RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 14 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 14 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 14/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Rabindranath Tagore's "Geetanjali," which was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1913, is best
classified as which form of writing?
Ans 1. A collection of short stories

2. A play

3. A collection of poetry

4. A novel

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Q.2
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India participated in the 9th BRICS Industry Ministers' Meeting held on 21 May 2025,
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under the Chairmanship of which country?
Ans 1. Russia
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2. South Africa
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3. Brazil

4. UAE

Q.3 Which institution played a key role in influencing the structural reforms of the industrial
sector in India post 1991?
Ans 1. NABARD

2. WTO

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3. IMF and World Bank

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4. RBI

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Q.4 The Acheulian cultural tradition is primarily identified with which types of advanced and
g l a
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Ans 1. Blades and borers

2. Microliths and scrapers

3. Chisels and adzes

4. Cleavers and hand-axes

Q.5 Which international agreement was signed to control emissions of ozone-depleting
substances?
Ans 1. Basel Convention

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2. Montreal Protocol

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3. Earth Summit

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4. Kyoto Protocol
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Q.6 Which of the following schemes aims to skill rural youth who are poor and provide them
with jobs having regular monthly wages or above the minimum wages?
Ans 1. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)

2. Garib Kalyan Rozgar Yojana (GKRY)

3. Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)

4. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

Q.7 The Human Genome Project, launched in 1990, had the goal of determining the
sequence of how many billion base pairs that make up human DNA?
Ans 1. 3.0 billion

2. 5.2 billion

3. 4.3 billion

4. 2.1 billion

Q.8 India’s foreign trade structure changed significantly under British rule. During the
colonial period, what kind of goods did India primarily export?
Ans 1. Capital goods

2. Manufactured goods

3. Automobiles

4. Raw materials

Q.9 What name did Dobereiner give to his groups of three similar elements?
Ans 1. Triangles

2. Triads

3. Triplets

4. Triodes

Q.10 What does ‘dyarchy’ mean in the context of the 1919 Act?
Ans 1. Power to the judiciary and legislature

2. Dual monarchy system

3. Dual control in provinces

4. Centralised governance

Q.11 What is the primary function of the Control Unit within a CPU?
Ans 1. Performing arithmetic calculations

2. Managing external device connections

3. Directing the flow of instructions and data

4. Storing frequently used data

Q.12 Which of the following minerals is known for its insulating properties and is used in
electrical industries?
Ans 1. Bauxite

2. Limestone

3. Mica

4. Iron ore

Q.13 Which of the following is an example of social legislation introduced by the British
during the colonial period in India?
Ans 1. The Rowlatt Act

2. The Vernacular Press Act

3. The Indian Councils Act

4. The Widow Remarriage Act
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Q.14 The M23 rebel group, which has recently advanced in eastern regions such as Goma
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and Bukavu, is active in which of the following countries?

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Ans 1. South Sudan
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2. Republic of Congo

3. Democratic Republic of Congo
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4. Central African Republic

Q.15 Which article of the Indian Constitution relates RTI to the fundamental right to freedom
of speech and expression?
Ans 1. Article 15(1)(b)

2. Article 21

3. Article 32
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4. Article 19(1)(a)
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Q.16
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Which of the following exercises was conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) in April
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2025 to simulate attacks on mountain and ground targets using advanced fighter jets
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like Rafale and Su-30MKI?
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Ans 1. Vayu Shakti

2. Meghdoot

3. Aakraman

4. Gagan Shakti

Q.17 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is commonly cited as forming
the constitutional basis for Judicial Review?
Ans 1. Article 30

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2. Article 19

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3. Article 370

4. Article 13
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Q.18
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Which Indian institute's scientists unlocked the mystery of a cellular 'messenger' that
may help treat Alzheimer's and diabetes?
Ans 1. AIIMS New Delhi

2. IIT Delhi

3. IISc Bengaluru

4. IIT Kharagpur

Q.19 What is a special feature of the new 'Agni-Prime' missile tested by India in March 2025?
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Ans 1. Hits many targets
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2. Canister launch and new materials

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a Q.20 Joseph Francois Dupleix was the governor who led the forces of which of the following
European powers?
Ans 1. British

2. Portuguese

3. Dutch

4. French

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Q.21 What can be the shape of the trajectory of a charged particle moving in a uniform
magnetic field?
Ans 1. Helical path

2. Elliptical path

3. Parabolic path

4. Hyperbolic path

Q.22 What is the main feature of the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023?
Ans 1. Set up of the Lokpal

2. Reservation of one-third seats for women in legislatures

3. Provision of legal status to Right to Property

4. Abolishment of titles

Q.23 The Western Ghats and the northeastern hills of India are primarily covered with which
type of natural vegetation?
Ans 1. Tropical Evergreen Forests

2. Tropical Deciduous Forests

3. Tropical Thorn Forests

4. Montane Forests

Q.24 Which nation became the fourth nation to successfully dock two satellites in space in
January 2025?
Ans 1. China

2. The US

3. Russia

4. India

Q.25 Major Malla Rama Gopal Naidu of the Maratha Light Infantry of the Indian Army was
awarded with which of the following honours in May 25?
Ans 1. Shaurya Chakra (Posthumous)

2. Kirti Chakra

3. Kirti Chakra (Posthumous)

4. Shaurya Chakra

Q.26 Which of the following is NOT a major cause of the people’s revolts before 1857?
Ans 1. Exploitation of rural society by corrupt officers.

2. Destruction of indigenous industries.

3. Conversion of people to Christianity.

4. Colonial land revenue settlements.

Q.27 At the 2025 Cannes Film Festival, who was honoured with the Honorary Palme d'Or
recognising lifetime achievement?
Ans 1. Leonardo DiCaprio

2. Robert De Niro

3. Quentin Tarantino

4. Denzel Washington

Q.28 Which of the following colonial-era buildings in Chennai serves as the headquarters of
the Greater Chennai Corporation?
Ans 1. High Court

2. Ripon Building

3. Fort St. George

4. Government Museum
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Q.29 Who among the following launched the Nationwide Mass Drug Administration
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Campaign for Lymphatic Filariasis?

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Ans 1. Chirag Paswan
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2. Amit Shah

3. Shivraj Singh Chauhan
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4. Jagat Prakash Nadda

Q.30 Under the Fifth Schedule, which primary authority is granted to the Governor of a State
regarding Scheduled Areas?
Ans 1. Power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly

2. Power to regulate land, forests and social customs in Scheduled Areas

3. Power to amend the Constitution regarding Schedule amendments
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4. Authority to appoint Members of Parliament from Scheduled Areas
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Q.31
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Who among the following is the founder of the Pala dynasty?
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Ans 1. Bhoja

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2. Dharmapala

3. Gopala

4. Dhruva

Q.32 In which of the following Indian regions is an alpine climate with snowy winters and
cool summers predominant?
Ans 1. Thar Desert

2. Northern Plains

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3. Himalayan Mountains

4. Western Ghats

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Q.33
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Which of the following is not a factor that affects ocean currents?
Ans 1. Soil type
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2. Temperature differences

3. Earth's rotation

4. Wind

Q.34 In which of the following cities of India was Infosys established in 1994?
Ans 1. Hyderabad

2. Mumbai
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3. Bengaluru
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g l a Q.35 In February 2025, which major Zambian river was polluted by an acid spill from a
Chinese-operated copper mine? a
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2. Kafue River

3. Luangwa River

4. Zambezi River

Q.36 Which physical factor most influences the formation of dispersed settlements in hilly
and forested regions of India?

