RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 29 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 29 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 29/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following is a private sector organisation in India?
Ans 1. SAIL

2. TISCO

3. ONGC

4. Indian Railways

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Q.2 Which of the following States enjoys special provisions under Article 371A due to its
unique customary law and land ownership practices?
Ans 1. Sikkim
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2. Mizoram
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3. Nagaland
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4. Manipur

Q.3 Who among the following sent a telegram on 6 August 1857 stating, 'Our men are cowed
by the numbers opposed to them and the endless fighting. Every village is held against
us, the zamindars have risen to oppose us'?
Ans 1. Lieutenant Colonel William Lambton

2. Lord Cornwallis

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3. Lieutenant Colonel Tytler

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4. Robert Clive

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Q.4 m
What does ASCII stand for?
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3. Advanced Standard Coding in Information Industry

4. Automated System for Computer Information Interchange

Q.5 Which of following sports events was clinched by Indian pair Manush Shah and Diya
Chitale in April 2025?
Ans 1. WTT Contender Lagos 2025

2. WTT Contender Tunis 2025
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3. WTT Star Contender Ljubljana 2025

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4. United States Smash 2025

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Q.6 What is the mass percentage of sodium hypochlorite typically present in a commercial
bleaching solution?
Ans 1. 3.62%

2. 5.46%

3. 2.57%

4. 10.85%

Q.7 In which of the following cities was the Paramhansa Mandali founded to work for the
abolition of caste?
Ans 1. Kanpur

2. Surat

3. Patna

4. Bombay

Q.8 What is the name of the Indian Light Tank that achieved a major milestone in high-
altitude firing trials in December 2024?
Ans 1. Arjun

2. Zorawar

3. Bhishma

4. Vijayanta

Q.9 According to the India Justice Report 2025, which two states have the highest share of
women judges at the High Court level at 33%?
Ans 1. Kerala and Andhra Pradesh

2. Uttar Pradesh and Odisha

3. Sikkim and Telangana

4. Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh

Q.10 Select the correct sequence of steps to create a new folder on the desktop?
Ans 1. Right-click Taskbar → Select Folder → Press Enter

2. Click Start → Settings → New → Folder

3. Open File Explorer → Right-click Desktop → New Folder

4. Right-click Desktop → New → Folder

Q.11 Which of the following factors DOES NOT directly influence population distribution in
India?
Ans 1. Official language

2. Climate

3. Soil fertility

4. Topography

Q.12 Article 6 deals with persons who migrated to India from _____.
Ans 1. Bangladesh

2. Sri Lanka

3. Pakistan

4. Nepal

Q.13 Which area of the main stem and roots contains the spongy, soft parenchyma cells that
carry and store nutrients for the plant?
Ans 1. Pith

2. Cortex

3. Metaxylem

4. Stele
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Q.14 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with Union Territories?
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Ans 1. Article 7

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4. Article 239

Q.15 Which of the following players completed 12,000 runs in T20 cricket and became eighth
player to achieve the milestone in April 2025?
Ans 1. Ravindra Jadeja

2. MS Dhoni

3. Rohit Sharma

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4. Virat Kohli

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Q.16
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Which organisation published the 2025 edition of the 'State of the World’s Nursing'
report?
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Ans 1. International Labour Organization (ILO)

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2. World Bank

3. UNICEF

4. World Health Organization (WHO)

Q.17 Birch and Rhododendrons are found in which kind of forests?
Ans 1. Tropical Evergreen and Semi Evergreen forests

2. Tropical Thorn forests

3. Montane forests
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4. Littoral and Swamp forests

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Q.18
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The Visuddhimagga, a key Buddhist text, was written by which of the following
scholars?
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Ans 1. Nagarjuna
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2. Aryadeva

3. Buddhaghosa

4. Vasubandhu

Q.19 Who among the following presented the First Five-Year Plan on July 9, 1951?
Ans 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

2. Rajendra Prasad
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3. Jawaharlal Nehru
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g l a Q.20 Which of the following is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts
(ASW SWCs) delivered to the Indian Navy on 8 May 2025? a
a Ans 1. Arnala

2. Kamorta

3. Kadmatt

4. Kiltan

Q.21 After amalgamation of 26 Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in fourth phase of
amalgamation, as notified by Department of Financial Services (DFS) in 2025, how many
RRBs will be left in the country?
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Ans 1. 25

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2. 28

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3. 18


4. 21
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Q.22 In April 2025, a tri-services all women circumnavigation sailing expedition, 'Samudra
Pradakshina' flagged off from:
Ans 1. Durgapur

2. Madurai

3. Trivandrum

4. Mumbai

Q.23 The Kailasa Temple at Ellora is an example of which of the following types of
architecture?
Ans 1. Wooden architecture

2. Rock-cut architecture

3. Islamic architecture

4. Colonial architecture

Q.24 In which of the following years did the Government of Bengal pass the Calcutta Electric
Lighting Act?
Ans 1. 1895

2. 1900

3. 1911

4. 1904

Q.25 During May 2025, the 4th Europe-Africa Forum was organised in which location?
Ans 1. Nice

2. Marseille

3. Lyon

4. Paris

Q.26 e-NAM is a key reform aimed at integrating agricultural markets in India. What is the
primary goal of the e-NAM initiative?
Ans 1. Crop insurance

2. Minimum wage guarantee

3. Online trading of agricultural produce

4. Fertiliser subsidy

Q.27 The RTI Act empowers citizens of India to seek information from which of the following?
Ans 1. Private companies

2. Foreign embassies

3. Non-governmental organisations

4. Government departments

Q.28 Which programme was launched in 1953 to expand rural development more feasibly?
Ans 1. National Extension Service (NES)

2. Bharat Nirman Yojana

3. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana

4. Training for Rural Youth for Self-Employment

Q.29 Which acid was first created from inorganic materials by Hermann Kolbe in 1845?
Ans 1. Sulphuric acid

2. Formic Acid

3. Citric Acid

4. Acetic Acid

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Q.30 Western disturbances mainly affect the weather of which region in India?
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Ans 1. North-West India

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4. Deccan Plateau

Q.31 Which of the following transportation systems was primarily developed in India to serve
colonial economic interests?
Ans 1. Inland waterways

2. Metro rail

3. Railways

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4. Airways

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Q.32
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During the Indus Valley Civilisation, the presence of jewellery made from precious

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metals and semi-precious stones in small-town settings supports the argument that
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____.
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1. the civilisation was ruled by autocratic priest-kings
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2. there was an equal access to material goods

3. there was strong social stratification

4. only the elite had access to luxury items.

