RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 19 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 19 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 19/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which event is considered the turning point in Gandhi’s political life, converting him
from a moderate to a mass leader?
Ans 1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

2. Salt Satyagraha

3. Rowlatt Act protest

4. Champaran Satyagraha

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Q.2
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In which Indian state is Rushikonda Beach, which received the Blue Flag Beach
certification in 2023, located?
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Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh
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2. Gujarat
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3. Tamil Nadu a
4. Kerala

Q.3 Which Indian sprinter won both the 100 m and 200 m titles at the Indian Open Athletics
2025?
Ans 1. Archana Suseendran

2. Hima Das

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3. Srabani Nanda

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4. Dutee Chand

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Q.4 m
Which of the following countries is located to the southeast of India?
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l asAns 1. China
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3. Nepal

4. Sri Lanka

Q.5 Which DRDO-developed missile is India's first indigenous air-launched anti-ship
missile?
Ans 1. NASM-SR

2. BrahMos
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3. Varunastra

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4. Astra

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Q.6 What was the primary objective of the 88th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003?
Ans 1. Abolition of Privy Purses

2. Provision for Service Tax

3. Introduction of GST

4. Formation of the NJAC

Q.7 In which year did French physicist Sadi Carnot create the Carnot engine, which uses
thermodynamic principles to function as an ideal heat engine?
Ans 1. 1830

2. 1820

3. 1824

4. 1813

Q.8 The Paris Agreement is a significant agreement aimed at keeping global warming well
below Celsius.
Ans 1. 1°

2. 3°

3. 2°

4. 4°

Q.9 Which authority is the appellate body under the RTI Act?
Ans 1. Chief Vigilance Commission

2. National Human Rights Commission

3. Lokpal

4. Central Information Commission

Q.10 Which keyboard shortcut allows you to select multiple specific files or folders at once?
Ans 1. Tab + Click

2. Alt + Click

3. Ctrl + Click

4. Shift + Click

Q.11 What defines land as “Culturable Wasteland” in land revenue records in India?
Ans 1. Urban infrastructure land

2. Land that is fallow for over five years

3. Land under tree crops

4. Barren rocky land

Q.12 Which country held federal elections after the collapse of its coalition government amid
economic unrest?
Ans 1. Spain

2. Germany

3. France

4. Italy

Q.13 The drain of wealth theory was a major critique of colonial economic policies. Who
propounded the ‘Drain of wealth theory’ in the late 19th century?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

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Q.14 Which Indian institution collaborated with Inria Saclay in May 2025 to develop an AI tool
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aimed at combating antimicrobial resistance by identifying alternative antibiotics?

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Ans 1. IISc Bangalore
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2. IIIT-Delhi

3. IIT Madras
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4. IIT Bombay

Q.15 What is the name of India's newly launched high-resolution, fully indigenous weather
prediction platform in May 2025?
Ans 1. Bharat Forecast System

2. IndraNet

3. VarshaNet
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4. Mausam 2.0
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Q.16
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Which of the following architectural styles is predominantly associated with the
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Gateway of India in Mumbai?
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Ans
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1. Indo-Saracenic
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2. Art Deco

3. Bauhaus

4. Victorian Gothic

Q.17 In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India impose a three-month deadline
for the President to give assent to State Bills reserved under Article 201?
Ans 1. Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (1980)

2. SR Bommai vs. Union of India (1994)
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3. State of Tamil Nadu vs. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2023)

4. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973)
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Q.18
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Which Constitutional Amendment introduced a cap on the size of the State Council of
Ministers?
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Ans 1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992

2. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003

3. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988

4. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976

Q.19 Which irrigation method is considered most efficient for water conservation in
agriculture?
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Ans 1. Furrow
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2. Drip

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a Q.20 Which site provides archaeological evidence of the earliest known urban civilisation in
the Indian subcontinent with planned city structures?
Ans 1. Mehrgarh

2. Harappa

3. Kalibangan

4. Lothal

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Q.21 Which of the following is the correct longitudinal extent of the Prime Meridian?
Ans 1. 0°

2. 90° E

3. 180° E

4. 23.5° N

Q.22
In which sport did Deepika Kumari earn her 12th individual World Cup medal at
the 2025 Shanghai World Cup?
Ans 1. Archery

2. Shooting

3. Table Tennis

4. Badminton

Q.23 Which of the following Indian English writers created the fictional town of Malgudi?
Ans 1. Raja Rao

2. Mulk Raj Anand

3. RK Narayan

4. Khushwant Singh

Q.24 Geological Survey of India (GSI) organised a Pan-India Walkathon in March 2025 under
which theme?
Ans 1. Geoscience for a Safe World

2. Geoscience: Unlocking the Secrets of Climate Change

3. Geoscience Innovating for Earth and People

4. Geoscience Everywhere

Q.25 Which of the following is true about the second frigate of Project 1135.6 named
‘Tavasya’?
Ans 1. It has a displacement of approximately 4,500 tons

2. It is the first frigate of the follow‑on order

3. It was built in Russia and later transferred to India

4. It was launched at Goa Shipyard Limited on 22 March 2025

Q.26 Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years in
India?
Ans 1. Sixty-first Amendment Act, 1988

2. Fifty-second Amendment Act, 1985

3. Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002

4. Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978

Q.27 Human development also involves freedom, security and dignity in life. The first Human
Development Report was published in which year?
Ans 1. 1971

2. 1990

3. 1995

4. 1980

Q.28 How can you create a new folder in Windows?
Ans 1. By opening Task Manager

2. Using the right-click context menu

3. By changing system date

4. By restarting the computer
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Q.29 Which Indian artist made his debut at Cannes 2025 by showcasing a watercolour
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inspired by India's diversity?

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Ans 1. Jitish Kallat
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2. Subodh Gupta

3. Anish Kapoor
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4. Paresh Maity

Q.30 Which body was formed by Gandhi on 24 February 1919 to oppose the Rowlatt Act?
Ans 1. Congress Committee

2. Swaraj Sabha

3. Khilafat Committee

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4. Satyagraha Sabha

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Q.31
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Why are soft drink and soda water bottles sealed under high pressure in beverage
industries?
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Ans 1. To increase the temperature

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2. To prevent freezing

3. To decrease the amount of sugar

4. To increase the solubility of carbon dioxide

Q.32 In which of the following years was the first British East India Company founded in
India?
Ans 1. 1620

2. 1600

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3. 1605

4. 1588

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Q.33
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The Supreme Court struck down certain provisions of the Tribunals (Rationalisation and

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Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021. Which provision did the Court declare invalid?
1. The rule that tribunal decisions are not appealable to any court

2. Requirement that all tribunal members be retired judges of High Courts

3. Establishment of administrative tribunals for service matters (which is in the Constitution)

4. A fixed four-year tenure limit for tribunal members

Q.34 What is the primary objective of the Dx-EDGE initiative launched in 2025?
Ans 1. To provide financial subsidies to large corporations

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2. To promote foreign investments in India
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3. To empower MSMEs with digital tools and knowledge

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4. To regulate e-commerce businesses

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g l a Q.35 On 29 April 2025, which major facility was inaugurated at the National Centre for Sports a
a Science and Research (NCSSR) to transform athlete rehabilitation and performance
tracking in India?
Ans 1. National Talent Scouting Wing