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Ans 1. Industrial development

2. Language diversity
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3. Railway networks
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4. Altitude and terrain
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Q.37 What is required when creating a file or folder?
Ans 1. A password

2. A desktop shortcut

3. An email ID

4. A name

Q.38 Which author released the memoir 'Mother Mary Comes to Me' in 2025, reflecting on her
relationship with her late mother?
Ans 1. Arundhati Roy

2. Jhumpa Lahiri

3. Kiran Desai

4. Anita Desai

Q.39 Which Indian para-athlete was honoured with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
in 2025 for his achievements in high jump?
Ans 1. Mariyappan Thangavelu

2. Sharad Kumar

3. Varun Singh Bhati

4. Praveen Kumar

Q.40 In which state did the DRDO successfully conduct the first flight test of its indigenous
Stratospheric Airship Platform (SAP) on 3 May 2025?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Gujarat

3. Rajasthan

4. Madhya Pradesh

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 An article marked at ₹500 is sold for ₹425. What is the percentage discount?
Ans 1. 13%

2. 15%

3. 14%

4. 12%

Q.2 Pipe A can fill a tank in 15 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 27 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 10 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.3 A vendor claims to sell wheat at a loss of 20%, but he cheats by using weights that are
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35% less than the stated weight. What is his actual profit percentage (round off to two

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3. 23.08%

4. 24.72%

Q.4 Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 9 cm, 12 cm, and 15 cm.
Ans 1. 60 cm2

2. 54 cm2

3. 42 cm2
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4. 48 cm2
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Q.5
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Ans
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1. −74x − 138

2. 74x + 138

3. 74x − 138

4. −74x + 138

Q.6 37 light bulbs were purchased for ₹37, and 19 light bulbs broke in transit. The trader
sold the remaining light bulbs at ₹3.90 each. Find his profit.
Ans 1. ₹23.60
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2. ₹33.20

3. ₹33.90
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4. ₹39.80
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Q.7 ag
Three times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 23 years. After 7
years, six times Q’s age will be 30 years less than six times P’s age at that time. What is
the present age (in years) of Q?
Ans 1. 8

2. 3

3. 11

4. 4

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Q.8 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 44°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 23°. What
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is the measure of ∠ AEB?

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Ans

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1. 56°

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4. 64°

Q.9 The average price of three items of furniture is ₹5,300. If their prices are in the ratio 3 : 5
: 7, the price of the cheapest item (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 5,300

2. 3,180

3. 1,060

4. 7,420
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Q.10 The number 541096943 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 97

2. 87

3. 103

4. 107

Q.11 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 12
months.
Ans 1. ₹68

2. ₹96

3. ₹48

4. ₹576

Q.12 The number of prime numbers lying between 393 and 401, both included, is:
Ans 1. 7

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

Q.13 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 462. The greater of the two numbers
is:
Ans 1. 21

2. 22

3. 23

4. 24

Q.14 An article is marked at ₹1,500 and sold for ₹1,200. Find the percentage discount.
Ans 1. 20%

2. 30%

3. 25%

4. 15%

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 7.5% per annum rate of interest deposited on
8 February 2024 and withdrawn on 9 April 2024.
Ans 1. 50

2. 51

3. 48

4. 49

Q.16

Ans 1. 29.25

2. 30.25

3. 26.25

4. 32.25

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Q.17 4 men can complete a piece of work in 10 days, while 3 women can do it in 16 days. In
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how many days can 6 women and 5 men complete this work?

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Ans 1. 5 days
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2. 3 days

3. 4 days
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4. 6 days

Q.18 Zeeshan travels 612 km at 68 km/hr, the next 312 km at 39 km/hr and the next 620 km at
62 km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 51.18

2. 57.19

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3. 66.13

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4. 58.22

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Q.19
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Which of the following numbers divides 718754023?
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Ans 1. 21
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2. 3
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3. 18

4. 13

Q.20 A, B and C invested a sum in the ratio of 8 : 36 : 76, respectively. If they earned a total
profit of ₹3,030 at the end of the year, what is the difference between the shares of B
and C?
Ans 1. ₹1,051

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2. ₹1,010

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3. ₹1,046

4. ₹993
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Q.21
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₹30,600 was divided among A, B and C such that 8 times the share of A = 4 times the
share of B = 3 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹5,400

2. ₹5,252

3. ₹5,594

4. ₹5,377

Q.22 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 18% and its height is
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increased by 141%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its

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volume?
Ans

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Q.23 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining a
constant speed and thus, takes a total time of 4 hours 45 minutes. He would have
gained 2 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to walk both
ways with the same walking speed?
Ans 1. 6 hours 30 minutes

2. 7 hours 15 minutes

3. 5 hours 45 minutes
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4. 6 hours 45 minutes
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Q.24 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 43. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 14 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.
Ans 1. 35.21

2. 34.21

3. 33.21

4. 36.21

Q.25 Find the value of [135 ÷ {25 + 5 × (7 − 3)}].
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 2

4. 4

Q.26

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.27 Salil’s salary was first reduced by 25% and subsequently raised by 12%. What
percentage was his final salary lower than his initial salary?
Ans 1. 3%

2. 16%

3. 12%

4. 25%

Q.28 The LCM of the numbers 4.7 and 0.04 is:
Ans 1. 94

2. 0.94

3. 9.4

4. 0.094

Q.29 If the third proportional of 16 and 40 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 102

2. 99

3. 101

4. 100

Q.30 The value of √(1.0201) is _______.
Ans 1. 1.02

2. 10.1

3. 101

4. 1.01

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.1 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting to be done from left to right only.

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se How many such numbers are there that are immediately preceded by a symbol and
immediately followed by another number?
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Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Two

4. Four

Q.2 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
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75 × 5 + 11 − 2 ÷ 18 = ?
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Ans 1. 21

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2. 17
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3. 26
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4. 11
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Q.3 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KE-MF

2. EY-GZ

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3. YS-AT

4. PJ-RI
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Q.4 A is the brother of S. S is the daughter of L. L is married to K. K is the daughter of D. D

Ans 1. Father's brother
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is the father of P. P is the sister of R. R is married to N. How is D related to S?

2. Father

3. Mother's father

4. Father's father

Q.5 Each of the digits in the number 5341289 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
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Ans
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1. Two
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a Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

108 122 139 159 182 208 ?
Ans 1. 222

2. 237

3. 229

4. 248

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Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(19, 31, 55)
(14, 26, 50)
Ans 1. (48, 60, 84)

2. (18, 32, 54)

3. (15, 30, 45)

4. (13, 26, 43)

Q.8 If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘×’ means ‘division’ and ‘÷’ means
‘addition’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation?

