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19711 120 MINUTES
1. The best examples of ductile or plastic deformation of rock layers.
A) Faults B) Joints C) Folds D) Shears
2. The typical gas used in Inductively Coupled Plasma (ICP) spectrometry.
A) Radon B) Neon C) Helium D) Argon
3. One of the most commonly used antenna, especially for microwave radiometers.
A) Horn antenna B) Slotted antenna
C) Paraboloid antenna D) Phased arrays
4. The gravity anomaly corrected for the height at which it is measured and the attraction
of the terrain.
A) Helmert Condensation gravity anomaly
B) Isostatic gravity anomaly
C) Free-air gravity anomaly
D) Bouguer anomaly
5. Which of the following statements regarding systems of stream ordering in
morphometric analysis of drainage basins is incorrect?
A) Strahler Stream order is a ‘top up’ system.
B) Gravelius Stream order is a ‘bottom up’ system.
C) Horton Stream order is a ‘top down’ system.
D) Shreve Stream order is a ‘top down’ system.
6. The person who coined the term ‘anatexis’ while discussing the possible origin of
migmatites.
A) H. G. F. Winkler B) P. J. Holmquist
C) J. J. Sederholm D) P. E. Eskola
7. Match the world wide glaciations in List-I with their time periods in List-II and choose
the correct answer.
List-I List-II
i) Marinoan a) 2400 Ma – 2500 Ma
ii) Huronian b) 360 Ma – 260 Ma
iii) Andean–Saharan c) 715 Ma – 680 Ma
iv) Sturtian d) 450 Ma – 420 Ma
e) 650 Ma – 635 Ma
A) i-c, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b B) i-b, ii-c, iii-e, iv-a
C) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-e D) i-e, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
8. The scientific study of Trace fossils is called -----.
A) Ichthyology B) Ichnology
C) Iconology D) Ornithology
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9. Asteroid impacts causes is associated with which of the following mass extinctions on
Earth?
A) Triassic–Jurassic extinction event
B) Late Devonian extinction event
C) Ordovician–Silurian extinction event
D) Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event
10. Which of the following statement regarding Deccan Volcanic Province (DVP) in India
is incorrect?
A) It is a continental flood basalt province.
B) The Deccan Volcanics have erupted close to the Cretaceous-Tertiary
Boundary at about 65 Ma.
C) It is the largest and most conspicuous among the Cenozoic volcanics of India.
D) Deccan basalts are mainly tholeiites.
11. Which of the following bounds the Vindhyan basin to the Aravalli Craton?
A) Great Boundary Fault B) Delwara Lineament
C) Rikhabdev Lineament D) Jahazpur Thrust
12. The phase of disaster management which involves steps to reduce vulnerability to
disaster impacts such as injuries and loss of life and property:
A) Response B) Preparedness
C) Recovery D) Mitigation
13. The preferred method for disposing of toxic chemicals and hazardous wastes is -----.
A) Recycling B) Incineration
C) Sanitary Landfill D) Composting
14. In maps doubly plunging folds are represented by:
A) Concentric circles B) V-shaped patterns
C) Parabolas D) Concentric ellipses
15. What is the most frequent use for the Brunton Compass in the field?
A) Locate oneself in the field.
B) Demark sampling locations.
C) Calculation of the strike and dip of geological features.
D) Identify small mineral crystals and structures in rocks.
16. The geophysical exploration method widely used for detailed exploration of oil and
gas.
A) Seismic Refraction Method B) Gravity Method
C) Magnetic Method D) Seismic Reflection Method
17. DBMS stands for
A) Database Manufacturing System
B) Database Monitoring System
C) Database Mapmaking System
D) Database Management System
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18. The radial distance between where an object appears in an aerial photograph to where
it actually should be according to a planimetric coordinate system:
A) Stereoscopic Parallax B) Vertical Exaggeration
C) Overlap D) Relief Displacement
19. The most preferred method of deep sea bed mining for polymetallic modules is -----.
A) Drift mining B) Continuous-line bucket system
C) Hydraulic Suction mining D) Shaft mining
20. The process for concentration of primarily sulphide ores:
A) Froth Flotation process B) Hydraulic Washing
C) Leaching D) Magnetic Separation
21. The universal plant indicator for Copper deposits:
A) Ocimum homblei B) Viola calaminaria
C) Eriogonium oralifolium D) Equisetum arvense
22. The most accepted method of sampling best suited for bedded, banded and vein type of
ore deposits.