2. Return to Play Facility

3. Elite Coaching Analytics Centre

4. Sports Nutrition Research Lab

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Q.36 Who among the following are eligible for the training programs under Deen Dayal
Upadhyay – Gramin Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)?
Ans 1. Individuals between the ages of 15 and 35 years

2. Individuals between the ages of 15 and 25 years

3. Individuals between the ages of 18 and 35 years

4. Individuals between the ages of 25 and 55 years

Q.37 Digital literacy is now essential for human development in the knowledge economy.
Which programme was launched to promote digital literacy among rural citizens in
India?
Ans 1. BharatNet

2. PMGDISHA

3. Digital India

4. PM-WANI

Q.38 Which of the following Fundamental Rights is guaranteed under Article 25 of the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. Right to move the Supreme Court

2. Right to freedom of religion

3. Right against untouchability

4. Right to culture and language

Q.39 The Battle of Plassey 1757 was fought between the British forces led by Robert Clive
and the Nawab of Bengal _____.
Ans 1. Shah Alam II

2. Alivardi Khan

3. Sarfaraz Khan

4. Siraj-ud-Daula

Q.40 Which of the following physical quantities has zero dimension in mass and time?
Ans 1. Force

2. Work

3. Volume

4. Momentum

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 Two successive discounts of 65% and 24% are equivalent to a single discount of _____.
Ans 1. 77%

2. 74.5%

3. 76.6%

4. 73.4%

Q.2 If 38% of first number is equal to two-sevenths of second number, what is the ratio of
first number to the second number?
Ans 1. 101 : 129

2. 103 : 132

3. 100 : 133

4. 96 : 131

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Q.3 The selling price of 50 books is equal to the cost price of 39 books. Find the loss or gain
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percentage.

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Ans
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3. 22% loss

4. 22% gain

Q.4 The sum of the squares of two consecutive odd natural numbers is 34. The sum of the
numbers is:
Ans
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1. 8

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2. 28

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3. 24

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4. 18

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Q.5
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Sapna invested ₹22,800 on simple interest, partly at 14% per annum and partly at 7%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 6 years, then find
the sum invested at 14% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 7,600

2. 7,599

3. 7,597

4. 7,603

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Q.6 A shopkeeper purchased an item listed at ₹1,600 after receiving two successive
discounts of 35% and 5% from the wholesaler. The shopkeeper then changed the list

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price so as to gain 25% after allowing 5% discount. For how much did he list the item?
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Ans 1. ₹1,388

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2. ₹1,200

3. ₹1,235
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4. ₹1,300

Q.7 In an election between two candidates 87% of the registered voters cast their vote and
5% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 52% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 1653 votes. How many voters were
registered?
Ans 1. 50001

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2. 50003

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3. 50000

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4. 49998

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g l a Q.8 Find the curved surface area of a sphere whose radius is 2.8 cm. a
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Ans
1. 98.56 cm2

2. 97.52 cm2

3. 95.32 cm2

4. 91.28 cm2
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Q.9 Ritik and Sanjay together invested ₹62,400 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a
total profit of ₹15,600, Sanjay's share was ₹1,900. What was the difference between their
investments?
Ans 1. ₹46,800

2. ₹47,200

3. ₹47,000

4. ₹46,200

Q.10 A number when increased by 100% gives 2740. The number is:
Ans 1. 4110

2. 1370

3. 685

4. 2740

Q.11 Shan bought some sharpeners at the rate of ₹150 a dozen. He sold them for ₹19 each.
His profit percentage is ______%.
Ans 1. 56

2. 54

3. 50

4. 52

Q.12 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 65°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 48°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 77°

2. 73°

3. 76°

4. 79°

Q.13 If the interest earned during the 2nd year on a certain sum is ₹9,828, and the rate of
interest is 12% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
Ans 1. ₹73,520

2. ₹73,475

3. ₹73,125

4. ₹72,185

Q.14 What is the mode of the following data?
67, 75, 81, 70, 65, 61, 65, 84, 75, 76, 85, 89, 62, 84, 72, 74, 89, 68, 83, 60, 82, 82, 66, 77, 75
Ans 1. 81

2. 75

3. 70

4. 67

Q.15 The average of first 158 even numbers is
Ans 1. 160

2. 159.5

3. 158.5

4. 159

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Q.16 Find the value of: 47−11 ÷ 4716 × 47−10
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Ans 1. 47−35

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2. 47−37

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3. 47−27

4. 47−44
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Q.17 Find the value of x satisfying: 2(4x2 − 6) − 4(2x2 + 9x − 3) = 18
Ans
1.

2.
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3.
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4.

Q.18 Given that 540.2 = x, 540.47= y and xz = y3, then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 7.05

2. 6.17

3. 9.48

4. 6.54

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Q.19
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Train A leaves station M at 6:45 AM and reaches station N at 3:45 PM on the same day.

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Train B leaves station N at 8:45 AM and reaches station M at 2:45 PM on the same day.
Find the time when trains A and B meet.
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Ans 1. 11:13 AM
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2. 11:53 AM
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3. 11:33 AM

4. 12:23 PM

Q.20 X, Y and Z invested a sum in the ratio of 32 : 40 : 68, respectively. If they earned a total
profit of ₹3,210 at the end of the year, what is the difference between the shares of Y and
Z?
Ans 1. ₹771

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2. ₹742

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3. ₹642

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4. ₹777

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g l a Q.21 The largest six digit number which when divided by 3, 5, 7 and 9 leaves remainders 1, 3, a
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5 and 7, respectively, is:
1. 999808

2. 999998

3. 999893

4. 999685

Q.22 A man driving a car at a speed of 72 km/hr crosses a bridge in 4.9 minutes. Find the
length of the bridge.

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Ans 1. 5.68 km

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2. 6.29 km

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3. 5.88 km

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4. 6.91 km
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Q.23 The number 966181 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 36

2. 38

3. 30

4. 37

Q.24

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 3 and 672, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 96, find the other one.
Ans 1. 3

2. 48

3. 94

4. 21

Q.26 A can do a work in 11 days and B can do the same work in 19 days. If they work on it
together for 6 days, then what fraction of the work is left?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.27 Four times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 19 years. After 7 years,
twice the age of Q will be 47 years less than seven times the age of P at that time. What
is the present age of Q (in years)?
Ans 1. 91

2. 86

3. 85

4. 79

Q.28 A hollow spherical shell is made of a metal of density 7 g/cm3. Its internal and external
radii are 1 cm and 2 cm, respectively. What is the weight (in grams) of the shell?

Ans 1. 273

2. 205

3. 221

4. 214

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Q.29
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Ans

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2.

3.

4.

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Q.30

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Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.1
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All mansions are flats.
All flats are buildings.

Conclusions:
(I) Some flats are mansions.
(II) All buildings are mansions.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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g l a Q.2 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the a
a given series to make it logically complete?

EBF 11, JGK 17, OLP 23, TQU 29, ?
Ans 1. YUV 35

2. WUZ 35

3. YVZ 35

4. WVZ 24

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Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

103, 1000, 9970, 99670, 996670, ?
Ans 1. 9999670

2. 9966667

3. 9966670

4. 9996670

Q.4 BGSN is related to XLOS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, TQKX is related to PVGC. To which of the given options is LACH related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. GEZN

2. HFYM

3. FGXO

4. GFYL

Q.5 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

80 × 16 − 2 ÷ 12 + 4 = ?
Ans 1. 55

2. 59

3. 47

4. 51

Q.6 Each of the digits in the number 7312648 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 11

2. 5

3. 7

4. 9

Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All crows are sparrows. No crow is a pigeon.