64 × 8 + 6 − 6 ÷ 33 = ?
Ans 1. 20

2. 5

3. 10

4. 15

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

2 6 12 20 ?
Ans 1. 40

2. 35

3. 30

4. 25

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

WRM RMH MHC HCX ?
Ans 1. CXD

2. CDX

3. CXS

4. CSX

Q.11 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
LIVE – ELVI – LEIV
HANG – GHNA – HGAN
Ans 1. PORT – TPOR – ORTP

2. REDS – ERDS – SEDR

3. DUSK – KDSU – DKUS

4. PAIN – NPIA – PANI

Q.12 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
ERT : FSV
RDX : SEZ
Ans 1. DUC : EVD

2. UHS : VIU

3. EOC : FPF

4. IOP : JPS

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Q.13 HDLI is related to FBJG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
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same way, KGOL is related to IEMJ. To which of the given options is NJRO related,

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3. HLPM

4. HLMP

Q.14 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. SXR

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2. LQK
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3. NSL

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4. QVP

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Q.15 Gautam starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 4 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to east

2. 2 km to west

3. 3 km to west

4. 3 km to east

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Q.16 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the

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given series to make it logically complete?

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ZY 43 VU 40 RQ 35 NM 28 ?
Ans 1. JI 19

2. JI 18 ag
3. KJ 18

4. KJ 19

Q.17 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. G is kept immediately above F. C is kept immediately above A. Only E is
kept above B. Only two boxes are kept above G. C is not kept at the third position from
the bottom. How many boxes are kept above B?

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Ans 1. 1

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2. 4

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Q.18 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All buckets are mugs.
All mugs are cans.

Conclusions:
(I) Some cans are mugs.
(II) All buckets are cans.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.19 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 629 189 586 643 746 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If 2 is added to the first digit of every number, in how many numbers thus formed will
the first digit be exactly divisible by the second digit?
Ans 1. Three

2. None

3. Two

4. One

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘BORN’ is coded as ‘3257’ and ‘RIPE’ is coded as ‘6142’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 4

4. 2

Q.21 Seven people, G, H, I, J, K, L and S, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. I sits third to the left of J. Only two people sit between J and G. Only three
people sit between I and L. K sits to the immediate left of H. How many people sit
between K and S when counted from the right of S?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.22 Pranay ranked 14th from the top and 44th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 55

2. 56

3. 58

4. 57

Q.23 In a certain code language, ‘CAME’ is coded as ‘6781’ and ‘RACE’ is coded as ‘5618’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 1

4. 6
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.co
Q.24 Each of the digits in the number 7314685 is arranged in ascending order from left to
m
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and third from the

. co right in the new number thus formed?

s e m
m Ans 1. 9
a
se 2. 7
ag l
3. 6

4. 10

Q.25 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

m
Statements:

.co
All triangles are compasses.
All squares are compasses.
m
Conclusions:
m .co s em
s e
(I) Some triangles are squares.
l a
l a
(II) Some compasses are squares.
ag
Ans
ag
1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.26 Seven boxes U, V, W, X, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. U is kept immediately above V. X is kept immediately above W. Only E is
kept above G. Only two boxes are kept above U. X is not kept at the third position from

m
the bottom. How many boxes are kept between F and E?

.co
Ans 1. One

2. Four
e m
3. Three
las
4. Two
ag
Q.27 Seven people, I, J, K, L, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit
to the left of K. Only three people sit between K and L. Only one person sits between L
and J. P sits to the immediate left of I. Q is not an immediate neighbour of L. How many
people sit to the right of R?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Three
m
m .co
4. Two

Q.28
m.co
Divesh starts from point D and runs 3 km towards south. He then takes a right turn and
s e m
s e runs 4 km. He then takes a left turn and runs 3 km. He takes another left turn and runs 4
g l a
g l a km. He takes a final right turn and runs 1 km to reach point E. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he run in order to reach point D again? a
a Ans
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless otherwise specified.)
1. 7 km north

2. 6 km north

3. 3 km north

4. 4 km north

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.29 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. BEKR

2. CGLS

3. LPUB

4. QUZG

Q.30 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
91, 102, 119, 142, 171, ?
Ans 1. 204

2. 214

3. 215

4. 206

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 14/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Market control under Alauddin Khilji aimed mainly to ________.
Ans 1. patronise artisan guilds

2. encourage foreign trade

3. promote luxury crafts and goods

4. check price inflation for army provisions

m
.co
Q.2 Which natural feature divides the Lakshadweep islands into two broad parts?
Ans 1. Equator

e m
2. Nine Degree Channel

las
3. Ten Degree Channel

4. Tropic of Cancer ag
Q.3 In which of the following Indian states is the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve located?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. West Bengal

3. Assam

4. Odisha
m
m .co
.co
Q.4 Who was the first Indian to win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games?
Ans 1. Sushil Kumar
e m
e m l as
l as 2. PT Usha

ag
g
3. Leander Paes

a 4. Milkha Singh

Q.5 Which of the following is a distinctive feature of tribal settlements in India?
Ans 1. Modern infrastructure and transportation

2. Skyscrapers

3. Planned city layouts

4. Scattered or linear village pattern in forested or hilly areas

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 Which state leads the fiscal health index 2025 with a top score of 67.8?
Ans 1. Telangana

2. Odisha

3. Maharashtra

4. Chhattisgarh

Q.7 Who has the power to give directions to the State Government to ensure compliance
with Union laws?
Ans 1. Prime Minister of India

2. Parliament of India

3. Supreme Court of India

4. President of India

Q.8 In June 2025, a 'Maha Kumbhabhishekam' was performed after 270 years at the Sree
Padmanabhaswamy Temple, located in which Indian State?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Kerala

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.9 The 44th Amendment (1978) removed which of the following from the list of
Fundamental Rights, converting it into a mere legal right under Article 300A?
Ans 1. Right to Equality

2. Right to Constitutional Remedies

3. Right to Education

4. Right to Property

Q.10 Which of the following subjects was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by
the 42nd Amendment Act?
Ans 1. Police

2. Agriculture

3. Public health

4. Education

Q.11 Under guidance of which of the following organisations were the civil defence mock
drills conducted under Operation Shield in Haryana in May 2025?
Ans 1. Election Commission of India

2. National Disaster Management Authority

3. Ministry of Defence

4. Union Ministry of Home Affairs

Q.12 What is the maximum strength of members in a State Legislative Assembly as per the
Constitution of India?
Ans 1. 475

2. 450

3. 435

4. 500

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.co
Q.13 Which of the following infrastructure initiatives is associated with urban development in
m
India?

. co
Ans 1. RURBAN Mission
s e m
m a
se l
2. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan

3. Managed Services Provider Scheme
ag
4. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation

Q.14 Which is the first State where India's first organic fish cluster was launched by the
Central Government?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Mizoram

3. Sikkim
m
4. Meghalaya
m .co
Q.15
m .co
What does the abbreviation ASCII stand for?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Advanced Secure Communication Interface

l a
ag
2. Analog Signal Coding Interface Index

3. Automated System for Computer Integrated Information

4. American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Q.16 Which of the following is a traditional folk painting style from Bihar?
Ans 1. Warli

2. Pattachitra

3. Kalamkari
m
.co
4. Madhubani

e m
Q.17
Ans 1. Electric jet engine
las
In March 2025, ISRO advanced in developing which engine for LVM3?

