovarman

2. Kirttivarman
m
.co
3. Dhanga

4. Vidyadhara
e m
las
Q.32
Ans 1. WAVES Declaration ag
What declaration was made at the 2025 Global Media Dialogue on media ethics and AI?

2. NEUTRALITY Charter

3. TRUTH Pact

4. AI-TRUST Code

Q.33 Which platform provides online learning for civil servants under Mission Karmayogi in
India?
Ans 1. iGOT Karmayogi
m
m
2. NISG Portal
.co
m.co 3. ePathshala
s e m
s e 4. SWAYAM
g l a
g l a a
a Q.34 India's highway network is one of the largest in the world. Which scheme focuses on
the development of highways, particularly in economic corridors?
Ans 1. PM Gram Sadak Yojana

2. BharatNet

3. Sagarmala

4. Bharatmala Pariyojana

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.35 When was the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (MPFA) signed between the
Government of India and the Reserve Bank?
Ans 1. 14 August 2010

2. 20 April 2018

3. 8 December 2007

4. 20 February 2015

Q.36 Which of the following correctly describes a key function of Subordinate Courts in
India?
Ans 1. Resolve civil and criminal disputes at the district level

2. Interpret international treaties

3. Review decisions of High Courts

4. Draft laws for the State

Q.37 The National eCourts Project, launched by the Department of Justice, is primarily aimed
at:
Ans 1. creating new Central Administrative Tribunals

2. building new court complexes in rural areas

3. establishing a nationwide telecom system for police

4. digitising and upgrading district and subordinate courts

Q.38 What is the correct order of arrival of seismic waves at a seismograph after an
earthquake?
Ans 1. Surface waves, P-waves, S-waves

2. P-waves, surface waves, S-waves

3. S-waves, P-waves, surface waves

4. P-waves, S-waves, surface waves

Q.39 Which of the following Buddhist texts is often called the 'Gita of Buddhism' for its
importance and teachings?
Ans 1. Mahayana Sutra

2. Dhammapada

3. Vamsathapakasini

4. Saddharmapundarīka Sūtra

Q.40 Which Fundamental Right protects citizens from being forced into labour or human
trafficking?
Ans 1. Right to Freedom

2. Right to Equality

3. Right to Constitutional Remedies

4. Right against Exploitation

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 39°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 16°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 82°

2. 66°

3. 67°

4. 74°

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.co
Q.2 One-third of a journey is covered at a speed of 2 km/hr, the next one-third of the journey
m
is covered at a speed of 87 km/hr and the remaining journey is covered at a speed of 53

. co km/hr. The average speed (in km/hr, rounded off to 1 decimal place) for the entire
journey is:
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 2.7

2. 5.7 ag l
3. 8.3

4. 5

Q.3 Find the value of 5 −23 × 16 −23 × 21 −23.
Ans
1.

m
m .co
.co m
2.

m s e
s e l a
3.
l a ag
ag
4.

Q.4 The number 814242541 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 8

2. 12

3. 7
m
4. 15

m .co
Q.5
s e
I bought two speakers for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 8% and the second at a

la
gain of 22%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of
g
a
the first speaker.
Ans 1. 864

2. 900

3. 880

4. 904

Q.6 Pipe A can fill a tank in 17 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 21 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 19 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
m
m .co
Ans

.co
1.

e m
e m l as
l as 2.

ag
ag 3.

4.

Q.7

Ans 1. 34.8%
m .
2. 32.6%
.co s e m
3. 33.8%
s em l a
4. 32.3%
g la ag
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Q.8 Find the least number of square tiles required to completely cover a floor of dimensions
12.15 m by 11.34 m.
Ans 1. 230

2. 150

3. 210

4. 250

Q.9 Sapna invested ₹22,400 on simple interest, partly at 13% per annum and partly at 3%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 7 years, then find
the sum invested at 13% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 4,198

2. 4,200

3. 4,203

4. 4,197

Q.10 What is the median of the following data?