Conclusions (I): No sparrow is a pigeon.
Conclusions (II): Some pigeons are crows.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.8 Town Q is to the south of Town R. Town S is to the east of Town R. Town T is to the
north of Town S. Town U is to the east of Town T. Town V is to the north-east of Town U.
What is the position of Town V with respect to Town Q?
Ans 1. South-west

2. North-east

3. South-east

4. South

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Q.9 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing the north. Only three
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people sit to the left of D. B sits third to the left of D. F sits to the right of A but left of D.

. co E sits to the right of C but left of G. How many people sit to the right of F?

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se 2. Three
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3. Four

4. Two

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

10, 30, 90, 270, ?, 2430
Ans 1. 1080

2. 540
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3. 810
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4. 720

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Q.11 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) € 5 & % 2 7 5 & % 7 8 @ 9 5 $ & # $ @ 2 9 © (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 3

4. 4
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Q.12
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Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
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WUP : YYS
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Ans
OPU : QTX
1. PUX : RYZ
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2. RUV : TYZ

3. XQO : ZTS

4. UQQ : WUT

Q.13 In a row of 46 people facing the north, Lalita sits 17th from the left end. If only 15 people
sit to the right of Damini, then how many people sit between Damini and Lalita?
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Ans 1. 15

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2. 13

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3. 16

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the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(32, 497, 23)
(20, −19, 1)
Ans 1. (18, −17, 2)

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2. (21, 40, 8)

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3. (3, 3, 3)

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4. (3, 222, 15)

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Q.15 Shruti starts from point A and runs 2 km west. She then takes a left turn and runs 1 km.
She takes a left turn again and runs 7 km. She then takes a final left turn and runs 1 km
to reach a point B. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should she
run in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless
specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km west

2. 2 km west

3. 5 km east

4. 7 km east

Q.16 AWER is related to HDLY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, CYGT is related to JFNA. To which of the given options is XTBO related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. EVIA

2. EAIV

3. EAVI

4. EVAI

Q.17 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

WIX 15 TKV 12 QMT 9 NOR 6 ?
Ans 1. KGS 1

2. QKJ 4

3. KQP 3

4. PKG 2

Q.18 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NRM

2. RVQ

3. LPJ

4. UYT

Q.19 If 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number 36719542, find the sum of the
digits that are repeated more than once in the new number formed.
Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 8

4. 9

Q.20 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. AGB

2. IOK

3. EKF

4. CID

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.co
Q.21 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
m
6274385, which of the following digits will be third from the right in the new number

. co thus formed?

s e m
m Ans 1. 3
a
se 2. 9
ag l
3. 5

4. 1

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘LACE’ is coded as ‘5689’ and ‘LEAK’ is coded as ‘5786’.
What is the code for ‘K’ in that language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 5

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.co
3. 7

m
.co m
4. 8

m s e
Q.23
s e
In a row of people all facing North, Nima is 17th
from the left end. Dina is 27 from theth
l a
l a
left end. Dina is exactly between Nima and Uma. If Uma is 13th from the right end of the
ag
ag
line, how many people are there in the row?
Ans 1. 49

2. 47

3. 48

4. 50

Q.24 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

m
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(Left) 9 @ # 8 £ 4 & $ 7 2 * 5 Ω % 6 1 % & 3 (Right)

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How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
e
Ans
and also immediately followed by another number?
1. More than two
las
2. One ag
3. Two

4. None

Q.25 In a certain code language, ‘DUAL’ is coded as ‘4629’ and ‘ARCS’ is coded as ‘1435’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

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2. 4

m
3. 2
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m.co 4. 5
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.26 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to a
a that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. XRY

2. TNV

3. RLT

4. VPX

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.27 In a row of 42 people facing north, Soma is 17th from the right end. If Amit sits 9th to the
left of Soma, what is Amit’s position from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. 19th

2. 17th

3. 16th

4. 18th

Q.28 Seven people, I, J, K, L, M, N and O, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people
sit to the left of M. Only I sits to the right of O. Only three people sit between O and N. J
sits at some place to the left of K but at some place to the right of L. How many people
sit between L and K?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four

Q.29 A is the brother of H. H is the mother of R. R is the son of M. G is the mother of M. How
is A related to M?
Ans 1. Son's son

2. Wife's brother

3. Son's wife's brother

4. Son's wife's father

Q.30 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

318 263 213 168 128 ?
Ans 1. 106

2. 65

3. 93

4. 79

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m
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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 19/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 A flat or gently sloping surface left behind after river erosion, often with some resistant
remnants, is known as:
Ans 1. Monadnock

2. Plateau

3. Floodplain

4. Peneplain

m
Q.2 Wind energy is best harnessed in which of the following Indian states?

m .co
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh
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2. Bihar

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3. Jharkhand
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4. Gujarat

Q.3 Which of the following practices is most suitable for preventing land degradation in arid
areas?
Ans 1. Contour ploughing

2. Shifting cultivation

3. Shelterbelt plantation
m
m .co
4. Terrace farming

Q.4
m.co
What was the focus of World Water Day, observed globally on 22 March 2025?
s e m
s e
Ans 1. Water for peace
g l a
g l a 2. Water and climate change a
a 3. Accelerating change

4. Glacier preservation

Q.5 In some file management programs, which shortcut key combination is used to copy a
selected item instead of moving it?
Ans 1. Alt + Del

2. Alt + F4

3. Alt + Ins
m .
4. Alt + Tab
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.6 Which institution played a major role in supporting India’s liberalisation policy during
the 1991 crisis?
Ans 1. Reserve Bank of India

2. Election Commission of India

3. NITI Aayog

4. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Q.7 In the post-reform era, fiscal prudence became central to macroeconomic stability.
Which of the following Acts was enacted in 2003 to institutionalise fiscal discipline in
India?
Ans 1. Companies Act

2. Banking Regulation Act

3. FEMA Act

4. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act

Q.8 Which of the following options best describes the main function of an
operating system?
Ans 1. Compiling high-level code

2. Displaying web pages

3. Managing computer hardware and software resources

4. Performing arithmetic operations

Q.9 Which of the following powers is exercised by the Union Council of Ministers in India?
Ans 1. Conducting judicial reviews

2. Supervising state legislatures

3. Declaring war

4. Framing policies and advising the President

Q.10 The Northern Plain of India is formed by the interplay of the three major river systems,
namely the Indus, the Ganga and the _______, along with their tributaries.
Ans 1. Brahmaputra

2. Narmada

3. Damodar

4. Mahanadi

Q.11 What is the relation between the frequency (f) and time period (T) of a sound wave?
Ans 1. f = T

2. f = 1/T

3. f = T/2

4. f = 2T

Q.12 In organising the Rowlatt Satyagraha, Mahatma Gandhi was assisted by Abdul Bari of
the Firangi Ulema group based in _________.
Ans 1. Kanpur

2. Patna

3. Aligarh

4. Lucknow

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Q.13 The All-India Services Act, 1951, allows which authority to frame rules for All-India
m
service recruitment?

