RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 08 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 08 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 08/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, Lok Adalats have no jurisdiction to
settle which of the following cases?
Ans 1. Civil disputes pending in court

2. Divorce and non-compoundable criminal cases

3. Motor accident claims

4. Compoundable criminal offences

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Q.2
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Which of the following Indian states has all three types of physical divisions – plateau,
plains, and coastal plains?
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Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh
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2. Tamil Nadu
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3. Punjab a
4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.3 Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee represented Calcutta University in the Bengal Legislative
Council during _________.
Ans 1. 1889 - 1890

2. 1899 - 1900

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3. 1886 - 1887

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4. 1894 - 1895

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Q.4 m
Which geographical feature separates India from Sri Lanka?
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3. Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar

4. Gulf of Aden

Q.5 Recipient of President's Medal For Distinguished Service (PSM) on the occasion of
Republic Day 2025, Shri Deepak Kumar Kedia belongs to which of the following
organisations?
Ans 1. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)

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2. National Security Guard (NSG)

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3. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)

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4. Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)

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Q.6 According to the exercise brief published by PIB, from 10–23 March 2025, Exercise
Khanjar‑XII, the Joint Special Forces Drill between India and Kyrgyzstan focused
primarily on:
Ans 1. amphibious warfare

2. counter-terrorism

3. air defense operations

4. naval fleet manoeuvres

Q.7 Which of the following is classified as micronutrients?
Ans 1. Fats

2. Vitamins

3. Proteins

4. Carbohydrates

Q.8 The initial form of Odissi dance was performed by women serving in temples. What was
their traditional designation?
Ans 1. Devadasis

2. Maibis

3. Maharis

4. Maharani

Q.9 Who, in 1816, modified Newton's formula for the speed of sound to take into account
adiabatic compression in air?
Ans 1. Lord Rayleigh

2. Galileo Galilei

3. Pierre-Simon Laplace

4. Hermann von Helmholtz

Q.10 What was the name of the Indian contender at the 72nd edition of the Miss World, 2025,
pageant, held in Telangana?
Ans 1. Tanya Sharma

2. Nandini Gupta

3. Rhea Singha

4. Nikita Porwal

Q.11 Which of the following Acts marked the beginning of British parliamentary control over
the East India Company?
Ans 1. Pitt’s India Act of 1784

2. Regulating Act of 1773

3. Government of India Act, 1858

4. Charter Act of 1813

Q.12 Which of the following is a preventive measure for nuclear disasters?
Ans 1. Constructing nuclear plants near residential areas

2. Comprehensive monitoring and regular testing to detect equipment or operator failures

3. Ignoring minor radiation leaks to avoid panic

4. Disposing radioactive waste without treatment

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Q.13 What significant change did the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
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implement in 2025 regarding derivatives trading?

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Ans 1. Lifting all trading regulations to enhance India's appeal to investors
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2. Introduction of limits on open positions in index options to reduce trading risks

3. Eliminating the derivatives market entirely
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4. Allowing unrestricted foreign investment in derivatives

Q.14 What is the total worth of the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) announced in the Union
Budget 2025–26 to encourage innovative urban development?
Ans 1. ₹5 lakh crore

2. ₹50,000 crore

3. ₹1 lakh crore
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4. ₹2 lakh crore
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Q.15
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The Chagos Archipelago, recently in the news, is a disputed territory between which
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two countries?
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Ans
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1. France and Mauritius
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2. United States and United Kingdom

3. United Kingdom and Mauritius

4. United Kingdom and India

Q.16 The Right to Public Services legislation was first introduced by which Indian state?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Karnataka

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3. Maharashtra

4. Bihar

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Q.17
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What was the Supreme Court's decision regarding the Kamla Nehru Memorial Trust's

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land allotment in Uttar Pradesh?
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1. Cancelled the land allotment due to lack of public benefit assessment

2. Directed the state to provide alternative land

3. Ordered compensation to the Trust

4. Upheld the land allotment due to considerable public benefit assessment

Q.18 The Golden Temple, which is situated in Amritsar, Punjab, is alternatively known as
_____.
Ans 1. Akal Takht
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2. Anandpur Sahib
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a Q.19 The Lion Capital located at Sarnath, which is adopted as the national emblem of the
Republic of India, was erected by which of the following Mauryan kings?
Ans 1. Ashoka

2. Bindusara

3. Devavarman Maurya

4. Samprati Maurya

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Q.20 Which medical term describes an eating disorder in which energy expenditure is
restricted below requirements, leading to significant weight loss?
Ans 1. Bulimia Nervosa

2. Diabulimia Nervosa

3. Anorexia Nervosa

4. Orthorexia Nervosa

Q.21 Which of the following statements about the Peninsular Plateau of India is NOT correct?
Ans 1. The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats.

2. The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.

3. The Peninsular plateau consists of three broad divisions, namely, the Northern Highlands, Central Highlands and the Deccan
Plateau.
4. The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Q.22 Rural infrastructure development is crucial to improve connectivity and access to
markets and services. Which scheme focuses on providing all-weather road
connectivity to unconnected habitations?
Ans 1. Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana

2. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission

3. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

4. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

Q.23 The 'Special Food Grain Production Programme (SFPP) on Pulses' was implemented
during the year ______.
Ans 1. 1968-69

2. 1972-73

3. 1982-83

4. 1988-89

Q.24 Who initiated the Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)?
Ans 1. Central Government

2. Private Sector

3. Panchayati Raj Institutions

4. State Governments

Q.25 According to IQAir's World Air Quality Report released in March 2025, which place in
Meghalaya is the most polluted globally?
Ans 1. Tura

2. Jowai

3. Shilllong

4. Byrnihat

Q.26 Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is provided under Article 43A
of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Right to education

2. Promotion of international peace

3. Living wage for workers

4. Participation of workers in industrial management

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Q.27 Which Indian athlete won gold in the women's high jump at the 2025 Asian Athletics
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Championships?

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Ans 1. Sahana Kumari
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2. Nandini Agasara

3. Pooja Singh
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4. Swapna Barman

Q.28 Which of the following is considered a poor file management practice on
a computer system?
Ans 1. Giving files meaningful and descriptive names

2. Saving temporary files in unrelated and scattered folders

3. Creating separate folders for documents, images and videos
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4. Using nested folders to organise large sets of data
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Q.29
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Identify whether the given statements are correct or incorrect with respect to INDRA

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2025.

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Statement 1: It is a bilateral naval exercise between India and South Africa.

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Statement 2: The 14th edition of this exercise included a wide range of activities and
structured drills designed to enhance interoperability towards countering common
maritime threats.
Ans 1. Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

2. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

3. Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect

4. Statement 2 is correct and 1 is incorrect

Q.30 What does the abbreviation 'SRAM' stand for in computer memory?
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Ans 1. Synchronous Read Access Memory

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2. Standard Random Access Memory
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3. Static Read Access Memory
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4. Static Random Access Memory a
Q.31 Which agency developed the Vikram 3201 and Kalpana 3201 microprocessors for space
applications in 2025?
Ans 1. ISRO

2. BARC

3. BEL

4. DRDO
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Q.32 Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees six freedoms. Which of the following is

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NOT one of them?
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Ans 1. Freedom to form associations or unions
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4. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India

Q.33 The first systematisation of the Jain canonical literature took place at ____.
Ans 1. Vallabhi

2. Pataliputra

3. Mathura

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4. Lumbini

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Q.34 Which Article provides for the formation of Ward Committees in Municipal areas?
Ans 1. Article 243R

2. Article 243Z

3. Article 243T

4. Article 243S

Q.35 In 2025, the Indian government approved the setup of which numbered launch pad at
Sriharikota?
Ans 1. Launch Pad Four