A) Chip sampling B) Muck sampling
C) Grab sampling D) Channel Sampling
23. Uranium mineralization of Jaduguda in Singhbhum district, Bihar is a-----.
A) Metamorphic deposit B) Hydrothermal deposit
C) Sedimentary deposit D) Magmatic deposit
24. The Indian state which has the largest reserves of iron ores:
A) Chattisgarh B) Karnataka C) Odisha D) Jharkhand
25. Which of the following is matched correctly?
A) Silicon – Atmophile B) Palladium – Siderophile
C) Cadmium – Lithophile D) Carbon – Chalcophile
26. The most correct sequence of the mass abundance of elements in the Earth’s Crust is:
A) O>Si>Fe>Ca>Al B) Ca>Fe>Al>Si>O
C) Si>O>Al>Ca>Fe D) O>Si>Al>Fe>Ca
27. The simplified form of Ghyben-Herzberg relation:
A) z = 40/h B) z = h/40 C) z = 40h D) h= 40z
28. The two districts in Kerala reported to have fluoride contamination in groundwater
resources.
A) Wayanad and Ernakulam B) Malappuram and Kollam
C) Trichur and Ernakulam D) Alappuzha and Palakkad
29. Which of the following engineering property tests are not required for rocks used as
foundation sites for construction?
A) Shear Strength B) Uniaxial Compressive strength
C) Tensile strength D) Crushing strength
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30. The basic measure of the critical water contents of a fine grained soil, viz., its
shrinkage limit, plastic limit and liquid limit.
A) Albrecht limits B) Atterberg limits
C) Liebig limits D) Dokuchaev limits
31. The single continent Pangaea was formed when Laurussia and Gondwanaland collided
during-----.
A) Alpine Orogeny B) Andean Orogeny
C) Hercynian Orogeny D) Caledonian Orogeny
32. The Miller indices of a crystal plane having the parameters 2a : infinity b : 1c:
A) 210 B) 201 C) 102 D) 120
33. The largest seismically active continental rift system on the Earth today:
A) Baikal Rift B) Red Sea Rift
C) West Antarctic Rift D) East African Rift
34. The Earth’s fastest present day seafloor spreading centre is in-----.
A) the East Pacific Rise B) the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
C) the Central Indian Ridge D) the South Atlantic Ridge
35. Pi diagrams and Beta diagrams are techniques of stereographic analysis of------.
A) Folds B) Faults C) Joints D) Unconformities
36. Which of the following environment is the most favourable for preservation of fossils?
A) Lacustrine B) Fluvial C) Marine D) Glacial
37. The Upper Gondwana lithostratigraphic unit underlying the Cretaceous succession in
the Trichinopoly Area of Tamil Nadu.
A) Kallamedu Formation B) Kallakudi Limestone
C) Terani Plant Beds D) Karai Shale Beds
38. The concept of a biochemical origin of life was first proposed by:
A) Stanley Miller B) A. I. Oparin
C) Harold C. Urey D) Francisco Redi
39. Which of the following is a very good tool both for dating tree-ring sequences and
palaeoclimatological reconstructions?
A) Radiodensitometry B) Hydrodensitometry
C) Spot densitometry D) Line densitometry
40. The 14 Bravais lattices combined with 32 points groups form space groups:
A) 446 B) 230 C) 430 D) 246
41. The unconformity occurring between Cambrian strata and Precambrian basement in
the Grand Canyon is a -----.
A) Nonconformity B) Disconformity
C) Paraconformity D) Buttress or onlap unconformity
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42. Which of the following describes the collective effects of changes in the Earth’s
movements around the sun on its climate over thousands of years?