Q.33 In 2025, ISRO sprouted which of the following seeds in space under microgravity
conditions?
Ans 1. Soya bean seeds

2. Chickpea seed
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3. Cowpea seeds

4. Kidney bean seeds
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Q.34
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Which of the following groups of people is said to have migrated into the late Indus
Valley era India from Central Asia?
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Ans 1. Dravidas

2. Mesopotamians

3. Aryans

4. Shakas

Q.35 What is the name of the indigenous electric trainer aircraft initiative launched by India in
March 2025 to promote green aviation?
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Ans 1. Green Hawk
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2. E-HANSA

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a Q.36 When was the historic Paris Agreement on climate change adopted by world leaders
during the UN Climate Change Conference (COP21)?
Ans 1. 1999

2. 2005

3. 2012

4. 2015

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Q.37 Which of the following joint military exercises is conducted annually between the
armies of India and Japan, with the sixth edition held near Mount Fuji in 2025?
Ans 1. Maitree

2. Shakti

3. Indra

4. Dharma Guardian

Q.38 Christian Stalker is the Federal Chancellor of which country?
Ans 1. Austria

2. Finland

3. Sweden

4. Norway

Q.39 The Right to Protection in respect of conviction for offences (including protection from
double jeopardy and self-incrimination) is covered under:
Ans 1. Article 22

2. Article 20

3. Article 23

4. Article 21

Q.40 Which type of weathering is primarily involved in the enrichment of bauxite and other
ores?
Ans 1. Mechanical weathering

2. Glacial weathering

3. Biological weathering

4. Chemical weathering

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 43. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 16 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.
Ans 1. 33.82

2. 34.82

3. 35.82

4. 36.82

Q.2

Ans 1. 11.49

2. 9.66

3. 16.65

4. 16.25

Q.3 Five solid cubes, each of volume 39304 cm3, are joined end to end to form a cuboid.
What is the lateral surface area (in cm2) of the cuboid?
Ans 1. 13872

2. 13838

3. 13905

4. 13877

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Q.4 Pipe A can fill a tank in 18 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 28 hours and pipe C
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can fill the same tank in 11 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they

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Q.5

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3.

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Q.6 Train A leaves station M at 6:25 AM and reaches station N at 3:25 PM on the same day.
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Train B leaves station N at 8:25 AM and reaches station M at 2:25 PM on the same day.
Find the time when trains A and B meet.
Ans 1. 11:43 AM
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2. 10:53 AM
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3. 12:13 PM
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4. 11:13 AM

Q.7 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.
17, 19, 12, 20, 19, 14, 15, 18, 19, 14
The mode of the given data is:
Ans 1. 20

2. 12

3. 17
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4. 19

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Q.8
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If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is equal to four times the sum of its
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2. 35

3. 25

4. 40

Q.9 Simplify: x(2x - 3) + 2(x2 - 4) + 16
Ans 1. 4x2 - 3x + 8

2. -4x2 - 3x + 8
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3. 4x2 - 3x - 8

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4. -4x2 - 3x - 8

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Q.10 A dealer offers successive discounts of 15% and 12% on a refrigerator marked at
₹25,000. What is the final selling price?
Ans 1. ₹18,900

2. ₹18,700

3. ₹19,000

4. ₹18,800

Q.11 I bought two pendants for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 10% and the second at
a gain of 14%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹)
of the first pendant.
Ans 1. 724

2. 684

3. 720

4. 700

Q.12 Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 36 min and 45 min, respectively. There is a
pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are opened
simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 70 min. How long will the pipe at
the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other pipe is then
open?
Ans 1. 20 min

2. 28 min

3. 8 min

4. 44 min

Q.13 The marked price of a shirt is ₹500. If the shopkeeper offers a 20% discount, what is the
selling price of the shirt?
Ans 1. ₹480

2. ₹400

3. ₹450

4. ₹420

Q.14 Ishaan and Meghna have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Ishaan
is driving at 90 km/hr while Meghna is driving at 65 km/hr. Find the time taken by
Meghna to reach Kanpur if Ishaan takes 13 hours.
Ans 1. 21 hours

2. 27 hours

3. 23 hours

4. 18 hours

Q.15

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.16 A number, when increased by 70%, gives 3400. The number is:
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Ans 1. 6000

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4. 1000

Q.17 If the third proportional of 8 and 20 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 48

2. 52

3. 50

4. 47
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Q.18 Ritu, Sameer, and Isha invest ₹1,190, ₹1,060, and ₹1,350, respectively, to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,640, then what is the share of Isha in
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the profit?
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Ans 1. ₹613

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2. ₹614

3. ₹617

4. ₹615

Q.19 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 17 and 1224, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 136, find the other one.
Ans 1. 85

2. 102

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3. 153

4. 119

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Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 7.5% per annum rate of interest deposited on

Ans
4 February 2024 and withdrawn on 5 April 2024.
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2. 49

3. 48

4. 51

Q.21 If 3 times a mother's present age is 24 years more than 9 times her daughter's present
age, and 4 times the daughter's present age is 2 years less than the mother's present
age, then what is the difference (in years) between the ages of the mother and the
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daughter?

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Ans 1. 20

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2. 22

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Q.22 The LCM of the numbers 5.3 and 0.4 is:
Ans 1. 0.212

2. 212

3. 21.2

4. 2.12

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Q.23 The number 563607 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 8

2. 3

3. 13

4. 10

Q.24 In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and
19% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 70% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 1458 votes. How many voters were
registered?
Ans 1. 5625

2. 5622

3. 5627

4. 5623

Q.25 Find the value of 95 −17 ÷ 95 9 × 95 −15.
Ans 1. 95 −49

2. 95 −41

3. 95 −35

4. 95 −42

Q.26 The cost of 2 pens and 15 pencils is ₹286. If the cost of a pen decreases by ₹4 and the
cost of a pencil increases by ₹2, then the cost of 17 pens and 3 pencils is ₹128. What is
the original cost of 11 pens and 8 pencils?
Ans 1. ₹229

2. ₹228

3. ₹232

4. ₹235

Q.27 Salman and Vivek together invested ₹33,900 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹10,000, Vivek's share was ₹3,700. What was the difference between
their investments?
Ans 1. ₹8,814

2. ₹9,547

3. ₹8,840

4. ₹9,551

Q.28 Sapna invested ₹20,300 on simple interest, partly at the rate of 8% per annum and partly
at the rate of 6% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after
6 years, then find the sum invested at the rate of 8% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 8,699

2. 8,697

3. 8,702

4. 8,700

Q.29 The selling price of 10 books is equal to the cost price of 16 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage on these books.
Ans 1. 60% loss

2.

3. 60% gain

4.

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Q.30
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Ans 1.

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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
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3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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(45, 80, 5)
(39, 30, 24)
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Ans 1. (45, 72, 9)
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2. (15, 10, 11)a ag
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3. (27, 6, 25)

4. (15, 0, 16)

Q.2 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. GJP

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2. KNT

3. QIA
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4. ORX
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Q.3 ag
All 79 students in a class are standing in a row facing north. Shantanu is 37th from the
right end while Vani is 23rd from the left end. How many people stand between
Shantanu and Vani?
Ans 1. 20

2. 21

3. 18

4. 19

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Q.4
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Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
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same order. Only four boxes are kept between F and A. Only B is kept above F. Only two
boxes are kept between G and E. D is kept immediately above C. E is not kept
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immediately above D. How many boxes are kept between E and F?

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3. 1

4. 4

Q.5 IGBF is related to OMHL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, KIDH is related to QOJN. To which of the given options is MKFJ related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. SQLP

2. QSLP
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3. QSPL
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4. SQPL
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Q.6 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (Note: All numbers are single digit numbers
only.)