2. Turbo plasma engine ag
3. Semicryogenic engine

4. Liquid booster

Q.18 Which indigenous radar system, developed by DRDO in 2025, is designed to enhance
the capabilities of the Tejas Mk1A aircraft?
Ans 1. Revathi

2. Bharani Mk I
m
m
3. Uttam AESA
.co
m.co 4. Aslesha Mk I
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.19
Ans
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by which water body?
a
a
1. Gulf of Mannar

2. Nine Degree Channel

3. Ten Degree Channel

4. Duncan Passage

Q.20 As per the 2025 Human Development Index (HDI) report, what is India's HDI value for
2023 that places it in the medium human development category?
Ans 1. 0.496

m .
.co
2. 0.721

e m
3. 0.685

em l as
4. 0.810

las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.21 Which edition of National Voters’ Day was celebrated on 25 January 2025 to
commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India?
Ans 1. 5th

2. 15th

3. 20th

4. 10th

Q.22 Why is infrastructure referred to as a 'universal intermediate'?
Ans 1. It is the most profitable sector.

2. It is universally available in every country.

3. It is used in the production of nearly all goods and services.

4. It connects urban and rural areas.

Q.23 In the April 2025 International Shooting Sport Federation World Cup, in which
shooting event did Saurabh Chaudhary win a bronze medal?
Ans 1. 50 m Rifle 3 Positions

2. 25 m Rapid Fire Pistol

3. Skeet Shooting

4. 10 m Air Pistol

Q.24 The reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs/STs and women comes under which
Article?
Ans 1. Article 243E

2. Article 243A

3. Article 243D

4. Article 243B

Q.25 On 1 May 2025, the Election Commission of India has launched how many major
initiatives to improve the accuracy of voter list and ease the voting process?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.26 What does the 'Ctrl + V' shortcut key do?
Ans 1. It pastes the copied text or files.

2. It copies the selected text or files.

3. It cuts the selected text or files.

4. It saves the current document.

Q.27 Who is considered unemployed under the Usual Status (US) measure?
Ans 1. Someone working only one day a week

2. Someone retired from work

3. Someone not working but seeking work over a long period

4. Someone working part-time

Q.28 The Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP), is a key sub-scheme under
____________.
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

2. Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)

3. National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)

4. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)
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.co
Q.29 What is the value of one curie (Ci) in SI units of radioactivity?
m
co
Ans 1. 3.7×106 disintegrations per second
. e m
m 2. 1.6×1010 disintegrations per second
as
se 3. 6.02×108 disintegrations per second
ag l
4. 3.7×1010 disintegrations per second

Q.30 What happens to tectonic plates at divergent boundaries?
Ans 1. They stay in one place.

2. They move away from each other.

3. They slide past one another.

4. They move towards each other.
m
m .co
.co
Q.31 The term gomat in the Rigveda refers to which of the following?

em
s
Ans 1. A warrior

e m l a
2. A priest

l as ag
ag
3. A wealthy person

4. A milkmaid

Q.32 Which two parties signed a landmark Digital Trade Agreement (DTA) in May 2025 to
deepen digital and economic cooperation?
Ans 1. United States and Japan

2. European Union and Singapore

3. China and South Korea

4. India and Australia
m
Q.33
m .co
In which of the following regions did Rani Avantibai Lodhi of Ramgarh raise and lead an

s e
army of four thousand against the British, who had taken over the administration of her
state?

g la
Ans 1. North-Eastern regions of Rajasthan

2. Lucknow and Kanpur
a
3. The region of Awadh

4. Mandla region of Madhya Pradesh

Q.34 Which of the following correctly represents the function of dietary fibre in the human
diet?
Ans 1. Increases cholesterol

m
.co
2. Helps build muscle
m
.co m
3. Aids digestion

m s e
s e
4. Provides energy

g l a
g l a Q.35 In April 2025, India developed two (Human Papillomavirus test) HPV testing kits for the a
a Ans
diagnosis of which type of cancer?
1. Brain cancer

2. Prostate cancer

3. Blood cancer

4. Cervical cancer

Q.36 In 1869, who is credited with publishing the first widely recognized version of the
periodic table?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. John Alexander Newlands

s e
em
2. Dmitri Mendeleev

s l a
la ag
3. Johann Dobereiner


4. Lothar Meyer
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Q.37 Who were members of the States Reorganisation Commission formed in 1953?
Ans 1. HN Kunzru, KM Panikkar, Fazl Ali

2. Nehru, Ambedkar, Azad

3. Rajaji, Nehru, Bose

4. Rajendra Prasad, Patel, Rajaji

Q.38 Which of the following European powers was the first to arrive in India by sea route?
Ans 1. French

2. Portuguese

3. Dutch

4. English

Q.39 Which of the following tribes is mainly found in the north-eastern part of India?
Ans 1. Gonds

2. Nagas

3. Santhals

4. Bhils

Q.40 On which date did ISRO attempt its 101st launch, which could not be accomplished due
to technical problems during its third stage?
Ans 1. 14 May 2025

2. 18 May 2025

3. 20 May 2025

4. 16 May 2025

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 Rishi bought some pens at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹21 each. His profit
percentage is ______%.
Ans 1. 40

2. 38

3. 44

4. 42

Q.2 Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-4) × 7
Ans 1. -42

2. -43

3. -45

4. -46

Q.3 A sum of ₹10,00,000 amounts to ₹10,92,727 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest per
annum, compounded annually. The rate of interest per annum is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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.co
Q.4 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 79 and the third
m
number is 135. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.

. co
Ans 1. 214
s e m
m a
se l
2. 181

3. 182
ag
4. 215

Q.5 In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and
2% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 52% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 1568 votes. How many voters were
registered?
Ans 1. 49999

2. 50002
m
3. 50000
m .co
4. 49997

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.6 If the 6-digit number N37M01 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
l
ag
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M = N

2. M - N = 1

3. M - N = 3

4. M + N = -3

Q.7

m
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Ans
1.

e m
2.
las
3. ag
4.

Q.8 The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 150. The difference of the two
numbers is 5. Find the numbers.
Ans 1. 15, 10

2. 15, 20
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3. 20, 25

e m
e m
4. 30, 25

l as
l as Q.9 A number, when increased by 70%, gives 3570. The number is:
ag
ag Ans 1. 2100

2. 6300

3. 1050

4. 4200

Q.10 If 2 times a son's age is added to his father's age, the sum is 42 years. If 2.2 times the
father's age is added to the son's age, the sum is 89 years. What is the father's age (in
years)?
Ans 1. 42
m .
2. 40
.co s e m
3. 44
s em l a
4. 37
g la ag
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Q.11 Sapna invested ₹21,600 on simple interest, partly at 14% per annum and partly at 4%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 6 years, then find
the sum invested at 14% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 4,798

2. 4,800

3. 4,801

4. 4,802

Q.12 Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 33 minutes and 22 minutes, respectively.
There is a pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are
opened simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 18 minutes. How long will
the pipe at the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other
pipe is then open?
Ans 1. 99 minutes

2. 49.5 minutes

3. 79 minutes

4. 39.5 minutes

Q.13 Find the value of x satisfying: 2(5x2 − 5) − 5(2x2 + 9x − 5) = 18
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 Find the value of: [640 ÷ { 22 + 6 × ( 4 − 5 )}].
Ans 1. 37

2. 36

3. 45

4. 40

Q.15 A dealer marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 45%.
What would be his loss percentage?
Ans 1. 5%

2. 23%

3. 24%

4. 18%

Q.16 An article is sold at a profit of 54%. If the cost price is increased by ₹75 and the selling
price is reduced by ₹66, then the profit would be 40.8%. What is the original cost price
(in ₹) of the article?
Ans 1. 1,400

2. 1,500

3. 1,000

4. 1,300

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.co
Q.17 If 69% of first number is equal to four-fifths of second number, what is the ratio of first
m
number to the second number?