2. Launch Pad Three

3. Launch Pad Zero

4. Launch Pad One

Q.36 What is the rank of the services sector in terms of the top recipient of FDI equity in FY
2024-25, as per the data of Ministry of Commerce and Industry?
Ans 1. First

2. Third

3. Second

4. Fourth

Q.37 Where was Gandhi's method of Satyagraha first evolved and later fully developed as a
freedom struggle tool in India?
Ans 1. Kheda

2. South Africa

3. Champaran

4. Bombay

Q.38 Who among the following became the first Indian chess player to qualify for the
Esports World Cup (EWC) 2025 through the second leg of the Champions Chess
Tour?
Ans 1. Arjun Erigaisi

2. Praggnanandhaa Rameshbabu

3. Bhubaneswar Kumar

4. Pentala Harikrishna

Q.39 Which Indian State contributes the most to commercial floriculture cultivation,
accounting for more than 20% of the country's total production in FY 2024?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Gujarat

Q.40 As of March 14, 2024, which of the following is the world's highest railway bridge?
Ans 1. Jubilee Bridge

2. Chenab Bridge

3. Vikramshila Setu

4. Nehru Setu Bridge

Section : Mathematics

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Q.1
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Ans 1.
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2.

3.
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4.

Q.2

Ans 1. 14.06

2. 13.37

3. 13.18
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4. 7.4
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Q.3
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Which of the following numbers is divisible by 14?
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Ans 1. 6794266
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2. 6436639

3. 7048048

4. 7132968

Q.4 Salman and Vivek together invested ₹45,200 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹16,000, Vivek's share was ₹6,400. What was the difference between
their investments?
Ans 1. ₹10,752

2. ₹7,053
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3. ₹9,040

4. ₹9,093
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Q.5
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Sapna invested ₹20,400 on simple interest, partly at the rate of 14% per annum and
partly at the rate of 11% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two
investments after 9 years, then find the sum invested at the rate of 14% per annum (in
₹).
Ans 1. 8,976

2. 8,975

3. 8,979

4. 8,977

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Q.6 Find the value of: 26−19 ÷ 2618 × 263

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Ans 1. 26−35

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Q.7 Find the surface area of a sphere whose diameter is equal to 14 cm.
Ans 1. 1104π cm2

2. 34π cm2

3. 1102π cm2

4. 196π cm2

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Q.8

Ans 1. 23.75

2. 26.75

3. 20.75

4. 24.75

Q.9 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 25°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 80°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 140°

2. 139°

3. 146°

4. 145°

Q.10 The product of two consecutive positive natural numbers is 812. The greater of the two
numbers is:
Ans 1. 29

2. 42

3. 27

4. 24

Q.11 93 light bulbs were purchased for ₹93, and 19 light bulbs broke in transit. The trader
sold the remaining light bulbs at ₹1.40 each. Find his profit.
Ans 1. ₹10.30

2. ₹10.60

3. ₹10.10

4. ₹10.20

Q.12 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 6 and 264, respectively. If one of the numbers
is 66, find the other one.
Ans 1. 105

2. 115

3. 35

4. 24

Q.13

Ans 1. ₹20,745

2. ₹20,761

3. ₹20,748

4. ₹20,765

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Q.14
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2.

3.

4.

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Q.15
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A bus travelling at 48 km/hr completes a journey in 9 hours. What should be its speed to
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cover the same distance in 12 hours?
Ans 1. 29 km/hr
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2. 26 km/hr
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3. 36 km/hr

4. 37 km/hr

Q.16 If 2 times Mary's present age is 27 years more than 5 times Dia's present age, and 7
times Dia's present age is 9 years less than Mary's present age, then what is the
difference (in years) between the ages of Mary and Dia?
Ans 1. 11

2. 15

3. 13
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4. 17

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Q.17 Zeeshan travels 294 km at 42 km/hr, the next 210 km at 30 km/hr and the next 330 km at

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66 km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your

Ans
answer to two decimal places)
1. 36.24
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2. 43.89

3. 48.89

4. 40.17

Q.18 Priya, Deepak, and Simran invest ₹1,370, ₹1,500, and ₹1,230, respectively, to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,010, then what is the share of Simran
in the profit?
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Ans
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1. ₹304
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a Q.19 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 25% above its cost price and offers a 16%
discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹140, then what is the list price (in ₹) of
the fan?
Ans 1. 3,500

2. 3,257

3. 3,702

4. 3,345

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Q.20 An item marked for ₹39,250 is sold at ₹32,499 after allowing two successive discounts
of x% and 10%. Find the value of x.
Ans 1. 9

2. 10

3. 12

4. 8

Q.21 The population of a district is 368000, out of which 220000 are males. 62% of the
population is literate. If 62% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
literate?
Ans 1. 63%

2. 59%

3. 60%

4. 62%

Q.22 If 20% of first number is equal to four-fifths of second number, what is the ratio of first
number to the second number?
Ans 1. 1 : 6

2. 4 : 1

3. 6 : 2

4. 7 : 4

Q.23

Ans 1. 45,550

2. 55,440

3. 50,440

4. 65,660

Q.24

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 Pipe A can fill a tank in 16 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 28 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 8 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.26 The average of first 155 even numbers is
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Ans 1. 156

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4. 156.5

Q.27 Find the value of x satisfying: 2(3x2 − 6) − 3(2x2 + 8x − 5) = 14
Ans
1.

2.
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3.

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4.

Q.28 6 men can complete a piece of work in 9 days, while 6 women can do it in 6 days. In how
many days can 2 women and 3 men complete this work?
Ans 1. 10 days

2. 11 days

3. 12 days

4. 9 days
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Q.29 .co
The number of prime numbers lying between 430 and 438, both included, is:
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Ans 1. 6
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3. 4 a
4. 3

Q.30 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.
13, 20, 15, 13, 19, 12, 12, 11, 13, 10
The mode of the given data is:
Ans 1. 13

2. 15

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3. 19
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4. 20

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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
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a Q.1 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the pair in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

108, 54
78, 39
Ans 1. 12, 24
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2. 65, 13
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3. 96, 48
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4. 54, 18
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Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
15 + 7 ÷ 7 × 48 − 2 + 23 × 4 = ?
Ans 1. 612

2. 716

3. 559

4. 654

Q.3 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NGK

2. TMQ

3. QJN

4. IBE

Q.4 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some guns are roses.
All roses are bats.

Conclusions:
(I) Some guns are bats.
(II) All bats are roses.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘GIRL’ is coded as ‘5317’ and ‘INKS’ is coded as ‘2146’. What
is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 4

4. 1

Q.6 Each of the digits in the number 2436857 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are third from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 12

2. 9

3. 10

4. 11

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

GBD IDF KFH MHJ ?
Ans 1. PJS

2. OJL

3. PQS

4. OQK

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Q.8 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
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certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

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PLOT - LTOP - TOLP
Ans 1. TOES - OTES - SOET
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2. WAIT - AWIT - TAIW

3. READ - RAED - DAER

4. CORD - ODRC - DROC

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

18 58 47 145 134 ?
Ans 1. 426
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2. 406
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3. 460
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4. 408

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Q.10
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Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follow.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) ? 7 3 ? 2 5 3 ^ # + * @ 2 7 # & 5 2 * # 2 (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Four
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4. Two

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Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

Ans
450 455 461 466 472 477 483 ?
1. 488
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2. 490

3. 487

4. 489

Q.12 H, I, J, K, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
U sits fourth to the left of V. H sits fourth to the right of J. Only two people sit between V
and J when counted from the left of V. K is not an immediate neighbour of H or V. I is not
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an immediate neighbour of K.
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Who sits third to the right of W?