. co
Ans 1. President of India
s e m
m a
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2. Central Government

3. The Parliament of India
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4. Union Public Service Commission

Q.14 Who became the youngest player to score over 700 runs in a single IPL season in 2025?
Ans 1. Sai Sudharsan

2. Ruturaj Gaikwad

3. Yashasvi Jaiswal

m
.co
4. Shubman Gill

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Q.15
.co
Dating back to 1639-1640 CE, which construction, located in Chennai, India, is

m
historically known as the primary English defense post?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Sadras Dutch Fort

l a
ag
2. Fort St. George

3. Fort St. David

4. Gingee Fort

Q.16 What is the primary objective of the Yashoda AI initiative launched by the National
Commission for Women (NCW) in May 2025?
Ans 1. To promote traditional crafts among women artisans

2. To provide financial assistance to women entrepreneurs

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.co
3. To enhance AI literacy and digital awareness among women

4. To offer healthcare services to rural women

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Q.17
las
In which year did Paul Ehrlich receive the Nobel Prize for discovering the first

Ans
chemotherapeutic agent, salvarsan?
1. 1905 ag
2. 1908

3. 1913

4. 1901

Q.18 Sanskrit language is mainly used for creating:
Ans 1. folk songs and pop music

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2. tribal stories
m
.co m
3. modern novels

m s e
s e
4. ancient religious texts and epics

g l a
g l a Q.19 How many seats did the BJP win in the February 2025 Delhi Assembly elections? a
a Ans 1. 48

2. 22

3. 62

4. 70

Q.20 Which Indian Billiard player won his 28th World Billiards Title at IBSF World Billiards
Championship in Doha, Qatar in November 2024?
Ans 1. Rupesh Shah
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2. Pankaj Advani
.co s e m
3. Sourav Kothari
s em l a
4. Yasin Merchant
g la ag
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Q.21 Which of the following is a government initiative aimed at improving urban
infrastructure in Indian cities?
Ans 1. Atal Bhujal Yojana

2. Smart Cities Mission

3. Swachh Bharat Gramin

4. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

Q.22 What significant space-related agreement did Bangladesh join in 2025?
Ans 1. The Moon Treaty

2. The Outer Space Treaty

3. The Artemis Accords

4. The SpaceX International Partnership

Q.23 What was a key reform introduced by the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025?
Ans 1. Clergy-only Waqf management

2. Audit exemption for Waqf assets

3. Abolition of old Waqf properties

4. Inclusion of Muslim women on Waqf Boards

Q.24 Which missile defence system, named Sudarshan Chakra, was used by India to
intercept drones and missiles during Pakistan’s attempted strikes in May 2025?
Ans 1. Prithvi Air Defence

2. S-400 Triumf

3. Akashteer

4. Barak 8

Q.25 India recently assumed the Chairmanship of which organisation from Bangladesh
during the 13th Governing Council Meeting held in Malé, Maldives?
Ans 1. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)

2. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)

3. Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)

4. Bay of Bengal Inter-Governmental Organisation (BOBP-IGO)

Q.26 Under Akbar, who was responsible for revenue and financial supervision across the
entire Mughal Empire?
Ans 1. Vakil

2. Subadar

3. Mir Bakhshi

4. Diwan-i-Kul

Q.27 What happens to excess carbohydrates in the body?
Ans 1. They are turned into proteins.

2. They are converted into amino acids and stored.

3. They are converted into fat and stored.

4. They are excreted immediately.

Q.28 What is the key reason governments promote Public-Private Partnerships in
infrastructure development?
Ans 1. To address fiscal constraints and reduce liabilities

2. To improve efficiency and innovation through private sector expertise

3. Due to lack of trained manpower

4. To privatise all national resources
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.co
Q.29 Researchers of which university produced India’s first gene-edited sheep?
m
co
Ans 1. Chandigarh University

. e m
m 2. IIT Madras
as
se 3. Sher-e-Kashmir University
ag l
4. IIT Kanpur

Q.30 Which of the following launch vehicles did ISRO use for its 100th mission in 2025?
Ans 1. PSLV C58

2. GSLV F15

3. SSLV D2

4. LV Mk III
m
m .co
.co m
Q.31 Which one of the acts is known as the first step towards constitutional development in
India?

m s e
Ans
e
1. Indian Councils Act, 1861
s l a
l a
2. Regulating Act, 1773
ag
ag
3. Pitt’s India Act, 1784

4. Charter Act, 1813

Q.32 Which of the following freedom fighters led the Rampa Rebellion of 1922 against forest
laws?
Ans 1. Ashfaqullah Khan

2. Alluri Sitarama Raju

3. Jatindra Nath Das
m
.co
4. Surya Sen

e m
Q.33
s
Which of the following Articles was introduced by the 86th Amendment to impose a duty
on parents to educate children?
la
Ans 1. Article 51A(k)
ag
2. Article 45

3. Article 39A

4. Article 21A

Q.34 Which season in India is characterised by high temperature and low humidity?
Ans 1. Retreating Monsoon

2. Cold Weather Season
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m .co
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3. Southwest Monsoon

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4. Hot Weather Season

l as
l asQ.35 What was one of the major characteristics of India’s economy at the time of
ag
ag Ans
independence in 1947?
1. Self-sufficiency in manufacturing

2. Strong trade surplus

3. Heavy dependence on agriculture and low productivity

4. Dominance of the services sector

Q.36 In May 2025, India approved the execution model for which indigenous fifth-generation
fighter aircraft program?
Ans
m
1. Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)
.
2. Medium Combat Aircraft (MCA)
.co s e m
s em l a
ag
3. HAL Twin Engine Deck Based Fighter (TEDBF)

4. Tejas Mk2
g la
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Q.37 In which of the following cities was the Sepak Takraw 2025 World Cup (ISTAF) held in
India in March 2025?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Patna

3. Bengaluru

4. New Delhi

Q.38 Which Rajput ruler founded the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty in Malwa during the 8th
century CE?
Ans 1. Nagabhatta I

2. Mihira Bhoja

3. Vatsaraja

4. Dhruva

Q.39 Who led the Tamar tribal revolts against the British in India?
Ans 1. Tilka Manjhi

2. Sidhu Murmu

3. Ganga Narain Singh

4. Bhola Nath Sahay

Q.40 Which of the following is a primary function of the District Courts in India?
Ans 1. Advising the President of India

2. Hearing appeals from lower courts within the district

3. Settling disputes between Union and State governments

4. Issuing writs to enforce fundamental rights (without High Court)

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The average of first 150 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans 1. 150.5

2. 151

3. 150

4. 149.5

Q.2 If the interest earned during the 2nd year on a certain sum is ₹3,342, and the rate of
interest is 20% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
Ans 1. ₹13,285

2. ₹13,925

3. ₹14,900

4. ₹14,075

Q.3 If 2 times a son's age is added to his father's age, the sum is 36 years. If 2.5 times the
father's age is added to the son's age, the sum is 72 years. What is the father's age (in
years)?
Ans 1. 27

2. 31

3. 23

4. 32

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.co
Q.4 The HCF of two numbers is 9 and the product of the two numbers is 8100. How many
m
pairs of numbers satisfy the given conditions?