. co
Ans 1. 80 : 69
s e m
m a
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2. 76 : 64

3. 84 : 71
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4. 79 : 68

Q.18 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining
constant speed and thus, takes a total time of 4 hours 15 minutes. He would have
gained 4 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to walk both
ways with the same walking speed?
Ans 1. 9 hours 30 minutes

2. 8 hours 45 minutes
m
3. 8 hours 15 minutes
m .co
4. 7 hours 15 minutes

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.19 The average of first 168 even numbers is
l
ag
Ans 1. 170

2. 168.5

3. 169

4. 169.5

Q.20 The length of each of the two equal sides of an isosceles triangle is 85 cm and the
length of its base is 72 cm. The area (in cm2) of the triangle is:
Ans 1. 2772

m
.co
2. 2756

3. 2784
e m
4. 2767
las
Q.21 ag
A pair of shoes is sold by a retailer at a 20% discount on the marked price, but the
retailer still makes a 28% profit on the cost price. What is the ratio of the marked price
to the cost price of the shoes?
Ans 1. 8 : 5

2. 7 : 4

3. 3 : 5

4. 9 : 7

m
.co
Q.22 Find the perimeter of a rectangle whose length and breadth are 5 cm and 8 cm.
m
.co
Ans 1. 20 cm

e m
e m 2. 26 cm

l as
l as 3. 39 cm
ag
ag 4. 13 cm

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.23 Pipe A can fill a tank in 20 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 22 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 14 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 Neha, Rajat and Avinash invested ₹1,210, ₹1,650 and ₹1,300, respectively to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,200, what is Avinash's share of the
profit?
Ans 1. ₹374

2. ₹377

3. ₹375

4. ₹376

Q.25 The number 769501 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 96

2. 97

3. 90

4. 105

Q.26 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 22?
Ans 1. 65,80,350

2. 64,67,614

3. 61,36,901

4. 71,32,950

Q.27 In covering a distance of 96 km, Anmol takes 6 hours more than Nikhil. If Anmol doubles
his speed, then he would take 2 hours less than Nikhil. Anmol's speed is:
Ans 1. 12 km/hr

2. 6 km/hr

3. 2 km/hr

4. 16 km/hr

Q.28 ₹73,500 were divided among A, B and C such that 6 times the share of A = 9 times the
share of B = 2 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹15,648

2. ₹15,570

3. ₹15,750

4. ₹15,848

Q.29 A solid cuboid with dimensions 24 cm × 16 cm × 10 cm is melted to form smaller solid
cubes with sides of length 4 cm. Determine the number of cubes formed.
Ans 1. 60

2. 64

3. 68

4. 62
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m
.co
Q.30 The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 2740. The sum of
m
the numbers is:

. co
Ans 1. 74
s e m
m a
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2. 80

3. 70
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4. 88

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

m
m .co
Statements:

.co m
All lakes are ponds.
All ponds are rivers.

m s e
s e l a
ag
Conclusions:

l a
(I): All lakes are rivers.

ag
(II): All rivers are ponds.
Ans 1. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

2. Both Conclusions I and II follow

3. Only Conclusion I follows

4. Only Conclusion II follows

Q.2 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. JM-DH
e m
2. HK-BF
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3. OR-IN
ag
4. MP-GK

Q.3 RBNH is related to KUGA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, PZLF is related to ISEY. To which of the given options is UEQK related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. NXJD

2. NXDJ

m
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3. NDXJ

m
.co m
4. NDFR

m s e
s e
Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
g l a
g l a 2 12 32 62 102 ? a
a Ans 1. 155

2. 156

3. 152

4. 150

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

33469?
m .
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Ans 1. 10

s e
em
2. 12

s l a
la ag
3. 13


4. 11
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.6 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
72518643, then what will be the difference between the first and the last digit in the
number thus formed?
Ans 1. 2

2. 6

3. 8

4. 4

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

CNQ EPS GRU ITW ?
Ans 1. KVY

2. JUX

3. JVY

4. KUX

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

15, 30, 60, 120, ?, 480
Ans 1. 220

2. 240

3. 260

4. 280

Q.9 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PT-WR

2. RV-YT

3. KO-RM

4. BF-IC

Q.10 Hitesh starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards East. He then takes a left turn,
drives 4 km, turns left and drives 11 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 6 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to South

2. 2 km to North

3. 3 km to North

4. 2 km to South

Q.11 YUWT is related to UQSP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, OKMJ is related to KGIF. To which of the following is LHJG related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. HDEC

2. HCEC

3. HEEF

4. HDFC

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m
.co
Q.12 Seven boxes F, G, H, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
m
same order.Only three boxes are kept above G. Only one box is kept between F and G.

. co Only three boxes are kept between F and N. N is kept at some place above G. O is kept
immediately below N. M is kept at one of the places above P. H is not kept immediately
s e m
m a
se l
above or below F.

Ans
Which box is kept at the lowermost position?
1. F ag
2. P

3. M

4. H

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘HUGE’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘GIRL’ is coded as ‘1365’.
What is the code for ‘G’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5
m
2. 1
m .co
3. 6
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. 7

l a
Q.14
ag
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

FDS 43 HGO 32 JJK 21 ? NPC -1
Ans 1. LKM 12

2. LMG 11

3. LMG 10

4. LMM 14

m
.co
Q.15 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of

m
the following sets.

e
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
s
la
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding

g
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and

(28, 336, 4)
(19, 285, 5)
a
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans 1. (17, 265, 5)

2. (21, 341, 7)

3. (23, 414, 6)

4. (24, 298, 4)

Q.16 In a row of 111 persons facing north, Mukesh is 19th from the left end. What is his
m
m
position from the right end?
.co
Ans

m.co 1. 91

s e m
s e 2. 93

g l a
g l a 3. 94
a
a 4. 92

Q.17 A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between A and R, when counted from the right of A. Only two
people sit between R and D. Only three people sit between A and B. C sits to the
immediate left of Q. Who sits third to the left of S?
Ans 1. D

2. Q

m .
3. C

4. A
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.18 Seven boxes F, G, H, I, K, L and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
Only two boxes are kept between O and K. Only G is kept above L. No box is kept below
K. F is kept at some place below H but at some place above I.
Which box is kept third above I?
Ans 1. H

2. F

3. K

4. O

Q.19 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number 95423671. Find the number of digits
that are repeated more than once in the new number formed.
Ans 1. None

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.20 If ‘I’ stands for ‘+’, ‘J’ stands for ‘×’, ‘K’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘L’ stands for ‘−’, then what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

29 I (23 J 5) L 23 J 10 I (420 K 4) I 89 = ?
Ans 1. 92

2. 148

3. 108

4. 122

Q.21 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 817 708 290 322 720 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position(s) of how many
numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. None

4. One

Q.22 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. IMQ

2. NRV

3. KOS

4. MOU

Q.23 Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Q is an
immediate neighbour of S and T. U sits to the immediate right of R. P sits third to the left
of T. Neither S nor T sit on any of the extreme ends. Who sits at the extreme left end?