(Left) 6 2 & % 5 9 # 8 $ 7 + Ω @ 1 * £ 3 4 (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by another
symbol and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 5

4. 2

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘life is mysterious’ is coded as ‘qr gt ob’ and ‘give his life’ is
coded as ‘ob ft rd’. How is ‘life’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ft

2. rd

3. qr

4. ob

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘PEST’ is coded as ‘4597’ and ‘HEPS’ is coded as ‘7654’.
What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 5

4. 7

Q.9 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

BGS 153, XLO 142, TQK 131, PVG 120, LAC 109, ?
Ans 1. FHA 98

2. GDZ 101

3. IDX 101

4. HFY 98

Q.10 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All Wolves are Rhinoceroses.
No Rhinoceroses are Kangaroos.

Conclusions:
I: No Kangaroos are Wolves.
II: Some Kangaroos are Wolves.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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Q.11 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
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position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MOK
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2. OQM

3. OSP

4. DFB

Q.12 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, K, L and O, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below O. Only one box is kept above L. Only
one box is kept between L and D. C is kept immediately above K. A is kept at some
place below B. How many boxes are kept between B and C?
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Ans 1. Four
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2. Two

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3. Three

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4. One
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Q.13 ag
What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

25 − 9 × 3 + 4 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 20

2. 17

3. 19

4. 18
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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991 990 992 991 993 992 994 ?
Ans 1. 993

2. 996 ag
3. 995

4. 992

Q.15 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

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Statements:

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All doors are carpets.

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No carpet is a mat.
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(II) No mat is a carpet. a
a Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.16 B is the brother of A. A is the wife of C. C is the father of K. K is the mother of S. How is
B related to S?
Ans 1. Mother's mother's sister
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2. Mother's sister's daughter
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3. Mother's mother's brother

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4. Mother's sister's son
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Q.17 Vignesh starts from Point Y and drives 17 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 25 km. He then turns right and drives 9 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 25
km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless
specified.)
Ans 1. 26 km towards east

2. 26 km towards north

3. 19 km towards south

4. 13 km towards west

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

12 ÷ 6 + 28 × 4 − 11 = ?
Ans 1. 72

2. 76

3. 74

4. 78

Q.19 L, M, N, O, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between O and R when counted from the right of O. Only two people
sit between R and M. Only three people sit between O and N. L sits to the immediate left
of Q. Who sits third to the left of S?
Ans 1. Q

2. R

3. L

4. N

Q.20 Each of the digits in the number 5936814 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and fourth from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 13

2. 9

3. 11

4. 8

Q.21 Nilesh starts from Point Y and drives 17 km towards the north. He then takes a left turn
and drives 31 km, then turns left and drives 45 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
23 km. He takes a right turn, drives 28 km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest
distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 61 km towards the west

2. 58 km towards the west

3. 54 km towards the east

4. 49 km towards the east

Q.22 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
DKC ZGY ? RYQ NUM
Ans 1. UDU

2. VCV

3. VCU

4. VDU

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Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 112 101 90 79 68 ?

s e m
m Ans 1. 56
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se 2. 54
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3. 55

4. 57

Q.24 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MC - PY
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2. YV - CR
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3. PF - SB
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4. JB - MX

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Q.25
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If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
9524367, then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. Three

4. One

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Q.26 Seven people, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only two people sit to the left of B. Only three people sit between B and Q. Only one

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person sits between Q and P. D sits to the immediate left of C. R is not an immediate
neighbour of Q.
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How many people sit to the right of A?
Ans 1. Three

2. One ag
3. Two

4. Four

Q.27 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

RUST - URST - RSTU
KITE - IKTE - KTEI
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Ans
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1. MINK - IMNK - KINM
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m.co 2. MANY - AMNY - MNYA
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s e 3. SPOT - PSOT - POTS
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g l a 4. VEIN - VIEN - NIEV a
a Q.28 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
SDF : RCE
MVZ : LUY
Ans 1. BGJ : AFI

2. RTY : SZU

3. ADH : BFJ

4. CNR : DOS
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Q.29 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 538 745 317 853 276 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 9

2. 8

3. 11

4. 10

Q.30 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

4 8 24 96 ? 2880
Ans 1. 240

2. 410

3. 480

4. 320

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m m .co
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Test Date 29/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following subjects was NOT a part of the Transferred Subjects under the
Government of India Act of 1919?
Ans 1. Local self-government

2. Police

3. Health

4. Education

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Q.2
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Which of the following properties generally increases across a period (left to right) in
the periodic table?
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Ans 1. Reduction
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2. Ionisation enthalpy
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3. Metallic character a
4. Atomic radius

Q.3 Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) in
2025, succeeding Preeti Sudan?
Ans 1. Sanjay Mitra

2. Anil Swarup

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3. Ajay Kumar

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4. Rajiv Gauba

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Q.4 m
Yagnavarman, Sardulavarman and Anantavarman were the kings of which of the
l as
l as following kingdoms?
ag
ag Ans 1. Magadha Guptas

2. Maitrakas of Valabhi

3. Maukharis of Kanauj

4. Pushyabhutis of Thanesar

Q.5 Before becoming the Chief Justice of India, Justice BR Gavai served in which court?
Ans 1. Delhi High Court

2. Allahabad High Court
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3. Bombay High Court

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4. Madras High Court

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Q.6 What is the purpose of the submarine cable project launched by the Indian National
Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) in 2025?
Ans 1. Improve underwater defense systems

2. Support ocean tourism

3. Increase internet speed in coastal areas

4. Enhance long-term Indian Ocean observations

Q.7 A solution with a pH of 2 is how many times more acidic than a solution with pH 4?
Ans 1. 10 times

2. 2 times

3. 100 times

4. 200 times

Q.8 The spread of the Green Revolution technology enabled India to achieve self-
sufficiency in __________.
Ans 1. sugarcane

2. vegetables

3. oil seeds

4. food grains

Q.9 Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory explains the Law of Definite Proportions?
Ans 1. Atoms are indivisible and indestructible.

2. Atoms of different elements have different masses and properties.

3. Atoms of the same element are identical in mass and size.

4. Atoms combine in simple whole-number ratios to form compounds.

Q.10 Which ISRO mission, launched in May 2025, aims to enhance India's all-weather day-
and-night Earth observation capabilities?
Ans 1. INSAT-3DS

2. Cartosat-3

3. RISAT-1B

4. EOS-09

Q.11 Who among the following translated the book ‘Heart Lamp’ from Kannada to English,
for which the author won the prestigious International Booker Prize in May 2025?
Ans 1. Manorama Mishra

2. Deepa Bhasthi

3. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni

4. Geeta Singh

Q.12 Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament and State
Legislatures to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India?
Ans 1. Article 250

2. Article 245

3. Article 249

4. Article 256

Q.13 What happened to employment opportunities after the 1991 reforms?
Ans 1. Stayed the same

2. Increased, especially in private and service sectors

3. Decreased in all sectors

4. Only grew in agriculture

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Q.14 The largest area of the Great Indian Desert in India is located in which state?
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Ans 1. Gujarat

. e m
m 2. Rajasthan
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4. Haryana

Q.15 Which agency on 2025 authorised to share information with the Enforcement
Directorate (ED) under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act to combat cyber fraud?
Ans 1. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)

2. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

3. National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (NCRP)

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4. Cyber and Information Security Division (CISD)

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Q.16
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In January 2025, which state cricket association unveiled plans to construct the largest

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cricket stadium in India, with a seating capacity of 1.25 lakh spectators?
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Ans 1. Odisha Cricket League

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2. Punjab Cricket Association