A) Calvin-Benson Cycle B) Wilson Cycle
C) Milankovitch Cycle D) Sothic Cycle
43. The product of thermal metamorphism of dolomitic limestone with small siliceous
impurities:
A) Serpentine Marble B) Brucite Marble
C) Tremolite Marble D) Forsterite Marble
44. Match the following and choose the correct answer.
List I List II
i) Granulite facies a) Low Pressure – Low Temperature
ii) Sanidinite facies b) High Pressure – Low Temperature
iii) Prehnite-pumpellyite facies c) Low Pressure – Medium Temperature
iv) Hornblende-hornfels facies d) Low Pressure – High Temperature
e) Medium Pressure – High Temperature
A) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-e B) i-c, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b
C) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-e
45. The point on a phase diagram where a reaction takes place between a previously
precipitated phase and the liquid to produce a new solid phase.
A) Peritectic point B) Solidus point
C) Eutectic point D) Congruent melting point
46. In the chemical classification of igneous rocks based on the concept of Al2O3
(Alumina) saturation, the peralkaline group of rocks has the chemical characteristics:
A) (CaO + Na2O + K2O) > Al2O3 > (Na2O + K2O)
B) Al2O3 < (Na2O + K2O + CaO)
C) Al2O3 > (Na2O + K2O + CaO)
D) (Na2O + K2O) > Al2O3
47. The only unambiguous dwarf planet:
A) Ceres B) Haumea C) Pluto D) Eris
48. Match the following
List I List II
i) Tetragonal System a) Gypsum Type
ii) Triclinic System b) Beryl Type
iii) Orthorhombic System c) Baryte Type
iv) Monoclinic System d) Zircon Type
e) Axinite Type
A) i-d, ii-c, iii-e, iv-b B) i-a, ii-b, iii-e, iv-c
C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e D) i-d, ii-e, iii-c, iv-a
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49. Which of the following depicts a scientific way of describing the topography of ocean
floor?
A) Hypsometric Curve B) Hypereliptic Curve
C) Hygrometric Curve D) Hypsographic Curve
50. The fine grained sediments that accumulate in the ocean floor and consisting primarily
of microscopic, calcareous or siliceous shells of phytoplankton or zoo-plankton, clay
sized siliciclastic sediment or a mixture of these are called
A) Hydrogenous sediments B) Terrigenous sediments
C) Pelagic sediments D) Cosmogenous sediments
51. Chondrites and achondrites belong to the class of -----.
A) Tektites B) Stony-Iron Meteorites
C) Iron Meteorites D) Stony Meteorites
52. The only spherical natural satellite orbiting a terrestrial planet:
A) Phobos B) Moon C) Titan D) Deimos
53. The vast, extended, extremely distant spherical shell composed of icy objects / bodies
surrounding the Solar System and thought to be the origin of most of the long-period
comets:
A) Asteriod Belt B) Magellanic Cloud
C) Kuiper Belt D) Oort Cloud
54. Incised meanders are the most characteristic and favourable evidences of -----.
A) Interruption in fluvial cycle
B) Old age of fluvial cycle
C) Rejuvenation in fluvial cycle
D) Mature stage of fluvial cycle
55. The Standstill theory, the Glacial control theory and the Subsistence theory have been
propounded to explain:
A) the origin of coral reefs B) the origin of mountains
C) the origin of fjords D) the origin of wadies
56. The Modified Mercalli Intensity scale to measure the intensity of earthquakes has ------
degrees.
A) 6 B) 12 C) 10 D) 15
57. Which of the following is a classic example of divergent plate boundary?
A) San Andreas Fault of Western North America.
B) Andes Mountain Range of Western South America
C) Alpine Fault of New Zealand.
D) East Africa Rift Valley.