Ans 1. Q

2. R

3. U

4. P

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.co
Q.24 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
m
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

. co SOAL - ASOL - LAOS
s e m
m a
se l
MUGS - GMUS - SGUM
Ans 1. ZOAL - AZOL - OALZ
ag
2. BOND - BNOD - DNOB

3. RAIN - IRAN - NIAR

4. WIPE - IWPE - EIPW

Q.25 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 427 615 253 961 743 (Right)

m
.co
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

m
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

.co
If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how many
m s em
e
numbers will remain unchanged?

s l a
a ag
Ans 1. 2
l
2. 0

3. 1
ag
4. 3

Q.26 A is the mother of G. G is the mother of D. D is the son of H. R is the father of H. How is
A related to R?
Ans 1. Wife's sister

2. Son's wife's sister

m
.co
3. Son's wife's mother

4. Wife's mother
e m
las
g
Q.27 Satwik starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards east. He then takes a left turn,

a
drives 4 km, turns right and drives 6 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 4 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 13 km towards west

2. 13 km towards east

3. 10 km towards west

4. 10 km towards north

m
.co
Q.28 Each of the digits in the number 4385612 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
m
.co
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
e m
e
Ans
m 1. Two
l as
l as 2. None
ag
ag 3. One

4. Three

Q.29 In a certain code language, ‘YOUR’ is coded as ‘2467’ and ‘OPEN’ is coded as ‘1536’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in that language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 6
m .
.co m
4. 4

s e
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.30 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All games are levers.
All levers are drums.

Conclusions:
(I) Some drums are levers.
(II) All games are drums.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 14/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
m
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Make in India initiative aims to boost domestic manufacturing. In which year was
the 'Make in India' campaign launched?
Ans 1. 2012

2. 2016

3. 2018

4. 2014

m
Q.2 Which type of ROM can be programmed only once after manufacturing?

m .co
Ans 1. EEPROM
s e
2. PROM

g la
3. Mask ROM
a
4. EPROM

Q.3 From which site did ISRO conduct its 100th space launch?
Ans 1. Chitradurga

2. Sriharikota

3. Chandipur

m
.co
4. Hassan

m
Q.4
.co
On 30 May 2025, which state declared 100% literacy under the ULLAS Nav Bharat

m s e m
a
Literacy Programme, surpassing its earlier PLFS-recorded rate?

s e
Ans 1. Kerala
g l
g l a 2. Goa a
a 3. Himachal

4. Sikkim

Q.5 Which chemical reaction produces ortho-hydroxybenzoic acid, the primary reaction
product used as a raw material for medications?
Ans 1. Kolbe’s reaction

2. Stephen reaction

m .
.co
3. Reimer-Tiemann reaction

e m
4. Friedel-Crafts reaction

em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 33 of 48

Q.6 Who first proposed a law in 1931 to clarify the idea of thermal equilibrium and its
significance in determining temperature?
Ans 1. Hugh L. Callendar

2. James P Espy

3. Rudolf Clausius

4. Ralph H Fowler

Q.7 An infrasound microphone enables the remote detection of aircraft wake vortices, clear
air turbulence, tornadoes, and seismic events at frequencies below:
Ans 1. 30 Hz

2. 10 Hz

3. 5 Hz

4. 20 Hz

Q.8 Which of the following is considered a major social development outcome of India’s
economic reforms since 1991?
Ans 1. Increase in poverty rate

2. Widening of fiscal deficit

3. Decrease in literacy rate

4. Improvement in life expectancy

Q.9 Who was the last Viceroy of India who oversaw the partition of India before leaving?
Ans 1. Pethick Lawrence

2. Lord Cripps

3. Lord Mountbatten

4. Lord Wavell

Q.10 Which of the following Acts provides legal status to Lok Adalats in India?
Ans 1. Indian Penal Code, 1860

2. Civil Procedure Code, 1908

3. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

4. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

Q.11 On which of the following dates did Prime Minister Narendra Modi address the 78th
Session of the World Health Assembly held in Geneva?
Ans 1. 12 May 2025

2. 20 April 2025

3. 12 April 2025

4. 20 May 2025

Q.12 At the 2025 ceremony held at the European Parliament, which movie was honoured with
the LUX Audience Award?
Ans 1. Emilia Pérez

2. Anora

3. The Brutalist

4. Flow

Q.13 Which of the following Biosphere Reserves is located in Tamil Nadu?
Ans 1. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

2. Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve

3. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

4. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
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.co
Q.14 Celebrated Urdu poet and bollywood writer-director Gulzar was honoured with which of
m
the following awards in 2025?

. co
Ans 1. Jnanpith Award
s e m
m a
se l
2. Padma Vibhushan

3. Padma Shri
ag
4. Padma Bhushan

Q.15 The Supreme Court’s doctrine of 'Basic Structure' (the Parliament CANNOT alter the
basic features of the Constitution) was first established in which landmark case?
Ans 1. Shankari Prasad vs Union of India (1951)

2. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973)

3. IC Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967)
m
m
4. Minerva Mills vs Union of India (1980)
.co
Q.16
m .co
The 'Atmanirbhar Oil Seeds Abhiyan' launched in Budget 2025 focuses on:
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. exporting surplus oil seeds

l a
ag
2. achieving self-sufficiency in oilseed production

3. subsidising edible oil prices

4. importing high-quality seeds for oil production

Q.17 The Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus is a prime example of which of the following types of
architectural style?
Ans 1. Pure Mughal

2. Indo-Saracenic

m
.co
3. Dravidian

4. Gothic alone

e m
Q.18
las
At the time of colonial period, the Asaf Jahi dynasty was established in _______.
Ans 1. Punjab
ag
2. Hyderabad

3. Bengal

4. Mysore

Q.19 Which initiative, launched by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) under
the Ministry of Home Affairs, aims to facilitate rapid action against cybercriminals?
Ans 1. Digital India Cyber Shield

m
.co
2. Cyber Suraksha Abhiyan
m
.co m
3. e-Zero FIR

m s e
s e
4. National Cyber Safety Net

g l a
g l a Q.20 Which of the following abbreviations is correctly matched with its meaning? a
a Ans 1. ASCII – Automated System for Computer Input

2. LAN – Large Area Network

3. CD – Compact Disc

4. LAN – Local Area Node

Q.21 Who was declared the Emperor of India by the revolting sepoys during the 1857
uprising?

m .
Ans 1. Akbar II

2. Shah Alam II
.co s e m
3. Bahadur Shah II
s em l a
4. Aurangzeb
g la ag
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Q.22 The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish:
Ans 1. a welfare state

2. a capitalist state

3. a police state

4. a democratic dictatorship

Q.23 Which Ministry is primarily responsible for implementing most rural development
schemes in India?
Ans 1. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

2. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

3. Ministry of Panchayati Raj

4. Ministry of Rural Development

Q.24 What was the theme of National Technology Day celebrated in India in May 2025?
Ans 1. Towards a Self-Reliant India through Science and Technology

2. Powering India through Innovation and Research

3. Digital India: Empowering Through Smart Technologies

4. YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration

Q.25 Post-independence, India adopted a planned approach to build a mixed economy.
Which sector was given top priority under the First Five-Year Plan?
Ans 1. Agriculture

2. Tertiary

3. Defence

4. Industry

Q.26 India developed its first indigenous Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) machine, set to
be installed at __________.
Ans 1. All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Nagpur

2. All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Bhopal

3. All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Raipur

4. All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Delhi

Q.27 Which of the following officials toured Mauryan provinces every five years to inspect
administration and submit reports on provincial governance?
Ans 1. Rajuka

2. Pradeshika

3. Nagarika

4. Amatya

Q.28 Which of the following is an example of a tertiary activity?
Ans 1. Manufacturing

2. Mining

3. Teaching

4. Farming

Q.29 The All India Services in India are created under which Article of the Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 320

2. Article 312

3. Article 206

4. Article 107

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m
.co
Q.30 Which of the following is a multipurpose river valley project?
m
co
Ans 1. Damodar Valley Project

. e m
m 2. Sharda Canal
as
se 3. Agra Canal
ag l
4. Indira Gandhi Canal

Q.31 Which of the following characteristics is true about the Northern Plains?
Ans 1. Presence of volcanic plateaus

2. Densely populated due to fertile soil

3. High elevation with steep slopes

4. Low fertility due to rocky terrain
m
m .co
.co
Q.32 Which of the following was one of the last princely states to join the Indian Union?

em
s
Ans 1. Mysore

e m l a
2. Jodhpur

l as ag
ag
3. Hyderabad

4. Travancore

Q.33 Which water bodies flank the Peninsular Plateau on the east and west?
Ans 1. Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea

2. Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean

3. Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea

4. Arabian Sea and Andaman Sea

m
Q.34 What is the term of office for the President of India?

m .co
Ans 1. 5 years
s e
2. Until removed by Parliament
g la
3. 6 years
a
4. 4 years

Q.35 In the realm of cinema, documentaries are characterised by:
Ans 1. focusing on fictional suspense

2. fabricated storylines

3. presenting real-world content for learning or leisure

m
.co
4. aiming to communicate about mythological characters

m
Q.36

m.co
Who among the following represented India in the 11th BRICS Environment Ministers
s e m
s e
Summit, 2025?

g l a
a
Ans 1. Bhupendra Yadav

g l a
a
2. S Jai Shankar

3. Amandeep Garg

4. Amit Shah

Q.37 Which major initiative was approved by the Indian government in May 2025 to
strengthen the country’s defence capabilities?
Ans 1. Establishment of new army divisions along the northern border

2. Acquisition of new aircraft carriers

m .
.co
3. Development of a fifth-generation twin-engine stealth fighter jet

e m
em
4. Deployment of nuclear submarines in the Indian Ocean

l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.38 The Defence Ministry’s planned order for 500 Invar anti-tank guided missiles—valued at
₹2,000–3,000 crore—will be placed with which defence Public Sector Unit (PSU)?
Ans 1. Bharat Dynamics Limited

2. Armoured Vehicles Nigam Ltd.

3. Bharat Electronics Limited

4. Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd.

Q.39 Which weathering process involves the peeling of rock layers due to temperature
variations?
Ans 1. Frost action

2. Exfoliation

3. Solution

4. Oxidation

Q.40 Which of the following states introduced India’s first AI Anchor Ankita in a regional
language in May 2025?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Assam

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Kerala

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 20 days and B can do the same
job in 12 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 2 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2

Ans 1. 10.83

2. 16.61

3. 6.97

4. 15.28

Q.3 A customer buys two products, each product being worth ₹350, with a “buy one get one
30% off” deal. What is the total amount paid by the customer?
Ans 1. ₹595

2. ₹490

3. ₹560

4. ₹455

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m
.co
Q.4 The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 6 and their HCF is 7. Find their LCM.
m
co
Ans 1. 35

. e m
m 2. 210
as
se 3. 42
ag l
4. 84

Q.5 X, Y and Z invested a sum in the ratio of 58 : 72 : 20, respectively. If they earned a total
profit of ₹3,750 at the end of the year, what is the difference between the shares of Y and
Z?
Ans 1. ₹1,300

2. ₹1,404

3. ₹1,231
m
4. ₹1,254
m .co
Q.6
m .co
Which of the following numbers divide 862026417?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. 6

l a
ag
2. 5

3. 7

4. 11

Q.7

Ans
m
.co
1.

2.
e m
las
3.
ag
4.

Q.8 If cotA + cosA = p, cotA - cosA = q, then what is the value of p2- q2?
Ans 1.

2.

m
.co
3.
m
m.co 4.

s e m
s e
Q.9 A bag is marked at ₹2,000. A shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 10% and
g l a
g l a 5%. What is the final price the customer pays?
a
a Ans 1. ₹1,710

2. ₹1,700

3. ₹1,800

4. ₹1,750

Q.10 Simplify x(5x − 9) + 7(x2 − 2) + 17.
Ans 1. 12x2 − 9x − 3

m .
.co
2. −12x2 − 9x + 3

e m
3. 12x2 − 9x + 3

em l as
4. −12x2 − 9x − 3

las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 39 of 48

Q.11 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 27% and its height is
increased by 165%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its
volume?
Ans 1. 20%

2. 48%

3. 41%

4. 36%

Q.12

Ans 1. 1200 cm3

2. 1650 cm3

3. 1500 cm3

4. 1320 cm3

Q.13 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80 and the third
number is 107. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.
Ans 1. 188

2. 187

3. 195

4. 194

Q.14 A trader claims to sell wheat at a profit of 29%, but also dishonestly uses a weight
which is 30% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit
earned by the trader. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 A bus travelling at 86 km/hr completes a journey in 7 hours. What should be its speed to
cover the same distance in 14 hours?
Ans 1. 43 km/hr

2. 53 km/hr

3. 35 km/hr

4. 42 km/hr

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 3% per month in 6 months.
Ans 1. 38

2. 18

3. 216

4. 36

Q.17 A number, when increased by 60%, gives 3590. The number is:
Ans 1. 1121.875

2. 2243.75

3. 4487.5

4. 6731.25

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m
.co
Q.18 The difference between the lengths of two parallel sides of a trapezium is 6 cm. The
m
perpendicular distance between them is 24 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 648 cm2,

. co then what is the length of the parallel sides?

s e m
m a
se
Ans 1. 28 cm, 22 cm

g l
2. 30 cm, 24 cm

3. 36 cm, 30 cm
a
4. 23 cm, 29 cm

Q.19 The average of first 172 even numbers is
Ans 1. 174

2. 173.5

3. 172.5
m
4. 173
m .co
m .co s em
Q.20 Ashish bought some rulers at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹24 each. His

s e
profit percentage is ______%.
l a
Ans 1. 58
l a ag
2. 60 ag
3. 62

4. 64

Q.21 Isha can do a certain piece of work in 24 days. Isha and Smriti can together do the same
work in 20 days, and Isha, Smriti and Ashlesha can do the same work together in 12
days. In how many days can Isha and Ashlesha do the same work together?
Ans
1.
m
m .co
s e
la
2.

ag
3.