3. Delhi District Cricket Association

4. Andhra Cricket Association

Q.17 Which of the following is a mode of losing Indian citizenship?
Ans 1. Renunciation

2. Birth

3. Registration
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4. Naturalization

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Q.18
Ans
In which year was the Paris Agreement adopted?
1. 2015
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2. 2013 ag
3. 2016

4. 2017

Q.19 In the context of British plantations in India, what does the term ‘bigha’ refer to?
Ans 1. A unit of measurement of land

2. A plant that replaced indigo in Britain

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3. An agreement made with the ryots

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4. A revenue estate which has one or more villages

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Q.20 Which of the following accurately represents the two main components of the CPU and
g l a
g l a Ans
their functions?
a
a
1. Monitor and Keyboard – Control the speed of data processing

2. RAM and ROM – Store data and instructions permanently

3. HDD and SSD – Perform data input and output tasks

4. ALU and CU – Perform calculations and control all computer operations

Q.21 What are quaternary activities mainly associated with?
Ans 1. Transportation

2. Industrial work
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3. Information and research
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4. Agriculture
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Q.22 Which of the following Five-Year Plans was based on the Harrod-Domar Model?
Ans 1. First

2. Third

3. Fifth

4. Seventh

Q.23 In FIFO scheduling, which process is executed first?
Ans 1. The process with the shortest execution time

2. The process that arrives first

3. The process with the highest priority

4. The process that arrives last

Q.24 Where was the 12th World Government Summit, 2025, held?
Ans 1. Delhi, India

2. Muscat, Oman

3. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

4. Dubai, UAE

Q.25 What is the general slope of the Deccan Plateau?
Ans 1. North to South

2. West to East

3. South to North

4. East to West

Q.26 During which period of Indian history were the stupas of Sanchi and Sarnath built,
reflecting its architectural style?
Ans 1. Gupta rule

2. Kushan rule

3. Mauryan rule

4. Vakataka rule

Q.27 Which of the following countries was elected to the Vice Presidency of the
International Association of Marine Aids to Navigation and Lighthouse Authorities
(IALA) in 2025?
Ans 1. France

2. Japan

3. Australia

4. India

Q.28 Who among the following strongly criticised British education for being too Western
and disconnected from Indian realities?
Ans 1. Charles Wood

2. Rabindranath Tagore

3. Raja Rammohan Roy

4. Macaulay

Q.29 The 'Nuclear Energy Mission for Viksit Bharat' aims to achieve how much nuclear
energy capacity by 2047?
Ans 1. 75 GW

2. 125 GW

3. 50 GW

4. 100 GW
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Q.30 Which Indo-Greek ruler's envoy Heliodorus installed a pillar in Vidisha and was a
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devotee of Lord Krishna?

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Ans 1. Diodotus
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2. Demetrius

3. Antialkidas
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4. Menander

Q.31 The famous male torso from Harappa, remarkable for its naturalistic pose and chiselled
in the round, is made of ___________.
Ans 1. steatite

2. red limestone

3. bronze
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4. terracotta
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Q.32
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Ashok Chandra assumed charge as Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of
s em
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____________ on 16th January 2025.
l a
Ans
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1. Punjab National Bank
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2. Central Bank of India

3. Canara Bank

4. Union Bank of India

Q.33 What is the projected valuation of India's satellite communication (satcom) market by
2028?
Ans 1. $10 billion

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2. $20 billion

3. $5 billion

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4. $15 billion
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Q.34 Canal irrigation is best suited for which of the following geographical regions?
Ans 1. High mountain regions

2. Rocky plateaus

3. River basins and flat lands

4. Desert regions

Q.35 Under what conditions can the Parliament legislate on matters in the State List
according to constitutional provisions?
Ans 1. When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution.
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2. During a national emergency declared under Article 352.

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3. If the President signs a proclamation without Parliament's involvement.

l as
l as 4. If a Governor requests it due to a financial emergency in the state.
ag
ag Q.36 By when has India aimed to achieve its defence production of ₹3 lakh crore, which will
strengthen its position as a global defence manufacturing hub?
Ans 1. 2032

2. 2029

3. 2028

4. 2030

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Q.37 Which initiative was launched to provide reliable electricity to all households in India,
especially in rural areas?
Ans 1. UJALA Scheme

2. Shakti Scheme

3. Saubhagya Scheme

4. GARV Dashboard

Q.38 Who among the following passed an Act in 1898, making it an offence to provoke
people against the British rulers?
Ans 1. Lord Curzon

2. Lord Northbrook

3. Lord Elgin

4. Lord Mayo

Q.39 The process of planet formation through collision and sticking of small celestial bodies
is called:
Ans 1. Fragmentation

2. Degassing

3. Differentiation

4. Accretion

Q.40 Lok Adalats in India have statutory status under which of the following enactments?
Ans 1. The Civil Procedure Code, 1908

2. The Indian Penal Code, 1860

3. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

4. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 A can do a work in 12 days and B can do the same work in 25 days. If they work on it
together for 6 days, then what fraction of the work is left?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-3) × 9
Ans 1. -42

2. -44

3. -45

4. -41

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Q.3 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 18 and 216, respectively. If one of the
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numbers is 72, find the other one.

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Ans 1. 25
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2. 10

3. 54
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4. 5

Q.4 If the 6-digit number N36M77 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M + N = -3

2. M - N = 3

3. M - N = 1
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4. M = N
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Q.5
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The product of two positive numbers is 245. If the first number is five times the second
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number, then the sum of the two numbers is:
l a
Ans 1. 38
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2. 51
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3. 40

4. 42

Q.6 Train A leaves station M at 8:35 AM and reaches station N at 3:35 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 10:35 AM and reaches station M at 3:35 PM on the same day.
Find the time when trains A and B meet.
Ans 1. 11:50 AM

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2. 12:40 PM

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3. 12:10 PM

4. 12:50 PM
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Q.7
Ans
a
If the third proportional of 8 and 16 be x, then what is the value of x?
1. 31

2. 34

3. 32

4. 35

Q.8 A bus travelling at 10 km/hr completes a journey in 16 hours. At what speed will it have
to cover the same distance in 8 hours?
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Ans 1. 14 km/hr
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2. 10 km/hr

m s e
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g l a
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a
a Q.9 Praveen and Hemant start a business. Praveen invests ₹78,000 more than Hemant for 5
months and Hemant invests for 6 months. Praveen's share is ₹1,360 more than that of
Hemant, out of a total profit of ₹5,440. Find the capital contributed by Praveen.
Ans 1. ₹1,56,000

2. ₹1,55,955

3. ₹1,55,875

4. ₹1,56,185

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s em l a
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Q.10 Sapna invested ₹22,800 on simple interest, partly at 5% per annum and partly at 11% per
annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 4 years, then find the
sum invested at 5% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 15,676

2. 15,675

3. 15,678

4. 15,677

Q.11

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 The average of first 159 even numbers is
Ans 1. 161

2. 160.5

3. 159.5

4. 160

Q.14 Given that 1120.57 = x, 1120.8= y and xz = y6, then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 10.14

2. 9.12

3. 8.45

4. 8.42

Q.15 Find the effective discount for the scheme – Buy 12, get 8 free.
Ans 1. 10%

2. 21%

3. 40%

4. 20%

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Q.16
m
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m a
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2.

3.

4.