58. Mountain peaks that project out prominently above the general surface of a continental
glacier:
A) Inselbergs B) Corries C) Nunataks D) Aretes
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59. The zone of illuviation in a soil profile:
A) C-horizon B) A-horizon C) D-horizon D) B-horizon
60. The world’s first manned expedition to reach the deepest point in each of the Earth’s
five Oceans:
A) Challenger Expedition B) Five Deeps Expedition
C) Bathyscaphe Expedition D) Deep sea challenge Expedition
61. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is related to-----.
A) Ocean gyres B) Ocean tides
C) Oil spills D) Marine industrial pollution
62. The number of minerals included in the Moh’s scale of hardness that crystallize in the
Tetragonal System:
A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 0
63. Time rock unit equivalent to Epoch:
A) Series B) Formation C) Erathem D) Group
64. The shape of indicatrix of a uniaxial positive crystal or mineral:
A) Sphere B) Ellipsoid
C) Prolate Spheroid D) Oblate Spheroid
65. The rarest of the common members of the garnet group:
A) Grossular B) Uvarovite C) Almandine D) Pyrope
66. Which of the following sedimentary basin types is correctly matched with world
examples?
A) Passive margin basin – Georgia Strait
B) Strike Slip basin – East Coast of North America
C) Foreland basin – Indo-Gangetic Plains
D) Forearc basin – East Africa Rift
67. Secondary chemical sedimentary structures consisting of a series of relatively small,
alternating interlocked tooth like columns of stone formed by the pressure action of
solutions:
A) Scour marks B) Concretions C) Stylolites D) Septaria
68. Fine grained sedimentary rock composed predominantly of indurated clay particles and
lacking fissility:
A) Pisolites B) Shale C) Spherulite D) Argillites
69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good and useful index fossil?
A) Abundant specimens
B) Distinctive or easily responsible
C) Short geographic distribution
D) Wide stratigraphic range
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70. The Brachiopod ‘Syringothyris’ belongs to the geological periods:
A) Carboniferous B) Devonian
C) Silurian D) Ordovician
71. Choose the correct sequence of evolution of horses from ancient to the modern horses:
A) Merychippus Pliohippus Parahippus Hipparion
B) Parahippus Merychippus Hipparion Pliohippus
C) Pliohippus Hipparion Merychippus Parahippus
D) Hipparion Parahippus Pliohippus Merychippus
72. The single most important factor which decides whether a severe groundwater problem
is likely to occur in a tunnel or not:
A) Relative position of the water table.
B) Intensity of rainfall in the area.
C) Presence of horizontal joints.
D) Type of rock, i.e., igneous, sedimentary or metamorphic.
73. Which of the following is the best example of an Aquitard?
A) Shale B) Granite C) Laterite D) Sandy-Clay
74. The electrode arrangements in the electric resistivity surveys for groundwater
exploration are called ------.
A) Arrays B) Loops C) Overlays D) Tessellates
75. The response of an element to geochemical dispersion is governed by its ------.
A) Mobility B) Density
C) Melting Point D) Conductivity
76. The lower unaffected part of the ore body in the supergene sulphide enrichment is
called the ------.
A) Supergene zone B) Mesogene zone
C) Hypogene zone D) Epigene zone
77. The Titano-magnetite deposits of Adirondack Region, New York is an important
example of -----.
A) Residual Liquid Injection
B) Immiscible Liquid Segregation
C) Residual Liquid Segregation
D) Immiscible Liquid Injection
78. An ore classifying device which uses the principle that, under the influence of a force
field, large ore particles in a water-ore mixture or slurry tend to move faster than the
small ore particles:
A) Elutriator B) Knelson Concentrator
C) Hydrocyclone D) Reichert cone concentrator
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79. The digital image processing technique of transforming different sets of data into one
coordinate system:
A) Image restoration B) Image rectification
C) Image enhancement D) Image registration
80. Anorthosites have economic value for the presence of:
A) Rutile B) Scheelite C) Wolframite D) Ilmenite
81. Match the global navigation satellite systems in Column-I with the corresponding
global users in Column-II and choose the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
i) NAVIC a) European Union
ii) BeiDou b) U.S.
iii) GALILEO c) Russia
iv) GLONASS d) India
e) China
A) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-e B) i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-c
C) i-a, ii-c, iii-e, iv-b D) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
82. Orbital period of a GPS satellite is ----.
A) 23 hours B) 1 day
C) 11 hours 58 minutes D) 23 hours 58 minutes
83. Which of the following greenhouse gases have essentially no natural sources but are
side products of industrial processes or manufactured for human purposes?