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Ans 1. K

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4. H

Q.13 Nikhil ranked 18th from the top and 36th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 55

2. 54

3. 53

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4. 52

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Q.14 Six people, E, F, G, H, I and P, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to
the left of P. Only two people sit between P and E. Only one person sits between E and
H. Only I sits between P and G. How many people sit between F and I?
Ans 1. Zero

2. Three

3. Two

4. One

Q.15 Govind starts from Point Y and drives 12 km towards west. He then turns right and
drives 37 km, takes a left turn, drives 18 km, turns left and drives 63 km. He then takes a
right turn and drives 19 km. He takes a right turn, drives 35 km, turns left, drives 32 km,
then turns left and drives 9 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 71 km towards west

2. 84 km towards west

3. 81 km towards east

4. 77 km towards east

Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. IL - FQ

2. WR - TW

3. HY - DD

4. QE - NJ

Q.17 EGLU is related to IKOX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, UWXG is related to YAAJ. To which of the given options is GIGP related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. KMJS

2. KMSJ

3. KSDF

4. KJSM

Q.18 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RT-MO

2. OQ-JM

3. WY-RU

4. UW-PS

Q.19 Niku ranked 24th from the top and 13th from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans 1. 35

2. 34

3. 36

4. 37

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.co
Q.20 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
given series to make it logically complete?

. co HMI 3, JOK 6, LQM 9, NSO 12, ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. MTP 20

2. OUQ 15 ag l
3. PUQ 15

4. PTP 20

Q.21 GBNS is related to EYPV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, CVRY is related to ASTB. To which of the following is YPVE related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. VNXG

m
.co
2. XLYF
m
.co m
3. WMXH

m s e
4. VLWF

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.22 Each of the digits in the number 6243514 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the
original number?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. One

4. None

Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
.co
679 680 684 693 709 ?
Ans 1. 741
e m
2. 739
las
3. 734
ag
4. 731

Q.24 In a certain code language,
'A = B' means ‘A is the wife of B’,
'A ¥ B' means ‘A is the father of B’,
'A # B' means ‘ A is the brother of B’ and
'A % B' means ‘A is the son of B’.

How is S related to P if 'S ¥ Y # R = U % P'?

m
.co
Ans 1. Son's wife's sister

m
.co m
2. Son's wife's father

m 3. Son's wife's mother
s e
s e g l a
g l a 4. Son's wife's brother
a
a Q.25 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All lions are tigers. No lion is a cat.

Conclusions (I): Some cats are lions.
Conclusions (II): Some tigers are lions.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
m .
.co m
2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

s e
em
3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

s l a
la
4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.26 In a certain code language, ‘SAID’ is coded as ‘6175’ and ‘DIMS’ is coded as ‘7691’. What
is the code for ‘M’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 6

4. 1

Q.27 Seven boxes T, U, V, W, X, Y and D are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. T is kept immediately above D. U is kept immediately above W. Only V is
kept above Y. Only one box are kept between V and T. Only two boxes are kept between
Y and X. How many boxes are kept between W and V?
Ans 1. One

2. Five

3. Four

4. Two

Q.28 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘×’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

42 − 7 × 12 + 3 ÷ 13 = ?
Ans 1. 11

2. 15

3. 29

4. 22

Q.29 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 384 673 543 236 741 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If 2 is added to the first digit of every number, in how many numbers will the first digit
be exactly divisible by the second digit?
Ans 1. 2

2. 0

3. 3

4. 1

Q.30 Town J is to the west of town M. Town N is to the south of Town M. Town K is to the
west of Town N. Town L is to the south of town N. What is the position of town L with
respect to town K?
Ans 1. Northeast

2. Southwest

3. Northwest

4. Southeast

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 08/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Act created the post of the Governor-General of Bengal?
Ans 1. Regulating Act, 1773

2. Pitt’s India Act, 1784

3. Government of India Act, 1858

4. Charter Act, 1813

m
.co
Q.2 Which global chip‑design conference, returning to San Francisco in June 2025, for its
62nd edition, announced a GenAI Chip Hackathon?
Ans 1. ICCAD
e m
2. DAC
las
3. ISSCC ag
4. Hot Chips

Q.3 At the time of independence, which sector contributed the largest share to India's
national income?
Ans 1. Trade

2. Industry

m
3. Service

m
4. Agriculture
.co
m.co s e m
a
Q.4 What is the primary aim of the ‘Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana’?

s e
Ans
g l
a
1. Providing free education to girls

g l 2. Providing LPG connections to women a
a 3. Providing employment in rural areas

4. Providing mobile phones to rural households

Q.5 During the colonial period in India, which social reformer worked for widow remarriage
and against child marriage in Bengal?
Ans 1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

2. Swami Vivekananda

m .
.co
3. Jyotiba Phule

e m
4. Syed Ahmed Khan

em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Which resilient and adaptable polymer is frequently found in industrial brushes,
toothbrushes, and other cleaning supplies?
Ans 1. Neoprene

2. Terylene

3. Teflon

4. Nylon 6, 6

Q.7 Who became the first athlete to break a national record at the Khelo India Para Games
2025 by lifting 101 kg in the 45 kg category powerlifting in March 2025?
Ans 1. Khushboo Gill

2. Sonam Patil

3. Kavipriya Raja

4. Jaspreet Kaur

Q.8 Who was the Union Home Minister of India as of June 2025, following the general
elections?
Ans 1. Nirmala Sitharaman

2. Rajnath Singh

3. Amit Shah

4. Piyush Goyal

Q.9 A significant river of the Indian Desert, Luni originates from western slopes of the
Aravalli ranges near which place in Rajasthan?
Ans 1. Udaipur

2. Rajsamand

3. Sirohi

4. Ajmer

Q.10 Which stone was mainly utilised in building the Chennakeshava Temple in Belur, India?
Ans 1. Soapstone

2. Marble

3. Sandstone

4. Granite

Q.11 Which of the following regional film industries is based in Chennai and produces
movies in the Tamil language?
Ans 1. Bollywood

2. Mollywood

3. Kollywood

4. Tollywood

Q.12 Which of the following allows users to delete a file using the mouse?
Ans 1. Copy the file

2. Drag it to the Recycle Bin

3. Left-click the file

4. Minimize the window

Q.13 Which of the following Parliamentary Committees of India is considered a ‘Financial
Committee’?
Ans 1. Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs

2. Committee on Petitions

3. Committee on Privileges

4. Estimates Committee
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.co
Q.14 In how many assembly constituencies were the Delhi Assembly elections held on 5
m
February 2025?

. co
Ans 1. 62
s e m
m a
se l
2. 70

3. 78
ag
4. 55

Q.15 Which 18th-century revolt was led by Raja Chait Singh against British interference in the
Benares region in 1781?
Ans 1. Chuar Revolt

2. Kol Revolt

3. Benares Revolt
m
4. Santhal Revolt
m .co
m .co s em
Q.16 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of subsistence farming?