. co
Ans 1. 5
s e m
m a
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2. 3

3. 2
ag
4. 4

Q.5 The product of two consecutive positive natural numbers is 650. The greater of the two
numbers is:
Ans 1. 29

2. 43

3. 26
m
4. 31
m .co
Q.6
m .co
Prashant and Nisha have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars.
s em
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Prashant is driving at 72 km/hr while Nisha is driving at 64 km/hr. Find the time taken by
l a
a ag
Nisha to reach Kanpur if Prashant takes 16 hours.
l
ag
Ans 1. 24 hours

2. 18 hours

3. 8 hours

4. 20 hours

Q.7 An item is marked at ₹1,200. Successive discounts of 20% and 10% are given. What is
the final selling price?
Ans 1. ₹864

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2. ₹960

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3. ₹900

4. ₹880
s e
g la
Q.8
Ans
a
Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 3% per month in 7 months.
1. 252

2. 41

3. 21

4. 42

Q.9 The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 51 and 306 respectively. If one of the
numbers is 102, find the other one.
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Ans 1. 102
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2. 204

m s e
s e 3. 175

g l a
g l a 4. 153
a
a Q.10 Nitin bought some sharpeners at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹20 each. His
profit percentage is ______% (rounded off to two decimal places).
Ans 1. 33.33

2. 35.33

3. 31.33

4. 37.33

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.11 A can do a work in 17 days and B can do the same work in 19 days. If they work on it
together for 6 days, then what fraction of the work is left?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 Aanya has to reach Bangalore which is 861 km away in 15 hours. His starting speed for
8 hours was 37 km/hr. For the next 136 km his speed was 34 km/hr. By what speed he
must travel now so as to reach Bangalore in the decided time of 15 hours?
Ans 1. 141 km/hr

2. 143 km/hr

3. 147 km/hr

4. 146 km/hr

Q.13 Evaluate: 16 + 12 ÷ 6 − 3 × 4
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3. 9

4. 6

Q.14 Find the value of x satisfying: 3(2x2 − 5) − 2(3x2 + 4x − 8) = 20
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Simplify the following.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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m
.co
Q.16 If the 6-digit number N65M04 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
m
a possible correct relation between M and N?

. co
Ans 1. M - N = 1
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m a
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2. M = N

3. M - N = -5
ag
4. M + N = 5

Q.17

Ans 1.

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2.

m
.co em
3.

4.
em l as
l as ag
ag
Q.18 Which of the following numbers divides 311916399?
Ans 1. 7

2. 13

3. 2

4. 3

Q.19 A shirt is marked at ₹800. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 25% on it. What is the
selling price of the shirt after the discount?
Ans 1. ₹600
m
2. ₹650

m .co
3. ₹700
s e
4. ₹750
g la
Q.20
a
In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and
20% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 60% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 2144 votes. How many voters were
registered?
Ans 1. 16749

2. 16747

3. 16753

4. 16750
m
m .co
Q.21

m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans 1. 9.3% a
a 2. 8.2%

3. 12.3%

4. 10.5%

Q.22 An amount of ₹616 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 5 : 12 : 11. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 154

m .
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2. 86

e m
3. 69

em l as
4. 112

las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 25 of 48

Q.23

Ans 1. 36.75

2. 33.75

3. 30.75

4. 34.75

Q.24 The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg,
56 kg, 75 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 53

2. 51

3. 52

4. 50

Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 If 18% of first number is equal to two-fifths of second number, what is the ratio of first
number to the second number?
Ans 1. 20 : 9

2. 16 : 10

3. 21 : 6

4. 18 : 7

Q.27 The perimeter of a square is 340 m. Its area (in m2) is:
Ans 1. 7204

2. 7200

3. 7207

4. 7225

Q.28 Aman and Pawan together invested ₹76,500 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹20,000, Pawan's share was ₹4,800. What was the difference between
their investments?
Ans 1. ₹39,780

2. ₹40,609

3. ₹39,923

4. ₹41,601

Q.29
Ans 1. 104°

2. 95°

3. 106°

4. 105°

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m
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Q.30
m
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m a
se Ans 1.
ag l
2.

3.

4.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 If 2 is added to each even digit and 4 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
m
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925746, what will be difference between the highest and second lowest digits thus
formed?
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Ans 1. 5

m .co s em
2. 4
s e l a
3. 6
l a ag
4. 7
ag
Q.2 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) ^ > & 5 > ^ 3 6 < + $ % * % 7 1 % 2 + 2 1 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. One

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2. Three

3. None
e m
4. Two
las
Q.3 ag
In a certain code language, ‘WHAT’ is coded as ‘3157’ and ‘HORN’ is coded as ‘2416’.
What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 6

3. 1

4. 5

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
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English alphabetical order?
m
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UTP CBX KJF SRN ?

m s e m
s e
Ans 1. VZA

g l a
g l a 2. AZV
a
a 3. AVZ

4. VAZ

Q.5 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
Only two people sit between C and G when counted from the left of G. A sits third to the
left of D. E sits to the immediate right of D. E sits second to the left of C. B is an
immediate neighbour of A. How many people sit between B and E when counted from
the right of B?
Ans 1. 3

m .
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2. 1

e m
3. 2

em l as
4. 4

las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 27 of 48

Q.6 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘÷’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

24 + 3 × 10 − 2 ÷ 41 = ?
Ans 1. 36

2. 22

3. 41

4. 29

Q.7 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. TQ−PM

2. ZW−VS

3. NK−II

4. IF−EB

Q.8 LEAV is related to SLHC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, NGCX is related to UNJE. To which of the given options is IBXS related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. PIEZ

2. PZEW

3. PEZI

4. PIZE

Q.9 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A ¥ B means ‘A is the son of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is D related to G if 'D ¥ O ÷ I + N @ G’?
Ans 1. Wife's brother

2. Wife's brother's wife

3. Wife's father's sister

4. Wife's father

Q.10 VALG is related to YYOE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, BWRC is related to EUUA. To which of the given options is HSXY related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. KQAW

2. LQBW

3. LPZV

4. JRBU

Q.11 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All chisels are hammers. No hammer is a maize.

Conclusions (I): No chisel is a maize.
Conclusions (II): Some maize are hammers.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
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m
.co
Q.12 PXTQ is related to NVRO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
m
same way, MUQN is related to KSOL. To which of the given options is JRNK related,

. co following the same logic?

s e m
m Ans 1. PHLI
a
se 2. HPIL
ag l
3. PHIL

4. HPLI

Q.13 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. F is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between F and
C. E is kept at one of the positions below F. Only G is kept between C and D. B is kept at
one of the positions above C. How many boxes are kept between C and D?
Ans 1. 3

m
.co
2. 2
m
.co m
3. 1

m s e
4. 4

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.14 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ZJ - DD

2. CU - GO

3. HR - ML

4. XB - BV

m
.co
Q.15 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain

m
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are

e
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
s
g la
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down

a
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

30, 125
25, 105
Ans 1. 40, 155

2. 35, 130

3. 20, 85

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.co
4. 15, 60

m
Q.16

m.co
If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans
21 + 70 × 10 ÷ 5 − 2 = ?
a
a
1. 24

2. 36

3. 18

4. 42

Q.17 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

CE 17 GI 19 KM 23 OQ 29 ?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. RU 37

s e
em
2. RT 37

s l a
la ag
3. ST 37


4. SU 37
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.18 Vijay starts from his home and drives 5 km towards north. He then takes a left turn,
drives 5 km, turns left, and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 3 km and
reaches his office. In which direction is the office with respect to his home?
(Note: All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)
Ans 1. North

2. West

3. South-west

4. North-west

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 23 49 83 129 183 ?
Ans 1. 294