Q.17 If 4 times a son's age is added to his father's age, the sum is 46 years. If 2.8 times the
father's age is added to the son's age, the sum is 88 years. What is the father's age (in
years)?
Ans
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1. 35

2. 25
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3. 28

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4. 30
s e l a
l a ag
Q.18
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If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 46% and its height is
increased by 261%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its
volume?
Ans 1. 5%

2. 35%

3. 17%

4. 19%

Q.19
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Vijay got an increase of 4% in his sales amount in the first year and 25% in the second

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year; also with this, his current sales are ₹1,50,800, what was his sales (in ₹) two years
ago?
Ans 1. ₹1,20,640
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2. ₹96,000
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3. ₹1,16,000 ag
4. ₹1,45,000

Q.20 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.
20, 16, 16, 19, 16, 12, 19, 10, 14, 18
The mode of the given data is:
Ans 1. 19

2. 12

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3. 16

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4. 20

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Q.21 A store offers a discount of 14% on a television marked at ₹78,000. During a sale, an
g l a
g l a additional 8% discount is offered on the already discounted price. What is the total
discount percentage? a
a Ans 1. 18.23%

2. 20.88%

3. 22.48%

4. 21.62%

Q.22 If the sum of the measures of all the interior angles of a regular polygon is 2520°, then
what is the exterior angle of the polygon?
Ans 1. 42.5°
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2. 22.5°
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3. 37.5°
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4. 90°
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Q.23 An amount of ₹570 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 2 : 12 : 11. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 166

2. 228

3. 293

4. 284

Q.24 Find the surface area of a sphere with a radius of 5 cm.

(Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 628 cm2

2. 3140 cm2

3. 31.4 cm2

4. 314 cm2

Q.25 A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 15 years. In how
many years will it amount to 27 times of itself?
Ans 1. 39 years

2. 45 years

3. 55 years

4. 36 years

Q.26 An article is sold at a profit of 57%. If the cost price is increased by ₹20 and the selling
price is reduced by ₹18, then the profit would be 47.5%. What is the original cost price
(in ₹) of the article?
Ans 1. 200

2. 500

3. 300

4. 400

Q.27 A number, when increased by 60%, gives 3610. The number is:
Ans 1. 2256.25

2. 4512.5

3. 1128.125

4. 6768.75

Q.28 88 tube lights were purchased for ₹88, and 46 tube lights broke in transit. The trader
sold the remaining tube lights at ₹3.10 each. Find his profit.
Ans 1. ₹47.10

2. ₹48.20

3. ₹42.20

4. ₹36.60

Q.29

Ans 1. 61x + 79

2. 61x − 79

3. −61x + 79

4. −61x − 79

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Q.30 Which of the following numbers divides 393064111?
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Ans 1. 11

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m 2. 14
as
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4. 10

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All bricks are spoons. No brick is a game.
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Conclusions (I): Some games are spoons.
Conclusions (II): All spoons are games.
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Ans
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1. Only conclusion (II) follows.
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2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some orchids are cacti.
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No cactus is a marigold.

Conclusions:
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(I) No marigold is a cactus.
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Ans
(II) Some cacti are orchids.
1. Only conclusion (II) follows. ag
2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.3 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then the
resultant of which of the following would be 9?

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Ans 1. 41 C 13 B 3 A 35 D 5

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2. 41 B 13 C 3 D 35 A 5
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m.co 3. 41 D 13 B 3 C 35 A 5
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a Q.4 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only two boxes are kept below B. Only one box is kept above F. Only one box is kept
between F and D. A is kept immediately above G. C is kept at some place below E.
Which box is kept at the top?
Ans 1. C

2. E

3. G

4. A
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Q.5 H, I, J, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Q
sits to the immediate right of J. Only three people sit between Q and S when counted
from the left of Q. Only three people sit between J and H. P sits to the immediate right of
R.
How many people sit between J and R when counted from the right of R?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Q.6 Each of the digits in the number 9823415 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 10

2. 11

3. 9

4. 8

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘GETS’ is coded as ‘8106’ and ‘EGIS’ is coded as ‘0167’.
What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 7

3. 0

4. 6

Q.8 In a certain code language,
'A # B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A % B' means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
'A = B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
'A ¥ B' means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is D related to S if 'D = O # M ¥ E % S'?
Ans 1. Father's brother's son

2. Father's brother's sister

3. Husband's brother's wife

4. Father's brother's daughter

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

SET DQE OCP ZOA ?
Ans 1. KLA

2. KAL

3. LKA

4. LAK

Q.10 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

LOPE - LEPO - EPOL
QUIT - QTIU - TIUQ
Ans 1. BANG - BGNA - GNAB

2. SLOP - SLPO - LOPS

3. FILE - IFLE - EILF

4. WAST - WSAT - TSAW

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m
.co
Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 9 19 39 69 109 ?

s e m
m Ans 1. 150
a
se 2. 160
ag l
3. 155

4. 159

Q.12 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. GLH
m
2. EJF
m .co
3. NSO
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. LQN

l a
Q.13
ag
If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
4268953, then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Three

4. Two

m
.co
Q.14 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

m
11, 33, 55, 77, ?, 121.
Ans 1. 109
s e
2. 101
g la
3. 111 a
4. 99

Q.15 Sunil starts from Point A and travels 8 km towards north, turns left and travels 6 km,
and then turns right and covers another 7 km. He then turns right and travels another 6
km. How far (shortest distance) is he from Point A? (All turns are 90-degree turns only.)
Ans 1. 4 km

2. 5 km
m
.co
3. 10 km
m
m.co 4. 15 km

s e m
s e
Q.16 Ramu ran 60 km towards the west, turned left and ran 15 km. He then turned left and ran
g l a
g l a 40 km. In which direction is Ramu facing at the end? (All turns are 90 degrees unless
a
a
specified)
Ans 1. East

2. North

3. South

4. West

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 29 of 48

Q.17 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. GE−BC

2. TR−PN

3. RP−NL

4. WU−SQ

Q.18 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (Note: All numbers are single digit numbers
only).

(Left) & 8 5 @ 1 £ 3 % 6 2 Ω # * 4 7 + $ 9 (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be seventh
from the right?
Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 1

4. 3

Q.19 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
All numbers are single-digit numbers. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 # % 2 ^ @ 3 & 1 $ 5 Ω 7 % # 6 * £ 5 (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be fifth from
the right?
Ans 1. 5

2. 1

3. 3

4. 7

Q.20 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

INQ23 JOR32 KPS41 LQT50 ?
Ans 1. MRU58

2. MRV59

3. MRU59

4. MRV58

Q.21 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

HO-JQ-MP
KR-MT-PS
Ans 1. NU-PW-RV

2. MU-PW-RV

3. MU-OW-SV

4. NU-PW-SV

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m
.co
Q.22 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 162 ? 42 22 12 7

s e m
m Ans 1. 82
a
se 2. 78
ag l
3. 76

4. 74

Q.23 In a row of 59 people facing the north, Bela sits 20th from the left end. If Ajeet sits 16th to
the right of Bela, what is Ajeet's position from the right end of the line?
Ans 1. 26th

2. 21st

m
.co
3. 22nd
m
.co m
4. 24th

m s e
Q.24
s e
In a certain code language, ‘she has guts’ is coded as ‘bs kr ni’ and ‘packet has gone’ is
l a
l a
coded as ‘ud ni gy’. How is ‘has’ coded in the given language?
ag
Ans 1. bs