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. Use of modern irrigation techniques

l
ag
2. Use of high-yielding varieties

3. Farming for family consumption

4. Commercial crop production

Q.17 Which of the following was the official theme for World Meteorological Day
celebrated on 23 March 2025?
Ans 1. Closing the Early Warning Gap Together

2. Weather-Ready, Climate-Smart

m
.co
3. Investing in Weather and Climate Services

4. Climate Knowledge for Climate Action
e m
Q.18
las
The Nizam of Hyderabad accepted British subsidiary alliance under ________________.
Ans 1. Sir John Shore
ag
2. Lord Hastings

3. Lord Cornwallis

4. Lord Wellesley

Q.19 In which border areas did India and China agree on patrolling arrangements along the
Line of Actual Control on 21 October 2024?
Ans 1. Puga and Chumathang
m
m .co
2. Rudok and Guge

m.co 3. Depsang and Demchok

s e m
s e 4. Aksai and Lingzi Thang

g l a
g l a Q.20 a
a Ans
Which Indian state hosted the 38th edition of the National Games in early 2025?
1. Gujarat

2. Goa

3. Uttarakhand

4. Kerala

Q.21 If an object moves up to four times faster than the speed of sound, the condition is
called:

m .
.co
Ans 1. subsonic

e m
2. hypersonic

em l as
3. supersonic

las ag

4. transonic
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.22 The Faraizi Movement, led by Haji Shariatullah, focused on religious purification and
resisting the British in which region?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Gujarat

3. Delhi

4. Bengal

Q.23 In 2025, the Federation of Indian Associations (FIA) elected Hemant Patel as President
for the 2025–2026 term. Where is this organisation based?
Ans 1. London, UK

2. New Delhi, India

3. Chicago, USA

4. Toronto, Canada

Q.24 According to the Brønsted-Lowry theory, which of the following defines an acid?
Ans 1. Donates a proton

2. Donates a hydroxide ion

3. Accepts a proton

4. Accepts an electron pair

Q.25 The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was a result of which global conference?
Ans 1. Earth Summit, 1992

2. Stockholm Conference

3. Paris Agreement

4. Kyoto Conference

Q.26 In 2025, what does the abbreviation NGLV stand for in ISRO’s latest rocket programme?
Ans 1. New Generation Lunar Vehicle

2. Next Generation Launch Vehicle

3. Nuclear Geo Launch Vehicle

4. National Geo Lander Vehicle

Q.27 In May 2025, ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission released its first set of scientific data. What is
the primary objective of this mission?
Ans 1. Observe the Sun's outermost layer

2. Study Mars' atmosphere

3. Explore the Moon's surface

4. Investigate deep space phenomena

Q.28 Which type of memory loses all its stored data when the power is turned off?
Ans 1. ROM

2. RAM

3. USB flash drive

4. Hard disk drive

Q.29 What is the main reason behind the formation of lagoons along the Eastern Coastal
Plains?
Ans 1. Sand deposition along the shallow coastlines

2. Tectonic activity and fault line shifts

3. Coral reef development and volcanic islands

4. Deposition by rivers and wave action along the coast

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.co
Q.30 Which scheme has been launched by the Chief Minister of Kerala in May 2025 to
m
educate migrant children?

. co
Ans 1. Usha
s e m
m a
se l
2. Pratibha

3. Gargi
ag
4. Jyothi

Q.31 Which of the following is INCORRECT about the Harappans?
Ans 1. The most favoured ornaments were beads of carnelian.

2. They exported ornaments, timber, some objects of daily use.

3. The Harappans were engaged in active trade.

m
.co
4. The Harappans used only gold to make tools, pots and pans.

m
Q.32
.co
Which of the following is a shallow desert depression formed by wind erosion?

m s em
Ans 1. Pediment

s e l a
l a
2. Deflation hollow
ag
3. Playa
ag
4. Inselberg

Q.33 Privatisation aims to improve _____ in public enterprises.
Ans 1. operational efficiency and competitiveness

2. government expenditure

3. bureaucratic control

4. political influence
m
Q.34
m .co
The Rihand Hydroelectric Project is located in which district of Uttar Pradesh?

s e
la
Ans 1. Guna

2. Sonebhadra
ag
3. Robertsganj

4. Saharanpur

Q.35 Which of the following communities may apply for Indian citizenship after just 6 years
of residence, as per the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?
Ans 1. Buddhists from Nepal

2. Sikhs from Pakistan

m
.co
3. Jews from Israel

m
.co m
4. Hindus from Sri Lanka

m s e
s e
Q.36 Which city hosted the opening ceremony of the 2025 National Games?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Haridwar
a
a 2. Dehradun

3. Patna

4. Nainital

Q.37 President Murmu went to which country in April 2025 to represent India at the funeral of
Pope Francis?
Ans 1. Vatican City

2. Italy
m .
3. France
.co s e m
4. Germany
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.38 Which of the following is an example of soft infrastructure?
Ans 1. Water pipelines

2. Public education

3. Bridges

4. Airports

Q.39 Which of the following statements regarding the estimation of India’s national and per
capita income during the colonial rule is correct?
Ans 1. The colonial government never made any sincere attempt to estimate India’s national and per capita income.

2. The colonial government estimated India’s national and per capita income sincerely every year.

3. The colonial government estimated India’s per capita income but ignored national income.

4. The colonial government estimated India’s national income but ignored per capita income.

Q.40 Under which of the following conditions is a Tribal Advisory Council (TAC) established
in a State?
Ans 1. When the tribal population exceeds 10%

2. When the tribal population exceeds 50%

3. If the State has any forest area

4. If there is at least one Scheduled Tribe

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The sum of two numbers is 57 and their L.C.M. is 812. What are the two numbers?
Ans 1. 21, 36

2. 26, 31

3. 28, 29

4. 33, 24

Q.2 The greatest number that divides 131, 91, and 215, leaving remainders 8, 9, and 10
respectively, is:
Ans 1. 37

2. 61

3. 57

4. 41

Q.3

Ans 1. 56.7%

2. 57.8%

3. 55.4%

4. 55.6%

Q.4 A man goes to Nagpur from Visakhapatnam at a speed of 55 km/hr and returns to
Visakhapatnam at speed of 66 km/hr, through the same route. What is his average
speed (in km/hr) of the entire journey?
Ans 1. 58

2. 60

3. 63

4. 55

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.co
Q.5 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80 and the third
m
number is 101. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.

. co
Ans 1. 198
s e m
m a
se l
2. 182

3. 181
ag
4. 197

Q.6 Given that 580.5 = x, 580.79= y and xz = y10, then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 15.54

2. 18.48

3. 16.7

m
.co
4. 15.8

m
Q.7
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Pallavi bought a toy for ₹740, decorated it at a cost of ₹16 and sold the toy for ₹558.

m s em
Find the loss or profit percentage.

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1.
l
2. ag
3.

4.

m
Q.8 A number when increased by 80% gives 2790. The number is:

m .co
e
Ans 1. 3100

2. 775
las
3. 1550
ag
4. 4650

Q.9 Rahul buys a box of pens (listed price of ₹900) with a trade discount of 30%. What is the
net price?
Ans 1. ₹600

2. ₹700

3. ₹750
m
.co
4. ₹630
m
Q.10 .co
A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 3300 cm2. If the length of the rod is
m s e m
s e 72 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:
g l a
g l a Take Π = .
a
a Ans 1. 7.36

2. 7.29

3. 6.37

4. 8.31

Q.11 Which of the following numbers divides 4,81,355?
Ans 1. 3

m .
.co
2. 15

e m
3. 5
em l as
4. 6
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 23 of 48

Q.12
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 A shopkeeper marked the price of a table as ₹1,400 and offered two successive
discounts, one of which is 12%. If a customer pays ₹1,133.44 for the table, then what
was the second discount percentage offered?
Ans 1. 10%

2. 8%

3. 15 %

4. 5%

Q.14 Find the value of sin (90 − x) cos (180 − (x − y)) + cos (90 − x) sin (180 − (y − x)).
Ans 1. sin y

2. cos y

3. −cos y

4. −sin y

Q.15 If the third proportional of 81 and 27 is x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 6

2. 9

3. 11

4. 7

Q.16 The current population of a town is 12,014. It increases by 25% and 60% in two
successive years but decreases by 50% in the third year. What is the population of the
town at the end of the third year?
Ans 1. 12,014