2. 254

3. 250

4. 249

Q.20 All 45 people are standing in a row facing north. Tina is 20th from the right end while
Belamit is 28th from the left end. How many people are there between Tina and Belamit?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.21 Vslam starts from Point A and drives 17 km towards West. He then takes a left turn,
drives 9 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 22 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km to the East

2. 1 km to the South

3. 2 km to the West

4. 3 km to the South

Q.22 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

96 105 115 126 138 ?
Ans 1. 151

2. 120

3. 150

4. 152

Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

45 63 87 105 129 147 171 ?
Ans 1. 189

2. 193

3. 185

4. 197

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.co
Q.24 Seven people, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north.
m
No one sits to the left of Q. Only four people sit between Q and D. Only three people sit

. co to the right of R. C sits to the immediate left of P. B is not an immediate neighbour of R.
Who sits third to the left of B?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. A

2. R ag l
3. D

4. C

Q.25 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
m
.co
Ans 1. YG - BB
m
.co m
2. ND - QX

m s e
3. AP - DK

s e l a
4. SJ - VE
l a ag
Q.26 ag
Seven boxes C, D, E, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only two boxes are kept between O and M. Only E is kept above N. No box is kept below
M. C is kept at some place below D but at some place above P.
Which box is kept third above P?
Ans 1. C

2. N

3. M

m
.co
4. D

Q.27
e m
If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number

las
8265943, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two ag
3. One

4. None

Q.28 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 617 259 165 784 349 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
m
.co
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
m
m.co
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the lowest number is subtracted from the
second digit of the highest number?
s e m
s e
Ans 1. 3
g l a
g l a 2. 1 a
a 3. 2

4. 4

Q.29 In a certain code language, ‘BIRD’ is coded as ‘7394’ and ‘DRIP’ is coded as ‘4392’. What
is the code for ‘P’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 4

m .
.co
3. 2

e m
4. 3

em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 31 of 48

Q.30 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statement:

Some Googles are apples.
Some apples are Amazons.

Conclusions:

I. Some Googles are Amazons.
II. No Google is an Amazon.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 19/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
m
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Bangladesh is located in which direction of India?
Ans 1. East

2. North

3. Northwest

4. West

m
.co
Q.2 How many pairs of false ribs are located above the floating ribs that are connected to
each other by costal cartilage?
Ans 1. 2
e m
2. 5
las
3. 6
ag
4. 3

Q.3 In which city is India's first AI-focused Special Economic Zone (SEZ) being established
in 2025?
Ans 1. Nava Raipur

2. Hyderabad

3. Pune
m
m .co
4. Bengaluru

Q.4
m.co
Which test was successfully conducted by ISRO in the development of the
s e m
s e semicryogenic engine in March 2025?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Static fire test of the rocket booster
a
a 2. Cold test of the fuel system

3. Flight test of the complete launch vehicle

4. Hot test of the engine power head test article

Q.5 As per VarIndia (April 2025), India’s draft ‘6G THz Testbed’ specifically targets
components operating in frequencies above:
Ans 1. 60 GHz

2. 300 GHz
m .
.co m
3. 100 GHz

s e
4. 6 GHz

s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 33 of 48

Q.6 During the Gupta period, who was the Commander-in-Chief of the Gupta Army?
Ans 1. Sandhivigrahika

2. Amatya

3. Mahasenapati

4. Mahamatya

Q.7 Which architectural style characterises the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus
(CSMT) building in Mumbai, India, completed in 1887?
Ans 1. Mughal

2. Victorian Gothic

3. Indo-Saracenic

4. Rajput

Q.8 Who was the first Portuguese explorer to reach India in 1498, arriving at Calicut on the
Malabar Coast?
Ans 1. Columbus

2. Vasco da Gama

3. Nino-da-Cunha

4. Albuquerque

Q.9 Mont Blanc is the highest peak of which mountain range?
Ans 1. Alps

2. Himalayas

3. Western Ghats

4. Andes

Q.10 Why does the eastern coastal plain have fewer ports and harbours compared to the
western coastal plain?
Ans 1. It is closer to the Equator

2. It has more tourist beaches

3. It is an emergent coast

4. It receives more rainfall

Q.11 'Diyaslai’ is the autobiography of which social activist of India, on which the Indira
Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), an autonomous institution under the
Ministry of Culture held a dedicated discussion in February 2025 in an event graced by
former President Ram Nath Kovind as the chief guest?
Ans 1. Kailash Satyarthi

2. Laxmi Agarwal

3. Kiran Bedi

4. Kamla Bhasin

Q.12 Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the impeachment procedure of the
President?
Ans 1. Article 61

2. Article 66

3. Article 52

4. Article 54

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.co
Q.13 What has the Supreme Court of India ruled regarding the independence of tribunals?
m
co
Ans 1. Tribunals must be headed by sitting High Court judges to ensure credibility.

. e m
m 2. Tribunals are executive bodies and need not be independent of the executive.
as
se g l
3. Tribunals, being quasi-judicial bodies, must be independent of the executive, just like regular courts.
a
4. Tribunals can be managed by the subject-matter ministry to improve efficiency.

Q.14 Which of the following organisations launched the Bharatpol platform to enhance
coordination with Interpol in January 2025?
Ans 1. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)

2. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)

3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

m
.co
4. National Investigation Agency (NIA)

m
Q.15
.co
What was the effect of English education and western thought on Indian nationalism?

m s em
Ans
e
1. Supported casteism

s l a
l a
2. Encouraged partition
ag
ag
3. Ignited national awakening

4. Suppressed nationalism

Q.16 What has been the trend in India’s per capita income since the 1991 reforms?
Ans 1. No significant change

2. Constant decline

3. Fluctuating without a pattern

4. Gradual increase
m
Q.17
m .co
Who took over as the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in May 2025?

s e
la
Ans 1. Ajit Ratnakar Joshi

2. Swaminathan J
ag
3. Indranil Bhattacharyya

4. Dr. Poonam Gupta

Q.18 Which state is in the news for achieving full functional literacy in May 2025?
Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Tripura

3. Nagaland
m
m
4. Meghalaya
.co
Q.19
m.co
What is the specific heat of copper, which is often used for pots and pans because it
s e m
s e heats up quickly?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 604.2 J kg-1 K-1
a
a 2. 239.3 J kg-1 K-1

3. 712.1 J kg-1 K-1

4. 386.4 J kg-1 K-1

Q.20 In which of the following years was the first ever National Agriculture Policy
announced?
Ans 1. 2000

2. 2010
m .
3. 2003
.co s e m
4. 2005
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 35 of 48

Q.21 The Tripartite Struggle was a prolonged conflict among the Gurjara-Pratiharas, Palas,
and which southern Indian dynasty?
Ans 1. Rashtrakutas

2. Cholas

3. Satavahanas

4. Pallavas

Q.22 In Windows 11, what does the Alt + D keyboard shortcut do in File Explorer or a web
browser?
Ans 1. Deletes the selected file or folder

2. Duplicates the current tab

3. Focuses the address bar

4. Displays desktop

Q.23 The World Government Summit 2025, focusing on shaping future governments, was
convened in which city?
Ans 1. Geneva, Switzerland

2. Singapore

3. Doha, Qatar

4. Dubai, United Arab Emirates

Q.24 Which sector in India saw significant growth due to globalisation and outsourcing after
the 1990s?
Ans 1. Agriculture

2. Mining

3. Real Estate

4. IT and Services

Q.25 Which of the following is a socio-economic Directive Principle?
Ans 1. Promotion of international peace

2. Equal pay for equal work

3. Separation of powers

4. Independence of the judiciary

Q.26 Which of the following Constitutional Amendments introduced the Goods and Services
Tax (GST) in India?
Ans 1. 101st Amendment

2. 108th Amendment

3. 103rd Amendment

4. 97th Amendment

Q.27 What is the primary objective of the e-Zero FIR initiative launched by the Union Ministry
of Home Affairs in May 2025?
Ans 1. Provide compensation for cyber fraud victims

2. Launch an online cyber safety portal

3. Create a national crime database

4. Fast-track cyber fraud FIRs

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m
.co
Q.28 In 2025, the Central Government granted a one-year extension to Dr. Samir V Kamat,
m
extending his tenure as Chief of which organisation till May 2026?