2. ni
ag
3. kr

4. ud

Q.25 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘÷’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

11 − 2 × 48 + 6 ÷ 15 = ?
m
.co
Ans 1. 10

2. 22
e m
3. 16
las
4. 29
ag
Q.26 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

JUNE - UJNE - EUJN
LAPS - ALPS - SALP
Ans 1. BUGS - UBGS - SUGB

2. FROG - RFOG - GRFO

m
.co
3. LOST - OLST - OSTL

m
.co
4. MOVE - MVOE - EVOM

e m
e
Q.27 mKunal ranked 29th th
l as
s
from the top and 15 from the bottom in his class. How many

l a students are there in his class?
ag
ag Ans 1. 40

2. 44

3. 43

4. 41

Q.28 L, M, N, O, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Q
sits to the immediate right of N. Only three people sit between Q and S when counted
from the left of Q. Only three people sit between N and M. L sits to the immediate right
of R. How many people sit between O and R when counted from the left of R?
m .
.co
Ans 1. Three

e m
2. One
em l as
3. Two
las ag

4. Four
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.29 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(26, 96, 22)
(46, 108, 8)
Ans 1. (7, 15, 1)

2. (1, 39, 19)

3. (30, 63, 2)

4. (24, 84, 18)

Q.30 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. CE-FH

2. SU-VX

3. KM-NO

4. AC-DF

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 29/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following pairs of Union Territories were merged to form a single Indian
Union Territory in 2020?
Ans 1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu

2. Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep

3. Chandigarh and Puducherry

4. Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh

m
Q.2
.co
The government has made efforts to boost financial inclusion. Which 2014 scheme
aimed to provide universal banking access in India?
m
Ans 1. JAM Trinity
s e
2. PMAY
g la
3. MUDRA Yojana a
4. Jan Dhan Yojana

Q.3 The 13th edition of the joint military exercise 'Ekuverin' 2025 was conducted in which
country?
Ans 1. India

2. Cambodia

m
.co
3. Maldives

m
.co m
4. Thailand

m s e
s e
Q.4 Which initiative is associated with the construction of individual household toilets in
g l a
g l a India?
a
a
Ans 1. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

2. AMRUT

3. Jal Jeevan Mission

4. Smart Cities Mission

Q.5 The Mauryan empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya in which of the following
years?
Ans 1. 350 BCE

m .
.co
2. 375 BCE

e m
3. 300 BCE

em l as
4. 322 BCE
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 33 of 48

Q.6 In which of the following years did the Government of India disinvest 51% of shares of
Bharat Aluminium Company Limited (BALCO) to Sterlite Industries (India) Limited, now
Vedanta Limited?
Ans 1. 1997

2. 2008

3. 2001

4. 2004

Q.7 At the 2025 British Book Awards gala in central London, who received the Freedom to
Publish award?
Ans 1. JK Rowling

2. Margaret Atwood

3. Salman Rushdie

4. Hilary Mante

Q.8 Which Indian astronaut participated in the Axiom Mission-4 to the ISS in 2025 to
conduct space agriculture experiments?
Ans 1. Sunita Williams

2. Kalpana Chawla

3. Rakesh Sharma

4. Shubhanshu Shukla

Q.9 Which hazardous pesticide was agreed to be eliminated under the Stockholm
Convention held in Geneva in 2025?
Ans 1. Glyphosate

2. Chlorpyrifos

3. DDT

4. Atrazine

Q.10 As of May 2025, what is the total number of Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in
India?
Ans 1. 70,683

2. 60,000

3. 72,000

4. 65,300

Q.11 Which of the following Indian states is bordered by both the Bay of Bengal and the
Eastern Ghats?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Punjab

3. Gujarat

4. Karnataka

Q.12 According to the National Forest Policy 1988, how much percentage of the total area of
the country should be under forest in order to maintain ecological balance?
Ans 1. 25%

2. 33%

3. 20%

4. 28%

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m
.co
Q.13 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is citizenship at the commencement of
m
the Constitution defined?

. co
Ans 1. Article 6
s e m
m a
se l
2. Article 10

3. Article 11
ag
4. Article 5

Q.14 How can you resize a window using its corners or borders in Windows?
Ans 1. Click the middle of the window and press Ctrl.

2. Press Alt + Enter to auto-resize the window.

3. Drag the title bar to change the size.

m
.co
4. Place the mouse pointer over a border or corner until it turns into a double-headed arrow, then drag.

m
Q.15
.co
Which of the following joint military exercises between India and Mongolia commenced

m
its 17th edition in Ulaanbaatar on 31 May 2025?
s em
s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. Yudh Abhyas

l
ag
2. Vajra Prahar

3. Garuda Shakti

4. Nomadic Elephant

Q.16 Who was the Chairman and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Railway Board as on
1st May 2025?
Ans 1. Naveen Gulati

2. Satish Kumar

m
.co
3. Hitendra Malhotra

4. Braj Mohan Agrawal
e m
Q.17
la
In the Gupta period, the term Udranga referred to ______.
s
Ans 1. tax on trade goods
ag
2. toll tax on rivers

3. land tax

4. royal donation to temples

Q.18 What was India's total non-fossil fuel installed capacity as of November 2024, as per the
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
Ans 1. 223.70 GW
m
m .co
2. 263.70 GW

m.co 3. 243.70 GW

s e m
s e 4. 213.70 GW

g l a
g l a Q.19 Who has developed the technology enabling India to shoot down fixed-wing drones a
a Ans
using a laser beam?
1. Armed Forces Tribunal, Delhi

2. Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC)

3. Aeronautical Development Agency

4. Defence Research Development Organisation

Q.20 Which of the following is the correct sequence to create a new file in WordPad on a

m .
Windows computer?

.co m
Ans 1. File → Open → New Document

s e
2. File → New

s em l a
3. Home → New File

g la ag
a
4. Insert → New File
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Q.21 The hot weather season in India is generally observed from:
Ans 1. October to November

2. March to May

3. December to February

4. June to September

Q.22 What is the relation between the speed of sound (v), its wavelength (λ) and time period
(T)?
Ans 1. v = λ×T

2. v = λ/T

3. v = λ+T

4. v = T/λ

Q.23 Which classical Sanskrit play was written by Kalidasa?
Ans 1. Mudrarakshasa

2. Svapnavasavadattam

3. Abhijnana-Shakuntalam

4. Mrichchhakatika

Q.24 Which city hosted the International Air Transport Association (IATA) Annual General
Meeting and World Air Transport Summit in June 2025?
Ans 1. Hyderabad

2. Bengaluru

3. New Delhi

4. Mumbai

Q.25 Which organisation was established in 1817 to promote Western education among
Indians?
Ans 1. Hindoo College

2. Aligarh Movement

3. Arya Samaj

4. Brahmo Samaj

Q.26 Tourism in India contributes to which type of economic activity?
Ans 1. Secondary

2. Tertiary

3. Quinary

4. Primary

Q.27 He was a militant nationalist who believed that the only way to India’s freedom is
through mass protests, especially by the youth. For this purpose, he began celebrating
local festivals like Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji Jayanti on a grand scale, urging the
youth to join in. He was also the editor of ‘Kesari’, a Marathi newspaper, which became
one of the strongest critics of British rule. The leader in question is:
Ans 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Bipin Chandra Pal