57, 96, 60, 91, 69, 50, 72, 16, 78, 73, 55
Ans 1. 70

2. 69.5

3. 69

4. 68.5

Q.11 If the third proportional of 9 and 57 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 363

2. 361

3. 358

4. 364

Q.12 An item is marked at ₹8,000. Two successive discounts of 10% and 15% are allowed.
Find the equivalent single discount rate.
Ans 1. 23.5%

2. 22.5%

3. 25.5%

4. 24.5%

Q.13 A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 1500 cm2. If the length of the rod is
68 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:

Ans 1. 3.51

2. 6.61

3. 3.87

4. 3.69

Q.14 A sum of ₹625 amounts to ₹841 in 2 years at a certain rate of interest per annum,
compounded annually. The rate of interest per annum is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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m
.co
Q.15 A man driving a car at a speed of 84 km/hr crosses a bridge in 1.6 minutes. Find the
m
length of the bridge.

. co
Ans 1. 2.24 km
s e m
m a
se l
2. 1.81 km

3. 2.46 km
ag
4. 1.82 km

Q.16 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 5?
Ans 1. 61,75,753

2. 65,67,359

3. 71,32,954

m
.co
4. 70,48,030

m
Q.17
.co
2 years ago, the age of a father was 22 years more than twice his son's age. After how

m
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. 17

l a
ag
2. 16

3. 21

4. 20

Q.18 The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 2180. The sum of
the numbers is:
Ans 1. 72

2. 74

m
.co
3. 66

4. 82

e m
Q.19
las
M and N start a business. M invests ₹35,000 more than N for 7 months and N invests for

capital contributed by M.
ag
5 months. M's share is ₹372 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹1,860. Find the

Ans 1. ₹5,35,000

2. ₹6,25,000

3. ₹6,00,000

4. ₹5,25,000

Q.20 Find the area of a triangle whose base is 28 cm and corresponding altitude is 15
cm.
m
m .co
.co
Ans 1. 280 cm2

e m
e m 2. 260 cm2

l as
l as 3. 210 cm2
ag
ag 4. 240 cm2

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 41 of 48

Q.21

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 A number, when increased by 100%, gives 2790. The number is:
Ans 1. 697.5

2. 2790

3. 4185

4. 1395

Q.23 Aarti, Anil, and Naveen invest ₹1,110, ₹1,760, and ₹1,230 respectively to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,620, then what is the share of Naveen
in the profit?
Ans 1. ₹487

2. ₹486

3. ₹483

4. ₹488

Q.24 The marked price of a watch is ₹2,860. A man bought the watch for ₹2,390.96, after
getting two successive discounts, one of which is 12%. What is rate of the other
discount?
Ans 1. 8%

2. 7%

3. 5%

4. 6%

Q.25 In an election between two candidates 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and
15% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 60% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 1394 votes. How many voters were
registered?
Ans 1. 10251

2. 10250

3. 10252

4. 10248

Q.26

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
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m
.co
Q.27
m
. co
Ans 1. 6.44
s e m
m a
se l
2. 11.58

3. 4.64
ag
4. 2.41

Q.28

Ans 1.

2.

m
.co
3.

m
.co
4.

em
Q.29
e m l as
l as .
ag
Ans ag
1. 62x − 67

2. −62x − 67

3. −62x + 67

4. 62x + 67

Q.30 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 41. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 15 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.
m
.co
Ans 1. 32.12

2. 34.12
e m
3. 35.12
las
4. 33.12
ag
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some trucks are cars.
m
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Some cars are bottles.
m
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Conclusions:

m s e m
s e
(I) Some trucks are bottles.
(II) All bottles are cars.
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
a
a 2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

YTQ UPM QLI MHE ?
Ans 1. IEB
m .
2. IDB
.co s e m
3. IEA
s em l a
4. IDA
g la ag
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Q.3 Seven boxes C, D, E, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only D is kept above N. Only two boxes are kept between N and O. Only P is kept below
C. E is not kept immediately above O.
How many boxes are kept between M and P?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. Four

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some pepper are spicy.
All spicy are chilly.

Conclusions:
(I): Some pepper are chilly.
(II): All chilly are spicy.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

28 + 42 × 2 − 4 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 31

2. 37

3. 19

4. 24

Q.6 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
3851764, what will be the sum of the digits which are third from the left and third from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 16

2. 10

3. 7

4. 8

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1500, 3005, 6015, 12035, 24075, ?
Ans 1. 48015

2. 48155

3. 48200

4. 48105

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘WIRE’ is coded as ‘4726’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘5173’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 7

4. 6

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m
.co
Q.9 Darshan starts from Point Y and drives 6 km towards west. He then takes a right turn
m
and drives 8 km. He then turns right and drives 11 km. He takes a final right turn, drives