. co
Ans 1. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
s e m
m a
se l
2. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

3. National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)
ag
4. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

Q.29 Which MS Windows feature allows users to personalize their desktop
background, theme and screensaver settings?
Ans 1. Device Manager

2. Disk Management

3. Task Scheduler
m
4. Personalization Settings
m .co
m .co s em
Q.30
e
What is the value of one carat when expressed in SI units?

s l a
a ag
Ans 1. 500 milligrams
l
ag
2. 1 gram

3. 100 milligrams

4. 200 milligrams

Q.31 Who first presided over the first Indian National Congress session at Mumbai?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Surendranath Bannerjee

m
3. W C Bannerjee

4. Anand Mohan Bose

m .co
s e
la
Q.32 Landslides due to mining and land subsidence are commonly seen in:
Ans 1. Assam and West Bengal

2. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand ag
3. Rajasthan and Haryana

4. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh

Q.33 Which initiative promotes rooftop solar installations for households?
Ans 1. URJA Mission

2. PM-KUSUM
m
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3. Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana
m
.co m
4. Solar India

m s e
s e
Q.34 Financial inclusion helps reduce income inequality in rural areas. Which platform
g l a
g l a provides a unified digital database for unorganised workers?
a
a Ans 1. Jan Dhan Yojana

2. BHIM app

3. E-Shram portal

4. UPI dashboard

Q.35 In March 2025, the Gujarat government launched which scheme to uplift 50,000
Antyodaya families through economic development and women empowerment
programmes?
Ans 1. G-SAMRIDHI
m .
2. G-SHAKTI
.co s e m
s em l a
ag
3. G-SWARUPA

4. G-SAFAL
g la
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 37 of 48

Q.36 Which of the following languages is most notably associated with the literary
contributions of Girish Karnad, exemplified by his acclaimed play 'Tughlaq'?
Ans 1. Tamil

2. Kannada

3. Marathi

4. Telugu

Q.37 Pykara was marked as the first water power station in which state of India?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Odisha

Q.38 Who presides over the sessions of the Vidhan Sabha in a State?
Ans 1. The Governor of the State

2. The Chief Minister of the State

3. The Speaker elected by members

4. The Deputy Speaker by rotation

Q.39 One of the major natural lakes in India, the Sambhar Lake of Rajasthan, is located in
which of the following districts of the state?
Ans 1. Jaipur

2. Jhunjhunu

3. Barmer

4. Jaisalmer

Q.40 Who became the first Indian space tourist in 2025, joining the crew for Amazon founder
Jeff Bezos’ Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission?
Ans 1. Shubham Banerjee

2. Gopi Thotakura

3. Zoya Agarwal

4. Mohadessa Jafri

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 Six times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 11 years. After 10 years,
three times Q’s age will be 27 years less than six times P’s age at that time. What is the
present age (in years) of Q?
Ans 1. 6

2. 12

3. 7

4. 16

Q.2 The radius of a spherical balloon increases from 5 cm to 10 cm when more air is added
to it. What is the ratio of the volume of the original balloon and the volume of the
inflated balloon?
Ans 1. 1 : 6

2. 1 : 8

3. 1 : 2

4. 1 : 4

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m
.co
Q.3 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 18 days and B can do the same
m
job in 10 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do

. co the job in

s e m
m Ans
a
se 1.

ag l
2.

3.

4.
m
m .co
Q.4
.co
Ritesh and Gauri have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Ritesh is

m
driving at 66 km/hr while Gauri is driving at 99 km/hr. Find the time taken by Gauri to
s em
s e
reach Kanpur if Ritesh takes 9 hours.
l a
Ans 1. 12 hours
l a ag
ag
2. 13 hours

3. 6 hours

4. 2 hours

Q.5 The product of two consecutive positive natural numbers is 182. The greater of the two
numbers is:
Ans 1. 27

2. 14
m
3. 7

m .co
4. 26
s e
Q.6
g la
The number 630605 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 5 a
2. 7

3. 14

4. 3

Q.7 Find the surface area of a sphere whose diameter is equal to 22 cm.
Ans 1. 484π cm2
m
.co
2. 502π cm2
m
m.co 3. 153π cm2

s e m
s e 4. 1019π cm2

g l a
g l a Q.8 If the 6-digit number N46M37 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can givea
a Ans
a possible correct relation between M and N?
1. M = N

2. M + N = 2

3. M - N = 1

4. M - N = -2

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 39 of 48

Q.9 A train of length 490 m overtakes a man moving at a speed of 9 km/hr (in the same
direction) in 12 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to completely
cross another train that has is 500 m long, moving in the opposite direction at a speed
of 42 km/hr?
Ans 1. 25

2. 36

3. 18

4. 32

Q.10 A computer is marked at ₹70,000 and a discount of 16% is offered on it. An additional
discount is offered to students. If a student pays ₹57,036 for the computer, then how
much additional discount percentage did the student receive?
Ans 1. 7%

2. 5%

3. 2%

4. 3%

Q.11 An amount of ₹402 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 13 : 8 : 9. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 56

2. 100

3. 67

4. 136

Q.12 A vendor claims to sell wheat at a loss of 65%, but he cheats by using weights that are
70% less than the stated weight. What is his actual profit percentage (round off to two
decimal places)?
Ans 1. 7.43%

2. 16.67%

3. 11.62%

4. 15.18%

Q.13

Ans 1. 35.25

2. 33.25

3. 32.25

4. 29.25

Q.14 What is the mode of the following data?
87, 65, 70, 81, 68, 62, 82, 78, 81, 82, 74, 75, 90, 67, 86, 86, 81, 90, 69, 78, 65, 78, 76, 63, 70,
81
Ans 1. 81

2. 70

3. 65

4. 87

Q.15 If the 6-digit number N23M40 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M - N = 5

2. M + N = -5

3. M = N

4. M - N = 1

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m
.co
Q.16 Sapna invested ₹21,200 on simple interest, partly at the rate of 13% per annum and
m
partly at the rate of 3% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two

. co investments after 8 years, then find the sum invested at the rate of 13% per annum (in
₹).
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 3,975

2. 3,972 ag l
3. 3,973

4. 3,976

Q.17 I bought two bicycles for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 10% and the second at a
gain of 20%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of
the first bicycle.
Ans 1. 784

m
.co
2. 820
m
.co m
3. 800

m s e
4. 824

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.18 The current population of a town is 10,630. It increases by 25% and 50% in two
successive years but decreases by 68% in the third year. What is the population of the
town at the end of the third year?
Ans 1. 6376

2. 6374

3. 6380

4. 6378

Q.19
m
Ans
m .co
e
1.

las
2.
ag
3.