3. Lala Lajpat Rai

4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

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m
.co
Q.28 Diabetes mellitus is caused by the inadequate secretion of which hormone?
m
co
Ans 1. Estrogen

. e m
m 2. Insulin
as
se 3. Adrenaline
ag l
4. Thyroxine

Q.29 The earliest documented evidence of puppetry in India is in which of the following
languages?
Ans 1. Bengali

2. Sanskrit

3. Gujarati

m
.co
4. Tamil

m
Q.30
.co
The Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing individuals to move the Supreme Court

m
directly for the enforcement of rights, is given under:
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Article 31

l a
ag
2. Article 32

3. Article 30

4. Article 33

Q.31 Raja Ram Mohan Roy was an active social reformer who spoke greatly for the problems
faced by women. He was an inseparable agent who brought down the social evil of
‘sati’. The reform association founded by him was:
Ans 1. Arya Samaj

2. Prarthana Samaj
m
.co
3. Brahmo Samaj

4. Ramakrishna Mission
e m
las
Q.32
g
The 'Handball at School' initiative launched in 2025 to promote handball at the
a
grassroots level in India is a collaboration between which organisations?
Ans 1. International Handball Federation and Asian Handball Federation

2. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and National Handball Federation

3. All India School Sports Federation and Handball Association of India

4. Indian Olympic Association and Sports Authority of India

Q.33 Which of the following pairs of Indian states share international borders with
Bangladesh?
m
.co
Ans 1. Manipur and Assam
m
.co m
2. Sikkim and Manipur

m s e
s e 3. West Bengal and Tripura

g l a
g l a 4. Nagaland and Punjab
a
a Q.34 Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India is primarily associated with which of the
following?
Ans 1. Police investigations

2. Judicial activism

3. Election Commission

4. Judicial review

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.35 Centralised planning influenced India's industrial strategy for decades. Under which
five-year plan were small-scale industries given specific protection and incentives?

Ans 1. Fifth Plan

2. Fourth Plan

3. Second Plan

4. Third Plan

Q.36 What was the significant change in funding norms for National Sports Federations
(NSFs) announced by the Indian government in 2025?
Ans 1. Allocation of at least 20% of their annual budget toward junior and youth development programmes

2. Elimination of funding for foreign coaches in order to promote Indian coaches and youth development programmes

3. Decrease in coach salaries

4. Reduction in financial assistance for training athletes

Q.37 What is the name of the glycoprotein produced in the liver that plays a crucial role in
blood clotting?
Ans 1. Fibrinogen

2. Cadherin

3. Mucins

4. Selectin

Q.38 The foundation day anniversaries of which two Indian states was celebrated on 20
February 2025?
Ans 1. Meghalaya and Tripura

2. Nagaland and Sikkim

3. Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram

4. Assam and Manipur

Q.39 How is a long and healthy life measured in HDI?
Ans 1. Number of doctors

2. Access to hospitals

3. Life expectancy at birth

4. Health insurance coverage

Q.40 As per the Press Information Bureau release dated March 10, 2025, what is a major
feature of the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025?
Ans 1. Fixing freight rates for maritime shipments

2. Replacing paper bills with biometric authentication

3. Modernising India's maritime laws by replacing the old law

4. Mandating insurance for all cargo vessels

Section : Mathematics

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m
.co
Q.1
m
. co s e m
m a
se Ans
1.
ag l
2.

3.

4.

m
Q.2
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. ₹44,499
l
ag
2. ₹44,482

3. ₹44,514

4. ₹44,489

Q.3 Find the volume (in cm3) of a sphere having a diameter of 16.8 cm, giving your answer
correct to two decimal places.
Take Π = .

m
Ans 1. 2493.71

2. 2503.71

m .co
3. 2473.71
s e
4. 2483.71
g la
Q.4 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.
a
12, 13, 14, 11, 16, 11, 12, 17, 15, 12

The mode of the data is:
Ans 1. 14

2. 13

3. 12

m
.co
4. 11
m
Q.5
m.co
The value of
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans 1. 16.15
a
a 2. 17.37

3. 15.86

4. 12.83

Q.6

Ans 1. 117x + 120

m .
.co
2. 117x − 120

e m
3. −117x − 120

em l as
4. −117x + 120

las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 39 of 48

Q.7 If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is equal to four times the sum of its
exterior angles, then what is the number of diagonals in the polygon?
Ans 1. 31

2. 33

3. 35

4. 28

Q.8 The selling price of 50 books is equal to the cost price of 15 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage on these books.
Ans
1.

2. 70% loss

3.

4. 70% gain

Q.9 Find the mean proportional of 81 and 36.
Ans 1. 56

2. 52

3. 54

4. 53

Q.10

Ans 1. 27.75

2. 25.75

3. 21.75

4. 24.75

Q.11 The population of a district is 360000, out of which 231000 are males. 66% of the
population is literate. If 66% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
literate?
Ans 1. 67%

2. 66%

3. 63%

4. 64%

Q.12 By selling 6 lemons for a rupee, a man loses 30%. To gain 5% how many must he sell for
a rupee?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 6

4. 3

Q.13 Which of the following numbers divides 5,63,607?
Ans 1. 8

2. 10

3. 3

4. 13

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m
.co
Q.14 Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-4) × 8
m
co
Ans 1. -49

. e m
m 2. -50
as
se 3. -46
ag l
4. -47

Q.15 If one trouser is offered free on the purchase of three trousers, what is the
effective discount percentage?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 20%

3. 30%

m
.co
4. 25%
m
Q.16 .co
Sapna invested ₹20,300 on simple interest, partly at the rate of 5% per annum and partly
m s em
e
at the rate of 9% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after
s l a
ag
7 years, then find the sum invested at the rate of 5% per annum (in ₹).

l a
ag
Ans 1. 13,052

2. 13,050

3. 13,051

4. 13,049

Q.17 3 years ago, the age of a father was 40 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 37

2. 32
m
3. 33
m .co
4. 38
s e
g la
Q.18
a
A bus travelling at 84 km/hr completes a journey in 6 hours. What should be its speed to
cover the same distance in 12 hours?
Ans 1. 44 km/hr

2. 42 km/hr

3. 32 km/hr

4. 46 km/hr

Q.19 Pankaj, Juhi and Siddharth invested ₹1,020, ₹1,740 and ₹1,840, respectively to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,050, what is Siddharth's share of the
m
.co
profit?
m
.co m
Ans 1. ₹423

m s e
s e
2. ₹418

g l a
g l a 3. ₹420
a
a 4. ₹422

Q.20

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 41 of 48

Q.21 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 44. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 13 runs. Find his average (rounded off to two decimals)
in all the 33 matches?
Ans 1. 35.61

2. 34.61

3. 33.61

4. 36.61

Q.22 Find the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of 0.48, 1.20 and 1.68.
Ans 1. H.C.F. = 0.24; L.C.M. = 4.80

2. H.C.F. = 0.12; L.C.M. = 2.40

3. H.C.F. = 0.12; L.C.M. = 1.68

4. H.C.F. = 0.24; L.C.M. = 16.8

Q.23 M and N start a business. M invests ₹33,000 more than N for 2 months and N invests for
7 months. M's share is ₹605 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹1,815. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹38,500

2. ₹38,339

3. ₹38,697

4. ₹38,300

Q.24 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 20 days and B can do the same
job in 15 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 3 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 A mobile phone is marked at ₹30,000. Successive discounts of 20% and 10% are
applied. What is the final selling price?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 Train A leaves station M at 6:40 AM and reaches station N at 3:40 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 8:40 AM and reaches station M at 2:40 PM on the same day.
Find the time when trains A and B meet.
Ans 1. 11:28 AM

2. 1:28 PM

3. 11:58 AM

4. 12:28 PM

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m
.co
Q.27 The ratio between the perimeter and the length of a rectangle is 3 : 1. If the area of the
m
rectangle is 180.5 cm2, then what is the breadth of the rectangle?