A) Chloroflurocarbon B) Methane
C) Nitrous Oxide D) Carbon dioxide
84. The most important step in Environment Impact Assessment:
A) Screening B) Reporting
C) Monitoring D) Scoping
85. Basic geological equipment of any geologist used for collecting sample:
A) Clinometer B) GPS
C) Geological Hammer D) Sample bags
86. The first task in any geological reconnaissance study:
A) Geochemical Investigation B) Geological Mapping
C) Geophysical Investigation D) Geological Sampling
87. Which among the following does not fall under the category of ‘Biparental
Hypothesis’ of origin of the Earth and Solar System?
A) Planetesimal Hypothesis B) Protoplanet Hypothesis
C) Dynamic Encounter Theory D) Tidal Hypothesis
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88. A wave on the surface of a lake or landlocked bays, caused by atmospheric or seismic
disturbances:
A) Surge B) Swash C) Seiche D) Swell
89. The hydrochemical facies of a groundwater sample falling in the Field 5 of the Hill-
Piper Trilinear diagram:
A) Calcium-Chloride type
B) Sodium- Chloride type
C) Magnesium bicarbonate type
D) Mixed type
90. Which of the following key features of the National Mineral Policy, 2019 recently
approved by the Union Cabinet is wrongly quoted?
A) It makes efforts to harmonize taxes, levies and royalty with world
benchmarks to help the private sector.
B) It encourages the public sector to take up mineral exploration.
C) It proposes to grant status of industry to mining activity to boost financing
of mining and acquisition of foreign mineral assets for private sector.
D) It encourages dedicated mineral corridors to facilitate the transportation of
minerals.
91. The modern electronic scintillation counter was invented by-----.
A) John Mine
B) Sir Samuel Curran
C) Sir Robert Alexander Watson Watt
D) Sheldon Breiner
92. The Martian Soil is considered to be highly toxic because of the relatively high
concentration of----- compounds.
A) Prothoate B) Perchlorate
C) Chloroformate D) Sothiocyanate
93. Lateral faults, transcurrent faults, wrench faults or tear faults refer to:
A) Thrust faults B) Strike slip faults
C) Dip slip faults D) Oblique slip faults
94. Thickening and thinning of beds at the crests and troughs is characteristic of:
A) Parallel folds B) Concentric folds
C) Isoclinal folds D) Similar folds
95. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A) Planes characterize the rock fabric of S-tectonites
B) R-tectonite is B-tectonite in which the fabric elements have been rotated
C) B-tectonites are dominated by planar elements
D) S-tectonites indicate flattening strain
96. Uranium-Thorium-Lead dating method is often performed on the mineral:
A) Zircon B) Muscovite C) Hornblende D) Biotite
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97. The principle which states that changes in the temperature, pressure and volume or
concentration of a system will result in predictable and opposing changes in the system
in order to achieve new equilibrium state:
A) Bernoulli’s principle B) Stefan-Boltzmann Law
C) Le-Chatelier’s principle D) Gay-Lussac’s Law
98. Closely spaced higher value contours in a contour map indicate:
A) Steep slope B) Gentle slope
C) Convex slope D) Convexo-concave slope
99. Cataclastic metamorphic rocks that are produced along shear zones deep within the
crust.