2. 12,015

3. 12,019

4. 12,013

Q.17 Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-3) × 6
Ans 1. -36

2. -33

3. -35

4. -32

Q.18 Ritik and Sanjay together invested ₹79,200 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a
total profit of ₹16,500, Sanjay's share was ₹3,600. What was the difference between their
investments?
Ans 1. ₹42,824

2. ₹44,640

3. ₹46,400

4. ₹42,889

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m
.co
Q.19 The average weight of Vipul, Mohan and Mohammad is 45 kg. If the average weight of
m
Vipul and Mohan is 43 kg and that of Mohan and Mohammad is 50 kg, then the weight of

. co Mohan (in kg) is:

s e m
m Ans 1. 66
a
se 2. 61
ag l
3. 51

4. 71

Q.20 A train with a length of 195 m overtakes a man moving at a speed of 5 km/hr (in the
same direction) in 13 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to
completely cross another train that is 255 m long, moving in the opposite direction at a
speed of 76 km/hr?
Ans 1. 13

m
.co
2. 31
m
.co m
3. 32

m s e
4. 12

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.21 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 3% per month for 11
months.
Ans 1. ₹53

2. ₹396

3. ₹66

4. ₹33

Q.22 The sum of the squares of two consecutive odd natural numbers is 394. The sum of the
numbers is:
m
.co
Ans 1. 24

2. 22
e m
3. 32
las
4. 28
ag
Q.23

Ans 1.

2.

m
3.

m
4.
.co
m.co s e m
a
Q.24 A can do a work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 20 days. If they work on it

s e together for 6 days, then what fraction of the work is left?
g l
g l a Ans
a
a 1.

2.

3.

m .
.co
4.

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 25 of 48

Q.25 P, Q and R invested a sum in the ratio of 34 : 75 : 6, respectively. If they earned a total
profit of ₹3,600 at the end of the year, what is the difference between the shares of Q
and R?
Ans 1. ₹2,109

2. ₹2,316

3. ₹2,264

4. ₹2,160

Q.26 Seven times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 46 years. After 8
years, six times Q’s age will be 24 years less than six times P’s age at that time. What is
the present age (in years) of Q?
Ans 1. 11

2. 12

3. 5

4. 3

Q.27 The area of a triangle is 1080 cm2 and its sides are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13. The perimeter
of the triangle is:
Ans 1. 210 cm

2. 180 cm

3. 150 cm

4. 120 cm

Q.28 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6.75% per annum rate of interest deposited
on 22 February 2024 and withdrawn on 23 April 2024.
Ans 1. ₹44

2. ₹43

3. ₹46

4. ₹45

Q.29 Simplify the given expression.

x(3x − 5) + 5(x2 − 3) + 16
Ans 1. 8x2 − 5x −1

2. 8x2 − 5x + 1

3. 8x2 − 5x − 1

4. −8x2 − 5x − 1

Q.30 What smallest number should be added to 91673 so that the sum is completely divisible
by 88?
Ans 1. 24

2. 21

3. 23

4. 26

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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m
.co
Q.1 If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘×’ means ‘division’ and ‘÷’ means
m
‘addition’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

. co equation?

s e m
m a
se l
12 + 105 × 3 ÷ 14 − 3 = ?
Ans 1. 30
ag
2. 19

3. 23

4. 27

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘PEST’ is coded as ‘6324’ and ‘PENS’ is coded as ‘8634’.
What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

m
.co
2. 8
m
.co m
3. 6

m s e
4. 3

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.3 LGEI is related to RMKO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, JECG is related to PKIM. To which of the given options is HCAE related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. INKG

2. NIKG

3. INGK

4. NIGK

Q.4 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
.co
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
s e
la
Ans 1. NJL

2. LHJ
ag
3. TPS

4. QMO

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

670 669 661 634 570 ?
Ans 1. 441

m
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2. 445

m
.co
3. 440

e m
e m
4. 447

l as
l as Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
ag
ag given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some woods are chisels.
Some chisels are graphs.

Conclusions:
(I) Some woods are graphs.
(II) All graphs are chisels.

m .
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Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

e m
em
2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

l as
las
3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
ag
ag
4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements

Statements:
Some nuts are berries.
All fruits are berries.

Conclusions (I): Some nuts are fruits.
Conclusions (II): All berries are fruits.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.8 Binoy starts from Point Y and drives 16 km towards the north. He then takes a right turn
and drives 43 km, then turns right and drives 38 km. He then takes a right turn and
drives 19 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 22 km and stops at Point Z. How far
(shortest distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y
again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 31 km towards the south

2. 24 km towards the west

3. 29 km towards the east

4. 22 km towards the east

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘GUNS’ is coded as ‘7642’ and ‘STUN’ is coded as ‘2364’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 6

Q.10 DUMB is related to TMCT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, POYV is related to FGON. To which of the given options is LQUX related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. BIPL

2. BPKI

3. BIPK

4. BIKP

Q.11 Seven boxes F, G, H, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
Only two boxes are kept below O. Only one box is kept above N. Only one box is kept
between N and H. G is kept immediately above M. F is kept at some place below P.
How many boxes are kept between P and G?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Q.12 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT
belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of
consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. BX – HK

2. GC – MP

3. TP – ZD

4. XT – DG

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.co
Q.13 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
given series to make it logically complete?

. co GLE25 HMF36 ING47 JOH58 ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. KPJ68

2. KPI68 ag l
3. KPJ69

4. KPI69

Q.14 L, M, N, O, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only one person sits between N and Q when counted from the left of Q. S sits third to
the right of R. L sits third to the left of M. S sits to the immediate right of L. O is not an
immediate neighbour of L. How many people sit between O and Q when counted from
the right of O?
m
.co
Ans 1. Three
m
.co m
2. Two

m s e
3. Four

s e l a
4. One
l a ag
Q.15 ag
In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

130, 26
225, 45
Ans 1. 155, 30
m
2. 160, 32
m .co
3. 200, 42
s e
4. 185, 36
g la
Q.16
a
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

VKQ 142, ZPU 136, DUY 130, HZC 124, LEG 118, ?
Ans 1. OIL 114

2. PJK 112

3. QKM 112

m
.co
4. LKJ 114

m
Q.17

m.co
Five people (A, B, C, D and E) are sitting in a straight line. They all are facing towards
the north. B is sitting immediately between C and E. A is sitting third to the left of E. C is
s e m
s e sitting second to the right of D. Who is sitting at the extreme left end of line?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. D
a
a 2. E

3. B

4. A

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.18 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) £ $ 7 1 1 @ @ 2 © 5 $ & @ £ % # 7 € © @ 8 $ (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. 2

2. 0

3. 1

4. 3

Q.19 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only four boxes are kept between A and E. Only G is kept above A. Only two boxes are
kept between B and C. D is kept immediately above F. C is not kept immediately above
D.
How many boxes are kept above D?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Two

4. Three

Q.20 In a row of 47 students facing north, Shivangi is 21st from the left end. If Ankit is 22nd to
the right of Shivangi, what is Ankit's position from the right end of the line?
Ans 1. 4th

2. 5th

3. 3rd

4. 6th

Q.21 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

31 47 63 79 ? 111 127
Ans 1. 85

2. 101

3. 95

4. 92

Q.22 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
All numbers are single-digit. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) % 6 @ 9 * 3 $ 7 8 ? 1 Ω 2 £ 5 # 4 & (Right)

If all the symbols and even numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following
will be fourth from the right end?
Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 9

4. 3

Q.23 Each of the digits in the number 8123457 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. None

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.co
Q.24 BGLY is related to EIOA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
m
same way, NOXG is related to QQAI. To which of the given options is WUGM related,

. co following the same logic?