. co
Ans 1. 38 cm
s e m
m a
se 2. 21 cm

3. 19 cm ag l
4. 9.5 cm

Q.28 The product of two consecutive positive natural numbers is 462. The greater of the two
numbers is:
Ans 1. 22

2. 24

3. 23
m
4. 21
m .co
m .co s em
Q.29 8 men can complete a piece of work in 5 days, while 8 women can do it in 15 days. In

s e
how many days can 3 women and 4 men complete this work?
l a
Ans 1. 5 days
l a ag
2. 8 days ag
3. 7 days

4. 9 days

Q.30 The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 4 and 3360 respectively. If one of the
numbers is 96, find the other one.
Ans 1. 92

m
2. 116

3. 164

m .co
4. 140
s e
g la
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
a
Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 11 19 61 239 ?
Ans 1. 1201

2. 1120

3. 1102

m
4. 1021

m .co
.co m
Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

m s e
s e LEB QJG VOL ATQ ?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. FYV
a
a 2. FVY

3. FYU

4. FRT

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.3 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All geysers are fans. No fan is a bulb.

Conclusions (I): No geyser is a bulb.
Conclusions (II): Some fans are geysers.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.4 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

48 A 3 C 21 D 8 B 3 = ?
Ans 1. 2

2. 13

3. 6

4. 10

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
38 41 47 59 83 ?
Ans 1. 131

2. 121

3. 132

4. 145

Q.6 In a certain code language,
A $ B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is E related to N if ‘E $ F @ G ÷ M + N’?
Ans 1. Mother

2. Mother's sister

3. Mother's mother

4. Sister

Q.7 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ES - AN

2. NB - KW

3. WI - TD

4. KX - HS

Q.8 EGLU is related to CDJR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, WUDI is related to URBF. To which of the given options is QLXZ related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. OVIT

2. OIVW

3. YOBH

4. OWVI
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m
.co
Q.9 Salman ranked 24th from the top and 11th from the bottom in his class. How many
m
co
students are there in his class?

. Ans 1. 33
e m
m as
se 2. 34

3. 31 ag l
4. 32

Q.10 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

O50P R51S U54V X59Y ?
Ans 1. A65B

2. Z65B
m
3. Z66A
m .co
4. A66B
m .co s em
s e l a
Q.11
l a
This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
ag
ag
(Left) 415 672 456 782 324 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the lowest number is added to the second
digit of the highest number?
Ans 1. 10

2. 12

3. 11
m
4. 13

m .co
s e
la
Q.12 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

that group?
ag
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. IDH

2. SNQ

3. MHK

4. PKN

m
.co
Q.13 Each of the digits in the number 9123547 is arranged in ascending order from left to

m
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from

.co m
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans
m
1. 9
s e
s e 2. 6
g l a
g l a 3. 7 a
a 4. 8

Q.14 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 8 5 @ 8 σ 9 π % 2 8 # 1 2 $ * 8 1 π 5 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, which are immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans 1. Four
m .
2. One
.co s e m
3. Two
s em l a
4. None
g la ag
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Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘TASK’ is coded as ‘4628’ and ‘KIND’ is coded as ‘1385’.
What is the code for ‘K’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 8

3. 2

4. 1

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
58, 64, 70, 76, 82, ?
Ans 1. 88

2. 85

3. 79

4. 78

Q.17 Seven people, I, J, K, L, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people
sit between P and J. R sits to the immediate left of J. No one sits to the right of I. Only
two people sit between I and R. Q sits to the immediate right of L. How many people sit
between K and Q?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. Four

4. One

Q.18 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LGK

2. HCF

3. PKO

4. UPT

Q.19 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only three boxes are kept below F. Only two boxes are kept between F and G. Only B is
kept above D. A is kept at some place below E and at some place above C.
How many boxes are kept above E?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Two

4. Four

Q.20 Shivani starts from point X and drives 11 km towards the east. She then takes a left
turn, drives 5 km, turns right and drives 5 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 2
km. She then takes a right turn, drives 7 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 10 km.
She then takes a final right turn and drives 9 km and stops at point Z. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach point X again?
(All turns are 90 degrees unless specified)
Ans 1. 5 km south

2. 10 km north

3. 7 km north

4. 7 km south

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m
.co
Q.21 L, M, N, O, Q, R, and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
m
Only four people sit between Q and M when counted from the right of Q. Q sits third to

. co the left of O. L sits third to the left of R. S is an immediate neighbor of both M and O.
How many people sit between N and S when counted from the right of N?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. Three

2. Four ag l
3. One

4. Two

Q.22 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

m
.co
Statements:
All pencils are copies.
m
.co m
Some copies are erasers.

m s e
Conclusions
s e l a
l a
(I): Some pencils are erasers.
ag
ag
(II): Some erasers are copies.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.23 DWQR is related to VOIJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, XQKL is related to PICD. To which of the given options is ZSMN related,
following the same logic?
m
.co
Ans 1. REKF

2. RKEF
e m
3. RFKI
las
4. RIKF
ag
Q.24 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(11, 110, 11)

m
(8, 59, 5)

.co
Ans 1. (17, 284, 4)
m
m.co 2. (47, 2187, 21)

s e m
s e 3. (12, 130, 13)

g l a
g l a 4. (17, 270, 19)
a
a Q.25 AXUJ is related to DBZP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MNOH is related to PRTN. To which of the given options is VZDZ related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. YFID

2. YIGF

3. YDIF

4. YDFI

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.26 In a certain code language, ‘REPS’ is coded as ‘7531’ and ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘3217’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 5

4. 2

Q.27 Joe walks east for 60 m from his house. He then takes a left turn and walks for 20 m,
turns left and walks for 80 m. He then turns left and walks for 30 m, turns left and walks
for 30 m. He takes a final left turn and walks for 10 m and stops. How far (shortest
distance) and in which direction he should move in order to reach his house? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 10 m towards the north

2. 10 m towards the east

3. 10 m towards the west

4. 10 m towards the south

Q.28 If 1 is added to each even digit of the number 85624179 then the digits are arranged in
ascending order from left to right. Find the product of the digits which are second from
the left end and third from the right end.
Ans 1. 24

2. 14

3. 21

4. 16

Q.29 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

22 ÷ 85 × 5 + 12 − 2 = ?
Ans 1. 37

2. 23

3. 30

4. 15

Q.30 Seven boxes V, W, X, Y, Z, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only Y is kept above Z. Only two boxes are kept between Z and Q. Only V is
kept below W. X is not kept immediately above Q. Which box is kept fourth from the
top?
Ans 1. R

2. V

3. W

4. X

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