A) Skarns B) Mylonites C) Eclogites D) Hornfels
100. Which of the following is a Raster GIS/Geospatial format?
A) Shapefile (SHP)
B) Geodatabase (GDB)
C) Digital Elevation Model (DEM)
D) Smart Data Compression (SDC)
101. According to D. W. Johnson’s classification of shorelines, the shorelines of Kerala and
Karnataka fall under the category of:
A) Shorelines of submergence B) Compound Shorelines
C) Shorelines of emergence D) Neutral Shorelines
102. Choose the correct arrangements of geomagnetic epochs or chrons from earliest to
latest:
A) Matuyama, Brunhes, Gilbert, Gauss
B) Gauss, Matuyama, Gilbert, Brunhes
C) Matuyama, Gauss, Gilbert, Brunhes
D) Gilbert, Gauss, Matuyama, Brunhes
103. In paired metamorphic belts of Circum-Pacific region the Low temperature
- High pressure conditions of blueschist and eclogite facies occur on the------.
A) Oceanic side B) Abyssal Depth side
C) Continental side D) Continental Shelf side
104. The geochemical type of Mid-Ocean Ridge Basalts derived from a deeper enriched
source within the earth:
A) N-MORBs B) T-MORBs C) E-MORBs D) I-MORBs
105. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
A) Nuclear energy B) Wind energy
C) Solar energy D) None of these
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106. Which of the following factors does not affect relief displacement on aerial
photographs?
A) Flying height
B) Focal length of camera lens
C) Radial existence of displaced image point from principle point
D) Height of object
107. The law relating to characteristics of block body radiation, which states that, the
emissivity of a body which is in thermal equilibrium with its surrounding is equal to its
absorptivity.
A) Wien’s Displacement Law B) Stefan–Boltzmann Law
C) Kirchoff’s Law D) Planck’s Radiation Law
108. Which of the following underground mining method do not fall under the category of
unsupported methods?
A) Room and Pillar Mining B) Shrinkage stoping
C) Sublevel stoping D) Cut and fill stoping
109. The largest component of the operating cost for mine ventilation:
A) Fossil fuel B) Equipments
C) Labour and salary D) Electricity
110. The tool for maintaining the diameter and shape of a borehole:
A) Sonic log B) Electric log C) Caliper log D) Induction log
111. The major reason for geochemical soil anomalies:
A) Heavy mineral accumulation
B) Selective concentration
C) Residual accumulation
D) Hydrothermal accumulation
112. Which of the following geological situations is ideal for construction of a dam with 10o to
30o inclination in the upstream direction?
A) Beds with gentle upstream dip.
B) Beds with gentle downstream dip.
C) Beds with steep downstream dip.
D) Beds which are faulted.
113. Which of the following is not a likely cause for landslides?
A) Earthquakes B) Deforestation
C) Greenhouse effect D) Weathered bed-rock
114. The Indo-African boundary between the Indian and African plates is a ------.
A) Transform boundary B) Consequent boundary
C) Conservative boundary D) Divergent boundary
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115. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A) Mid-Oceanic ridge belt is the longest of the active seismic belts.
B) Pacific Seismic belt is the biggest of all the seismic belts.
C) Alpine-Himalayan belt is the result of Palaeozoic closure of the Tethys
Ocean.
D) The Indian Ocean Tsunami of 2004 is associated with Pacific Seismic Belt.
116. The Archaean intrusions of post-charnockite age found in Kalpetta hills and Sultan’s
Battery in the Malabar region of Kerala is correlated with:
A) Untala Granite B) Peninsular Gneissic Complex
C) Berach Granite D) Closepet Granite
117. The humans, chimpanzees, gorillas and orangutans are included under the biological
family:
A) Cebidae B) Hylobatidae
C) Cercopithecidae D) Hominidae
118. The taxonomic name of woolly mammoth an extinct species of mammal that lived
during the Pleistocene with its extinction in the early Holocene epoch:
A) Mammathus meridionalis B) Mammathus primigenius
C) Mammathus subplanifrons D) Mammathus rumanus
119. The land bridge between Asia and North America believed to be the migration route of
a small human population from Eastern Siberia during the last glacial maximum before
expanding into the American settlements sometime after 16500 years B.P:
A) Doggerland B) Adams Bridge
C) Beringia D) Sinai Peninsula
120. Paludal sediments are characteristics of -----type of depositional environments.
A) Dolines B) Lagoons C) Marshes D) Tidal flats
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