s e m
m Ans 1. ZJOW
a
se 2. ZJOI
ag l
3. ZWOJ

4. ZWJO

Q.25 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

312 296 280 264 ? 232 216
Ans 1. 242

2. 248
m
3. 260
m .co
4. 240

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.26 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
l
ag
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. DGF

2. ORQ

3. POT

4. FIH

m
.co
Q.27 Himank starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards West. He then takes a left turn,
drives 3 km, turns left and drives 16 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 6 km. He

m
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and

e
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
s
la
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to South

2. 4 km to South ag
3. 4 km to North

4. 3 km to North

Q.28 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
5672493, then which of the following digits will be third from the left in the new number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 2
m
m .co
2. 8

m.co 3. 6
s e m
s e 4. 4

g l a
g l a a
a
Q.29 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
29134576, then what will be the difference between the greatest and smallest digit in the
number thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 2

4. 8

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.30 K is the son of I. I is the father of L. L is the mother of O. O is the brother of S. How is K
related to O?
Ans 1. Mother's brother

2. Wife

3. Father

4. Brother

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 08/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Under Article 239 of the Constitution, a Union Territory is administered by:
Ans 1. the Governor of an adjacent State

2. the Prime Minister of India

3. the Parliament of India

4. the President of India

m
.co
Q.2 Which body is entrusted with recruiting India’s civil servants on the basis of merit?
Ans 1. The President’s Secretariat

e m
2. State Governments through District Boards

las
3. The Union Public Service Commission

4. The Election Commission of India ag
Q.3 Which renewable energy source is dependent on the gravitational pull of the moon?
Ans 1. Wind energy

2. Biomass energy

3. Solar energy

4. Tidal energy
m
m .co
.co
Q.4 Which Indian Light Tank (ILT) has achieved a major feat in December 2024 by firing
multiple rounds at various ranges at an altitude of over 4200 m?
e m
Ans
e m 1. Zorawar
l as
l as 2. Yuvraj
ag
ag 3. Dhruv

4. Amar

Q.5 Which sectors were emphasised in the Eighth Five-Year Plan for employment
generation?
Ans 1. Automotive and steel industries

2. IT and software services

3. Banking and finance

m .
.co m
4. Animal husbandry, fishery, horticulture and rural industries

s e
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.6 The inaugural edition of India's first major naval exercise 'AIKEYME' was held off the
coast of which African country in April 2025?
Ans 1. Tanzania

2. Seychelles

3. Kenya

4. Comoros

Q.7 In 2025, which city in France hosted the French Open tennis tournament?
Ans 1. Lyon

2. Marseille

3. Paris

4. Nice

Q.8 Which novel macrolide antibiotic, highlighted in a December 2024 PIB factsheet, is
being positioned as India’s first indigenous drug against community‑acquired
pneumonia?
Ans 1. Nafithromycin

2. Pretomanid

3. Lefamulin

4. Delafloxacin

Q.9 Who were the Voharikas in the judicial structure of the Magadha period?
Ans 1. Local tax collectors

2. Judges in village assemblies

3. Lawyer-Judges

4. Military generals

Q.10 Cabinet minister Kinjarapu Ram Mohan Naidu was related to which ministry in May
2025, who was named in the World Economic Forum (WEF) Young Global Leaders list
2025?
Ans 1. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

2. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

3. Ministry of Civil Aviation

4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Q.11 To change the desktop wallpaper, which option would you choose?
Ans 1. Settings > Devices

2. Settings > Personalization

3. Settings > Ease of Access

4. Settings > Apps

Q.12 When did the Hershey-Chase experiment provide solid evidence that DNA, not proteins,
is the genetic material?
Ans 1. 1957

2. 1952

3. 1950

4. 1946

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.co
Q.13 The President of India, Droupadi Murmu, conferred which Jnanpith Award on the
m
Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya in May 2025?

. co
Ans 1. 62nd
s e m
m a
se 2. 58th

3. 48th ag l
4. 52nd

Q.14 In which of the following shooting events (in distance) did Simranpreet Kaur Brar win
silver medal in the women’s category at ISSF World Cup 2025, Lima?
Ans 1. 25m

2. 75 m

3. 50 m
m
4. 100 m
m .co
Q.15
m .co
Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to promote the welfare of the
s em
people?
s e l a
Ans 1. Article 43
l a ag
ag
2. Article 47

3. Article 38

4. Article 42

Q.16 What is the main function of RAM in a computer?
Ans 1. To provide temporary storage for running programs

2. To control the printer

m
.co
3. To store permanent data

4. To process graphics

e m
Q.17
las
Which indigenously developed missile was successfully test fired by DRDO and Indian

Ans
Navy on 26 March 2025?
1. Short-Range Sea-to-Surface (Coast) Missile ag
2. Advanced Short Range Air-to-Air Missile

3. Short-Range Anti-Tank Missile

4. Vertically Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile

Q.18 In which chronic disease do the inner walls of the lungs' air sacs, called alveoli, become
damaged, causing them to eventually burst?
Ans 1. Emphysema
m
m
2. Dyspepsia
.co
m.co 3. Arrhythmias
s e m
s e 4. Cystic fibrosis
g l a
g l a a
a Q.19 Who is known as the 'Grand Old Man of India' and promoted Indian economic
nationalism?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Lala Lajpat Rai

3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

4. Surendranath Banerjee

Q.20 Which range is known for its rich biodiversity and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Satpura Range

s e
em
2. Western Ghats

s l a
la ag
3. Eastern Ghats

ag
4. Chotanagpur plateau
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Q.21 Which of the following organs represents the female reproductive part of a flower in
angiosperms?
Ans 1. Petal

2. Androecium

3. Gynoecium

4. Stamen

Q.22 __________ serves as the conventional base material for the art form known as
Kalamkari.
Ans 1. Metal

2. Wood

3. Paper

4. Cloth

Q.23 In which of the following years was the Bengal Sati Regulation enacted?
Ans 1. 1837

2. 1818

3. 1829

4. 1858

Q.24 Which of the following correctly describes the Planning Commission of India?
Ans 1. A constitutional body established by an Article of the Constitution.

2. A statutory body created by an Act of Parliament in 1950.

3. A constitutional commission chaired by the Chief Justice of India.

4. An extra-constitutional advisory body created by a government resolution in 1950.

Q.25 [October 2024] Mongla Port, recently seen in the news for strategic development and
trade ties, is located in which country?
Ans 1. India

2. Bangladesh

3. Sri Lanka

4. Myanmar

Q.26 Which Indian institution has developed an affordable device that is capable of rapidly
separating plasma from blood and purifying water, priced at ₹1,000?
Ans 1. IIIT-Allahabad

2. IIT Kanpur

3. IIT Hyderabad

4. IISc Bangalore

Q.27 In 2025, which of the following institutes developed the paper-based technology
'Freshness Keeper' to extend the freshness of cut flowers?
Ans 1. Indian Institute of Horticulture Research

2. IIT Madras

3. IIT Bombay

4. CSIR-Central Food Technological Research Institute

Q.28 Which of the following rivers is associated with National Waterway 10 (NW-10)?
Ans 1. Brahmaputra river

2. Amba river

3. Chambal river

4. Yamuna river

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.co
Q.29 A free trade arrangement of the SAARC countries, the South Asian Free Trade Area
m
(SAFTA), came into force in which year?