. co 8 km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only,
s e m
m a
se l
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km towards east
ag
2. 4 km towards north

3. 5 km towards west

4. 6 km towards south

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

76 , 87 , 101 , 118 , 138 , ?
Ans 1. 164
m
2. 159
m .co
3. 162
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. 161

l a
Q.11
ag
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PTN

2. JNH

3. MQK

4. GKF
m
Q.12
m .co
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
s e
la
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down

g
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding

a
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(2, 49, 15)
(29, 112, 18)
Ans 1. (39, 134, 20)

2. (30, 75, 5)

3. (11, 63, 15)

4. (28, 106, 18)
m
m .co
.co
Q.13 H, I, J, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. I is
an immediate neighbour of both Q and H. H sits third to the left of P. R sits to the
e m
e m
immediate left of P. J is not an immediate neighbour of H. Who sits third to the left of S?

l as
l asAns 1. J

ag
ag 2. P

3. Q

4. H

Q.14 All 30 students in a class are standing in a row facing north. Alok is 12th from the right
end while Aman is 16th from the left end. How many students stand between Alok and
Aman?
Ans 1. 3

2. 2
m .
3. 5
.co s e m
4. 4
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.15 If 3 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
6243514, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. Three

4. One

Q.16 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single digit numbers only.)

(Left) 1 $ 2 6 7 3 * & 4 β μ 2 5 % 9 0 2 3 6 # @ 8 (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following numbers will be
the fifth from the left?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 1

Q.17 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7431856, which of the following digits will be second from the right in the new number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 2

2. 8

3. 4

4. 6

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

KPV RWC YDJ FKQ ?
Ans 1. MXR

2. MYU

3. MRX

4. MUY

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘FATE’ is coded as ‘2357’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘4126’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in that language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 5

4. 2

Q.20 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

MT-OV-QS
OV-QX-SU
Ans 1. HO-JQ-LM

2. GO-JQ-LM

3. HO-JQ-LN

4. GO-IQ-LM

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m
.co
Q.21 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. TM-OS
ag
2. SL-NQ

3. XQ-SV

4. VO-QT

Q.22 Rajesh, Heera, Neetu, Santosh, Pooja and Arti are sitting around a circle, facing the
centre Rajesh sits second to the left of Arti. Arti sits third to the right of Pooja. Neetu
sits second to the left of Santosh. Who sits to the immediate right of Santosh?
Ans 1. Pooja
m
2. Arti
m .co
3. Heera
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. Rajesh

l a
Q.23
ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

35 50 70 95 125 ?
Ans 1. 175

2. 160

3. 165

4. 170

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Q.24 In a row of people all facing North, Navya is 12th from the left end. Uma is 19th from the
left end. Uma is exactly between Navya and Dilip. If Dilip is 13th from the right end of the
line, how many people are there in the row?
e m
Ans 1. 35

las
2. 37

3. 34
ag
4. 38

Q.25 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) @ 7 8 % * Ω 2 1 # 4 3 0 π 9 μ 7 8 Ω # 9 β (Right)

How many such symbols are there, which are immediately preceded by an odd number
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and also immediately followed by an even number?

m
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Ans 1. Three

e m
e m
2. Four

l as
l as 3. One

ag
ag 4. None

Q.26 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FL - PG

2. HN - RI

m .
3. DJ - NE

4. BH - LD
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.27 Gyamel starts from Point A and drives 20 km towards West. He then takes a left turn,
drives 18 km, turns left and drives 23 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 25 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km to the West

2. 4 km to the South

3. 7 km to the South

4. 6 km to the North

Q.28 A is the sister of H. H is the father of E. E is the son of N. M is the mother of N. How is A
related to N?
Ans 1. Daughter's husband's mother

2. Daughter's husband's sister

3. Husband's mother

4. Husband's sister

Q.29 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
GAIN - AIGN - NIAG
SINE - INSE - ENIS
Ans 1. GAME - AMGE - AMEG

2. MONK - OMNK - KONM

3. SEAT - SAET - TAES

4. RICE - ICRE - ECIR

Q.30 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic.

MARK - MKRA - KRAM
PLAY - PYAL - YALP
Ans 1. TRAY - TRYA - RAYT

2. FIRE - IFRE - EIRF

3. GATE - GTAE - ETAG

4. BUSH - BHSU - HSUB

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