4.

Q.22 In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and
21% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 51% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 1817 votes. How many voters were
m
.co
registered?
m
.co m
Ans 1. 143750

m s e
a
2. 143753

s e g l
g l a 3. 143751
a
a 4. 143752

Q.23 ₹42,100 were divided among A, B and C such that 8 times the share of A = 3 times the
share of B = 6 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹8,278

2. ₹8,360

3. ₹8,420

4. ₹8,538

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 41 of 48

Q.24 If the third proportional of 4 and 16 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 62

2. 67

3. 66

4. 64

Q.25 Daksh travels 774 km at 86 km/hr, the next 567 km at 63 km/hr and the next 135 km at 27
km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr, rounded off to two decimal places) for the
whole journey?
Ans 1. 70.24

2. 70.02

3. 64.17

4. 63.06

Q.26 Evaluate 74 2.
Ans 1. 5456

2. 5526

3. 5486

4. 5476

Q.27 If the interest earned during the 2nd year on a certain sum is ₹5,520, and the rate of
interest is 20% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
Ans 1. ₹22,875

2. ₹23,000

3. ₹23,405

4. ₹22,695

Q.28 The product of two positive numbers is 9245. If the first number is five times of the
second number, then the sum of the two numbers is:
Ans 1. 269

2. 266

3. 258

4. 257

Q.29 Six times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 46 years. After 10 years,
six times Q’s age will be 18 years less than five times P’s age at that time. What is the
present age of Q (in years)?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 6

4. 5

Q.30 The number 934725 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 2

4. 10

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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m
.co
Q.1 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ZR - FN
ag
2. HO - MK

3. BV - GR

4. YD - DZ

Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

657 660 665 672 681 ?
Ans 1. 690
m
2. 691
m .co
3. 693
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. 692

l a
Q.3
ag
R is the sister of C. C is the sister of B. B is the father of A. A is the daughter of G. How
is R related to G?
Ans 1. Husband's mother

2. Sister

3. Husband's sister

4. Mother

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
.co
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the

m
statements.

s e
la
Statements:
All bats are stick.
All bamboo is stick.
ag
Conclusions:
(I): Some bats are bamboo.
(II): Some sticks are bamboo.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
m .co
Q.5
.co
Seven boxes F, G, H, I, K, L, and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the

m
same order. O is kept immediately above F. G is kept immediately above I. Only K is kept
s e m
s e above L. Only two boxes are kept above O. G is not kept at the third position from the
g l a
g l a bottom.
How many boxes are kept between H and K? a
a Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. One

4. Three

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) / / 9 3 * > * ? 5 6 2 $ # 3 ^ $ 4 + 6 < + (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by another
number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Four

4. Two

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

31 58 94 139 193 ?
Ans 1. 272

2. 263

3. 281

4. 256

Q.8 IMJI is related to GKHG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, FJGF is related to DHED. To which of the given options is XBYX related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. VZVV

2. VAVX

3. VYVV

4. VZWV

Q.9 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
5237894, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 8

4. 9

Q.10 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

LTB 83, OWE 74, RZH 65, UCK 56, XFN 47, ?
Ans 1. AMQ 36

2. BIQ 42

3. AIO 40

4. AIQ 38

Q.11 Vimal ranked 29th from the top and 24th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 54

2. 52

3. 53

4. 51

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m
.co
Q.12 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
m
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

. co GOF : IQE
s e m
m a
se l
SNG : UPF
Ans 1. NNL : PQK
ag
2. QUK : SXJ

3. QRQ : STR

4. ELM : GNL

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 13 27 48 76 ?

m
.co
Ans 1. 100
m
.co m
2. 109

m s e
3. 105

s e l a
4. 111
l a ag
Q.14 ag
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(28, 140, 5)
(41, 533, 13)
Ans 1. (44, 355, 8)
m
.co
2. (1, 25, 22)

3. (35, 735, 21)
e m
4. (25, 103, 4)
las
Q.15 ag
Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:

All prints are banners.
All prints are flexes.

Conclusions:
m
m .co
.co
(I) Some banners are flexes.
(II) All flexes are prints.
e m
e
Ans
m 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.
l as
l as 2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
ag
ag 3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. SOK

m .
.co
2. QKG

e m
3. EAW

em l as
4. RNJ

las ag
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Q.17 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. QWS

2. NTP

3. TZU

4. KQM

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

42 + 75 × 3 − 11 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 43

2. 23

3. 32

4. 50

Q.19 Six friends Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. S sits
third to the right of V. V sits second to the left of Q. U sits to the immediate left of R.
Who sits to the immediate right of S?
Ans 1. R

2. T

3. U

4. Q

Q.20 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

SINK - ISNK - KISN
PLAY - LPAY - YLPA
Ans 1. HOLD - OHLD - DOHL

2. CLAY - LCAY - LAYC

3. MARK - MRAK - KRAM

4. DINE - IDNE - EIND

Q.21 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

25 A 5 D 10 B 3 C 42 = ?
Ans 1. 24

2. 14

3. 21

4. 17

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘GLUE’ is coded as ‘2475’ and ‘UNIT’ is coded as ‘1536’.
What is the code for ‘U’ in that language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 5

4. 7

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m
.co
Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co XSW TOS PKO LGK ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. HCG

2. HCF ag l
3. HBG

4. HBF

Q.24 Town P is to the north of town Q. Town Q is to the east of town R. Town T is to the north
of town P. Town S is to the east of town P. What is the position of town S with respect to
town Q?
Ans 1. Northeast

m
.co
2. North
m
.co m
3. Southeast

m s e
4. Northwest

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.25 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 731 890 923 286 378 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

In how many numbers is the sum of the 1st and 3rd digits greater than the 2nd digit?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. One
m
4. Four

m .co
s e
la
Q.26 Younis starts from Point A and drives 17 km towards East. He then takes a left turn,

ag
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 29 km towards East

2. 29 km towards West

3. 26 km towards North

4. 26 km towards West

m
.co
Q.27 A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

m
Only two people sit between Q and B when counted from the right of Q. Only three

.co m
people sit between A and C when counted from the right of C. B sits to the immediate

m
right of C. R sits to the immediate right of S.
s e
s e
Who sits fourth to the right of D?

g l a
a
Ans 1. S

g l a
a
2. C

3. A

4. R

Q.28 Seven boxes U, V, W, X, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
No box is kept above W. Only three boxes are kept between W and F. Only one box is
kept between E and V. V is kept immediately above F. Only four boxes are kept between
E and X. G is kept at some place above U. Which box is kept second below G?
Ans 1. F
m .
2. W
.co s e m
3. V
s em l a
4. U
g la ag
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Q.29 In a certain code language, ‘are you hungry’ is written as ‘mk tk jb’ and ‘you came early’
is coded as ‘cd ab mk’. How is ‘you’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. jb

2. tk

3. mk

4. jt

Q.30 If 1 is added for each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number
86435621, how many digits are repeated more than once in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. Three

2. None

3. One

4. Two

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