. co
Ans 1. 2006
s e m
m a
se l
2. 2018

3. 2010
ag
4. 2000

Q.30 भॊरत म७ ूकॎर-ऺ ॊऺॎ ोशঈख़ऻ कॕ ऺॊथ दॕ शॎ चग़धॏरॊनॎ और भशॊनॎ पॊठक कॊ ऺॠबॠध ोन्मोल्खत म७ ऺॕ
ভॊ इॠ ोगत करतॊ ऻॖ ?
Ans 1. यॕ ोशঈख़ऻ ोशषॏ्ध ॺप ऺॕ धॊोम१क ঋक॑ोत कॕ थॕ।

2. इऺ ोशঈख़ऻ म७ ऺभॎ धमॵ और ोलॠगख़ॠ कॎ भॊगॎदॊरॎ थॎ।

3. बॠगॊल म७ कॕशल जनजॊोत ऺमॐऻख़ॠ नॕ ऻॎ ऐऺॕ ঋोतरख़धख़ॠ कॊ नॕत्॑व ोकयॊ।
m
m
4. इऺ आॠ दख़लन पर उৡ जॊोत कॕ कॏलॎन शग१ कॊ ঋभॏ्व थॊ।
.co
m .co s em
Q.31 Barapani Lake of Shillong is also known as ________.

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. Umiam Lake
l
ag
2. Shilloi Lake

3. Haflong Lake

4. Jaisamand Lake

Q.32 Who is the head of the civil administration of a district court in India?
Ans 1. Chief Judicial Magistrate

2. District Judge

3. District Collector
m
4. Registrar General of the High Court

m .co
Q.33
s e
In which of the following years was the National Seeds Policy launched?
Ans 1. 2007
g la
2. 2010 a
3. 2002

4. 2018

Q.34 Decathlon, which set up its first outlet in India in Bengaluru in 2009, is a ___________.
Ans 1. Swedish sports goods retailer

2. German sports goods retailer

m
.co
3. Chinese sports goods retailer
m
.co m
4. French sports goods retailer

m s e
s e
Q.35 Volcanoes are often found in which type of plate boundary?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Convergent and transform boundaries only
a
a 2. Divergent boundaries only

3. Convergent and divergent boundaries

4. Transform boundaries only

Q.36 What was the official theme of India’s 76th Republic Day Parade held on January 26,
2025?
Ans 1. Har Ghar Tiranga: Unity in Diversity

2. Digital Bharat: Future Forward
m .
.co
3. Viksit Bharat: Innovation & Inclusion
s e m
s em
4. Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas
l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 37 of 48

Q.37 What is a notable characteristic of the carvings found at the entrances of the Sanchi
Stupa?
Ans 1. Mauryan royal figures

2. Jataka story narratives

3. Buddha's post-enlightenment life

4. Mythical creatures like yakshas and kinnaras

Q.38 In 2025, which two countries were involved in renewed tensions over the South China
Sea, prompting international concern about maritime security?
Ans 1. India and Pakistan

2. USA and Iran

3. China and Philippines

4. Russia and Ukraine

Q.39 ऺॊतशॊऻन ऺॊএॊ৸ कॕ दग़रॊन, 'आऻॊर' यॊ 'रॊ ३ ' ष्म ोकऺकख़ ऺॠदोभ१त करतॕ थॕ?
Ans 1. मॠोदर भॐोम

2. कर अोधकॊरॎ

3. रॊजधॊनॎ

4. ोजलॊ

Q.40 Which government initiative primarily focuses on improving human development by
ensuring healthcare and nutrition for women and children?
Ans 1. Digital India

2. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao

3. Skill India Mission

4. Poshan Abhiyaan

Section : Mathematics

Q.1

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4. ab

Q.2 Find the value of [954 ÷ {30 + 9 × (3 − 6)}].
Ans 1. 319

2. 318

3. 313

4. 321

Q.3 Prashant and Nisha have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars.
Prashant is driving at 117 km/hr while Nisha is driving at 48 km/hr. Find the time taken
by Nisha to reach Kanpur if Prashant takes 16 hours.
Ans 1. 39 hours

2. 44 hours

3. 45 hours

4. 36 hours

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m
.co
Q.4 If the interest earned during the 2nd year on a certain sum is ₹2,352, and the rate of
m
co
interest is 5% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:

. Ans 1. ₹44,035
e m
m as
se 2. ₹44,855

3. ₹44,800 ag l
4. ₹45,115

Q.5 The sides of a triangle are 82 cm, 18 cm, and 80 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 670

2. 712

3. 731

m
.co
4. 720
m
Q.6
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Ans 1. 36.25

2. 37.25

3. 33.25

4. 39.25

Q.7 Jaya can do a certain piece of work in 30 days. Jaya and Sushma can together do the
same work in 21 days, and Jaya, Sushma and Hina can do the same work together in 14
days. In how many days can Jaya and Hina do the same work together?

m
Ans

.co
1.

e m
2.
las
ag
3.

4.

Q.8 An item marked at ₹5,000 is given at successive discounts of 10% and 5%. Find the final

m
selling price.

.co
Ans 1. ₹4,320
m
m.co 2. ₹4,250

s e m
s e 3. ₹4,275

g l a
g l a 4. ₹4,350
a
a Q.9 M and N start a business. M invests ₹46,000 more than N for 3 months and N invests for
4 months. M's share is ₹453 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹1,359. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹73,608

2. ₹73,516

3. ₹73,715

4. ₹73,600

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 39 of 48

Q.10 Find the mean proportional between 24 and 150.
Ans 1. 60

2. 70

3. 40

4. 50

Q.11 Train A leaves station M at 8:25 AM and reaches station N at 3:25 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 10:25 AM and reaches station M at 3:25 PM on the same day.
Find the time when trains A and B meet.
Ans 1. 12:50 PM

2. 12:30 PM

3. 11:30 AM

4. 11:10 AM

Q.12 The number 327087 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 3

4. 12

Q.13 Find the greatest number that will divide 49, 97 and 189 so as to leave the same
remainder in each case.
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 7

4. 3

Q.14
.

Ans 1. 138x − 127

2. −138x + 127

3. 138x + 127

4. −138x − 127

Q.15 The selling price of 20 books is equal to the cost price of 5 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage.
Ans
1.

2.

3. 75% gain

4. 75% loss

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m
.co
Q.16 A can do a work in 12 days and B can do the same work in 18 days. If they work on it
m
together for 4 days, then what fraction of the work is left?

. co
Ans
s e m
m a
se
1.

g l
2.
a

3.

4.

m
m .co
.co
Q.17

em
s
Ans 1. 120°

em l a
2. 128°

l as ag
ag
3. 132°

4. 131°

Q.18 If the 6-digit number N83M92 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M + N = -2

2. M - N = 2

3. M - N = 1

4. M = N
m
m .co
e
Q.19 एक दॏ कॊनदॊर ₹3,500 म७ एक ऺॊइोकल खरॎदतॊ ऻॖ और उऺॕ 20% कॎ छॐट पर बॕचतॊ ऻॖ , ोजऺम७ कख़ई
लॊभ यॊ ऻॊोन नऻॎ ॠ ऻख़तॎ। ऺॊइोकल कॊ अॠोकत मॐ्ि ভॊ ऻॖ ?

las
Ans 1. ₹3,475

2. ₹5,374 ag
3. ₹7,343

4. ₹4,375

Q.20

Ans 1. 69

m
.co
2. 81

m
.co m
3. 79

m 4. 78
s e
s e g l a
g l a Q.21 Find the area of a triangle with base 12 cm and height 8 cm.
a
a Ans 1. 72 cm2

2. 60 cm2

3. 48 cm2

4. 96 cm2

Q.22 3 शह१ पऻलॕ, ोपतॊ कॎ आयॏ उऺकॕ पॏআ कॎ आयॏ कॕ दख़गॏनॕ ऺॕ 24 शह१ अोधक थॎ। अब ऺॕ ोकतनॕ शहॵ बॊद,
उऺकॎ आयॏ उऺकॕ पॏআ कॎ आयॏ कॎ दख़गॏनॎ ऻख़ जॊएगॎ?