4.

Q.20 A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 8 years. In how
many years will it amount to 9 times of itself?
m
.co
Ans 1. 10 years
m
.co m
2. 17 years

m s e
s e
3. 9 years

g l a
g l a 4. 16 years
a
a Q.21 Given that 500.92 = x, 500.26= y and xz = y3, then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 0.39

2. 0.83

3. 0.85

4. 3.85

Q.22 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 5?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. 7132956

s e
em a
2. 6175753

s l
la ag
3. 7048030


4. 6567359
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 41 of 48

Q.23 Abdul and Mohsin together invested ₹76,800 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹19,000, Mohsin's share was ₹3,800. What was the difference between
their investments?
Ans 1. ₹46,300

2. ₹45,780

3. ₹44,260

4. ₹46,080

Q.24 Which of the following ratios is the greatest?
Ans 1. 28 : 74

2. 45 : 85

3. 33 : 72

4. 40 : 53

Q.25 The average of first 153 even numbers is
Ans 1. 153.5

2. 154

3. 155

4. 154.5

Q.26 Simplify the given expression.

x(7x − 5) + 7(x2 − 2) + 18
Ans 1. 14x2 − 5x − 4

2. −14x2 − 5x − 4

3. 14x2 − 5x + 4

4. −14x2 − 5x + 4

Q.27 6 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days, while 3 women can do it in 18 days. In
how many days can 9 women and 8 men complete this work?
Ans 1. 8 days

2. 1 day

3. 3 days

4. 6 days

Q.28 The marked price of a watch is ₹3,480. It is sold for ₹2,958. The rate of discount is
_____.
Ans 1. 15%

2. 17%

3. 13%

4. 10%

Q.29 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 54°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 72°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 100°

2. 98°

3. 95°

4. 108°

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m
.co
Q.30 Evaluate: (−9) − (−60) ÷ (−6) + (−4) × 9
m
co
Ans 1. −57

. e m
m 2. −55
as
se 3. −58
ag l
4. −54

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical
order?

UXX VSU WNR ? YDL
Ans 1. XLV
m
2. XIO
m .co
3. WLZ

m .co s em
4. PSL
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.2 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) + @ & ? % \ ? + < # 8 $ 1 % % 5 2 4 9 ^ 7 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Three

2. Five

3. One
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4. Two

e m
Q.3
s
In a certain code language, ‘LUMA’ is coded as ‘5796’ and ‘MALI’ is coded as ‘8569’.
What is the code for ‘I’ in that language?
la
Ans 1. 8
ag
2. 9

3. 5

4. 6

Q.4 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
GULF – FLGU – GLUF

m
ALTS – STAL – ATLS

.co
Ans 1. SICK – KCSI – SCIK
m
m.co 2. LIMB – IMLB – IMBL

s e m
s e 3. CALF – FLCA – ALCF

g l a
g l a 4. FINE – FNIE – ENIF
a
a

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.5 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All Peaches are Pineapples.
All Pineapples are Lemons.

Conclusions:
I. No Lemons are Peaches.
II. Some Lemons are Peaches.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.6 If 1 is added to each even digit of the number 36719542, then how many digits are
repeated more than once in the new number formed?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Three

4. Two

Q.7 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. TWA

2. HLO

3. JMQ

4. CFJ

Q.8 UFNE is related to YCRB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, CZVY is related to GWZV. To which of the given options is KTDS related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. OPGR

2. NRGQ

3. MPFO

4. OQHP

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 2 4 7 28 33 ?
Ans 1. 198

2. 199

3. 197

4. 196

Q.10 In a row of people all facing north, Puja is 13th from the left end. Barun is 15th from the
left end. Barun is exactly between Puja and Risabh. If Risabh is 12th from the right end
of the row, how many people are there in the row?
Ans 1. 30

2. 25

3. 28

4. 27

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m
.co
Q.11 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
m
75364812, then what will be the sum of the greatest and smallest digit in the new

. co number thus formed?

s e m
m Ans 1. 8
a
se 2. 9
ag l
3. 10

4. 12

Q.12 Manoj ranked 26th from the top and 55th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 81

2. 79

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3. 80
m
.co m
4. 82

m s e
Q.13
s e
Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
l a
l a
All numbers are single-digit. Counting to be done from left to right.
ag
ag
(Left) 2 Ω % 1 4 9 & 5 7 * 6 @ ? 3 # 8 £ $ (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. One

4. Four

m
Q.14
.co
XTXY is related to CYCD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the

m
same way, GCGH is related to LHLM. To which of the given options is LHLM related,
following the same logic?
s e
Ans 1. QNPX
g la
2. QMQR
a
3. QMPR

4. QLPR

Q.15 A is the father of R. R is the mother of C. C is the son of D. G is the father of D. How is A
related to G?
Ans 1. Son's wife's brother

2. Son's wife's father
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m .co
3. Wife's father

m.co 4. Wife's brother
s e m
s e g l a
a
Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs

g l are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
a
a to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of
consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. IK – BD

2. YA – RT

3. LN – EG

4. EH – XZ

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

12 16 25 41 ? 102
Ans 1. 62

2. 50

3. 66

4. 56

Q.18 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the pair in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

8, 25
11, 34
Ans 1. 6, 17

2. 15, 46

3. 13, 39

4. 9, 37

Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All oranges are melons.
All melons are grapes.

Conclusions:
(I) Some melons are oranges.
(II) All grapes are oranges.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.20 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(228 Q 12) S 69 P 3 S (216 Q 18) R 10 S 30 P 4 = ?
Ans 1. 328

2. 428

3. 268

4. 348

Q.21 In a certain code language, ‘INKS’ is coded as ‘4628’ and ‘NEAR’ is coded as ‘1385’.
What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 6

4. 1

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m
.co
Q.22 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
26, 21, 11, −4, −24, ?

. co
Ans 1. −54
s e m
m a
se l
2. 57

3. −49
ag
4. 49

Q.23 Ajay starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards North. He then takes a right turn,
drives 3 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to west

m
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2. 4 km to east
m
.co m
3. 3 km to east

m s e
4. 4 km to west

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.24 Seven people, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only three people sit between A and C. Q sits to the immediate left of C. No one sits to
the right of B. Only two people sit between B and Q. D sits to the immediate right of R.
How many people sit between P and D?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

m
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Q.25 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

m
that group?

e
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s
la
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PTR

2. GKH ag
3. WAY

4. NRP

Q.26 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

BIP 104, ELS 97, HOV 90, KRY 83, NUB 76, ?

m
.co
Ans 1. QKE 69

m
.co m
2. MXE 69

m 3. QYE 69
s e
s e g l a
g l a 4. QXE 69
a
a Q.27 Seven people, I, J, K, L, U, V and W are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only three people sit between V and J. U sits to the immediate left of J. No one sits to
the right of I. Only two people sit between I and U. W sits to the immediate right of L.
How many people sit between K and W?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. Four

4. One

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.28 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7135682, then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. None

Q.29 Mr. Tuff starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn
and drives 2 km, then turns left and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 8 km to the west

2. 7 km to the north

3. 7 km to the south

4. 6 km to the south

Q.30 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept below G. Only one box is kept above A. Only one
box is kept between A and E. B is kept immediately above D. C is kept at some place
below F. How many boxes are kept below A?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

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