m .
Ans 1. 19

2. 23
.co s e m
3. 25
s em l a
4. 21
g la ag
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Q.23 The cost of 12 pens and 7 pencils is ₹285. If the cost of a pen decreases by ₹6 and the
cost of a pencil increases by ₹5, then the cost of 11 pens and 3 pencils is ₹118. What is
the original cost of 2 pens and 2 pencils?
Ans 1. ₹68

2. ₹66

3. ₹73

4. ₹70

Q.24 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 9
months.
Ans 1. ₹56

2. ₹432

3. ₹36

4. ₹72

Q.25 Nitin bought some pencils at the rate of ₹180 a dozen. He sold them for ₹17 each. His
profit percentage is ______%. (Round off to two decimal places.)
Ans 1. 11.33

2. 17.33

3. 15.33

4. 13.33

Q.26 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80 and the third
number is 109. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.
Ans 1. 190

2. 194

3. 193

4. 189

Q.27 An amount of ₹658 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 18 : 12 : 2. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 329

2. 426

3. 261

4. 242

Q.28 The number 444348269 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 10

2. 19

3. 12

4. 9

Q.29 The current population of a town is 14,680. It increases by 25% and 70% in two
successive years but decreases by 20% in the third year. What is the population of the
town at the end of the third year?
Ans 1. 24,956

2. 24,960

3. 24,953

4. 24,958

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m
.co
Q.30 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 42. In the next 10 matches, the
m
batsman scored an average of 15 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to

. co two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.

s e m
m Ans 1. 32.82
a
se 2. 34.82
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3. 33.82

4. 35.82

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Each of the digits in the number 71642938 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the
original number?

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Ans 1. None

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2. Two

m s e
a
3. One

s e l
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4. Three
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Q.2 ag
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits third to
the right of E. F sits to the immediate left of B. C is the immediate neighbour of A and B.
G is not the immediate neighbour of F. How many people sit between D and G when
counted from the left of G?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. Five

4. Three

m
Q.3
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What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’
m
e
are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

38 ÷ 7 + 5 × 20 − 4 = ?
las
Ans 1. 22
ag
2. 27

3. 8

4. 15

Q.4 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the wife of B’,

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A x B means ‘A is the father of B’ and

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A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’.

m
.co m
How is A related to S if ‘A + E – F x N ÷ S’?
Ans
m 1. Father's sister
s e
s e g l a
g l a 2. Mother's mother
a
a 3. Father's mother

4. Sister

Q.5 If 2 is added to each even digit and 2 is added to each odd digit in the number 7145362,
what will be the sum of the last two and first two digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 25

2. 24

3. 26

m .
.co
4. 27

e m
em l as
las ag
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Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:

All physicists are chemists.
No chemists are biologists.

Conclusions:

I. No biologists are physicists.
II. Some biologists are physicists.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.7 योद ‘+’ और ‘÷’ कख़ पर्ऺर बदल ोदयॊ जॊए, तथॊ ‘−’ और ‘×’ कख़ पर्ऺर बदल ोदयॊ जॊए, तख़
ोन्मोल्खत ऺमॎकरण म७ ঋ्ा ोच्ह (?) कॕ ॊन पर ভॊ आएगॊ?

21 ÷ 57 − 3 × 8 + 4 = ?
Ans 1. 56

2. 23

3. 45

4. 34

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘MADE’ is coded as ‘4172’ and ‘HAME’ is coded as ‘2475’.
What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 4

3. 5

4. 2

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

27 35 51 75 107 ?
Ans 1. 125

2. 147

3. 148

4. 174

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘ALPS’ is coded as ‘3257’ and ‘PUNE’ is coded as ‘1346’.
What is the code for ‘P’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 5

3. 7

4. 3

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m
.co
Q.11 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
m
Counting to be done from left to right only.

. co (Note: all numbers are single digit numbers only.)

s e m
m a
se l
(Left) 1 & 9 6 > 7 5 * 7 + 5 ^ 7 0 * 4 % $ (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
ag
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. Nine

2. Six

3. Eight

4. Seven

Q.12 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
m
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same order. Only three boxes are kept above A. Only one box is kept between F and A.

m
Only three boxes are kept between F and E. E is kept at some place above A. B is kept

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immediately below E. G is kept at one of the places above D. C is not kept immediately
above or below F. How many boxes are kept above B?
m s e
Ans 1. 4
s e l a
2. 1
l a ag
3. 3 ag
4. 2

Q.13 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

LDH 14, NFJ 17, PHL 20, RJN 23, ?
Ans 1. TLP 26

2. RTS 26
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3. RTQ 27

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4. TMQ 27
s e
g la
Q.14
a
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MP-GK

2. PS-JM

3. JM-DH

4. TW-NR
m
m .co
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Q.15 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
e m
e m l as
s
LIF 13, DAX 24, VSP 46, NKH 90, FCZ 178, ?

l a Ans 1. XUR 351
ag
ag 2. XUR 354

3. XUM 354

4. UUR 354

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.16 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 267 513 671 895 729 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If the digits of each number are added and their respective resultants are arranged in
the ascending order, what is the number placed 4th from the right end?
Ans 1. 18

2. 15

3. 14

4. 9

Q.17 RUTW is related to TWVY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, MPOR is related to ORQT. To which of the given options is VYXA related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. XAZC

2. XZYC

3. XBYE

4. XAYC

Q.18 Shyam starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 7 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 19 km towards east

2. 16 km towards north

3. 19 km towards north

4. 16 km towards south

Q.19 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept between G and A. Only F is kept above B. No box
is kept below A. E is kept at some place below C but at some place above D. How many
boxes are kept between D and F?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. Four

Q.20 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
ACF : CEH
PET : RGV
Ans 1. XVN : ZXP

2. WDX : ZFY

3. QTP : SUW

4. SAD : TBO

Q.21 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

HIVE - EHVI - HEIV
FANG - GFNA - FGAN
Ans 1. SORT - TSOR - ORTS

2. MUSK - KMSU - MKUS

3. TENS - ETNS - SENT

4. RAIN - NRIA - RANI
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.co
Q.22 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
Some birds are animals. ag l
All animals are tables.

Conclusions:
(I): Some birds are tables.
(II): All tables are animals.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
m
m
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
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m .co s em
Q.23
e
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

s l a
ag
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
l a
ag
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LHK

2. OKM

3. UQT

4. RNQ

Q.24 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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36 51 45 64 54 77 63 90 72 ?
Ans 1. 110

e m
2. 113

las
3. 103

4. 106 ag
Q.25 Babar starts from Point A and drives 14 km towards West. He then takes a left turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 20 km towards West

m
2. 18 km towards East

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3. 18 km towards West
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m.co 4. 20 km towards North
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.26 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT a
a belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. SO−ON

2. AW−XT

3. PL−MI

4. TP−QM

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.27 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

102 108 120 138 162 ?
Ans 1. 204

2. 212

3. 230

4. 192

Q.28 Seven boxes F, G, H, I, K, L and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
O is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between O and G. L is kept
at one of the positions below O. Only I is kept between G and H. F is kept at one of the
positions above G.
How many boxes are kept between L and F?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Five

Q.29 J, K, L, M, N, O and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
Only three people sit between O and J when counted from the left of O. Only three
people sit between K and M when counted from the right of M. S sits to the immediate
right of K. N is an immediate neighbour of M as well as J. Who sits second to the left of
L?
Ans 1. N

2. M

3. J

4. O

Q.30 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

227, 112
240, 125
Ans 1. 210, 85

2. 254, 129

3. 262, 147

4. 215, 110

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