RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 21 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 21 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 21/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 'Blossom Shower' triggers the blossoming of the flowers of which crops in Kerala and
nearby areas?
Ans 1. Tea

2. Coffee

3. Sunflower

4. Cotton

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Q.2 Which of the following helps in organizing files?

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Ans 1. Naming files meaningfully
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2. Not saving any files

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3. Placing all files on the desktop
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4. Saving all files in one folder

Q.3 In India, the area under 'Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands' is mostly owned by:
Ans 1. cooperatives

2. private companies

3. the Forest Department

4. Village Panchayats
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Q.4
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In April 2025, which defence subsidiary signed a landmark defence MoU with Slovakia

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aimed at boosting India's indigenous defence manufacturing capabilities?
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Ans 1. NewSpace India Ltd
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a 3. Airbornics Defence & Space Pvt Ltd

4. Paras Defence and Space Technologies Ltd

Q.5 What is the primary purpose of introducing e-passports in India in May 2025?
Ans 1. To enhance security and prevent identity fraud

2. To reduce the cost of passport production

3. To increase the number of pages in the passport

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4. To change the colour of the passport cover

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Q.6 Who has the authority to transfer judges of the High Courts in India?
Ans 1. President of India

2. Chief Minister of the State

3. Parliament of India

4. Chief Justice of India acting on behalf of the Supreme Court

Q.7 Which of the following best explains why adult literacy varies significantly across
Indian states?
Ans 1. Socio-economic and educational disparities

2. Unequal industrial development

3. Variations in population density

4. Different climate zones

Q.8 Which Five Year Plan marked the beginning of the Green Revolution in India?
Ans 1. Third Five Year Plan

2. Second Five Year Plan

3. Fourth Five Year Plan

4. First Five Year Plan

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a state function or state variable in a thermodynamic
system?
Ans 1. Pressure

2. Enthalpy

3. Work

4. Internal energy

Q.10 In which location is the 17th edition of the India-Mongolia joint military Exercise
NOMADIC ELEPHANT being conducted, as of 29 May 2025?
Ans 1. Umroi, Meghalaya

2. Thimphu, Bhutan

3. Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia

4. Leh, Ladakh

Q.11 Which physical feature marks the northeastern boundary of the Peninsular Block?
Ans 1. Aravalli Range

2. Malda fault

3. Eastern Ghats

4. Western Ghats

Q.12 Which of the following constitutional bodies was created to recommend appointments
and transfers of judges in India?
Ans 1. National Judicial Appointments Commission

2. High Court Tribunal

3. Supreme Council of Judges

4. Central Judicial Commission

Q.13 For her outstanding contributions towards films, which Indian filmmaker was honoured
with the prestigious Officier dans l'Ordre des Arts et des Lettres (Officer of the Order of
Arts and Letters) award by the French government in April 2025?
Ans 1. Mira Nair

2. Zoya Akhtar

3. Deepa Mehta

4. Payal Kapadia
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Q.14 The provision of early childhood care and education to children below six years of age
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was introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?

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Ans 1. Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
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2. Seventy-fourth Amendment Act, 1992

3. Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002
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4. Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978

Q.15 Mahavdev Govind Ranade devoted his entire life to the _________.
Ans 1. Prarthana Samaj

2. Deva Samaj

3. Servants of India Society

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4. Theosophical Society

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Q.16
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What did the Supreme Court direct regarding the investigation of 171 alleged fake
encounters in Assam?
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Ans 1. Ordered the Assam Human Rights Commission to investigate

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2. Dismissed the allegations

3. Declared the encounters justified

4. Ordered the Assam Human Rights Commission to transferred the cases to the CBI

Q.17 Which of the following countries withdrew from the International Criminal Court (ICC) in
April 2025?
Ans 1. Slovakia

2. Czech Republic

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3. Austria

4. Hungary

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Q.18
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Which of the following organisations is NOT related to the development of 'DIGIPIN',

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which was launched in 2025?
1. IIT Hyderabad ag
2. ISRO

3. DRDO

4. Department of Posts

Q.19 Who among the following was conferred with the Padma Shri Award 2025 in the field of
Literature and Education in April 2025?
Ans 1. Prof. Sushil Kumar Modi
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2. Prof. Anil Kumar Boro
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Ans
Who was sworn in as the 52nd Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025?
1. Justice Bhushan Ramakrishna Gavai

2. Justice Sanjiv Khanna

3. Justice Uday Umesh Lalit

4. Justice Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud

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Q.21 In which year was the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) initially
constituted under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India by an executive
order?
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2010

3. 2007

4. 2008

Q.22 Which 2025 book by Pankaj Mishra examines Middle Eastern conflicts in a global
context?
Ans 1. Beyond Borders

2. Global Turmoil

3. The World After Gaza

4. Echoes of the East

Q.23 The luminous efficacy of monochromatic radiation of frequency 540×1012 Hz, Kcd, is to
be ____ when expressed in the unit lumen per watt.
Ans 1. 641

2. 679

3. 655

4. 683

Q.24 In which of the following years was Burhan-ul-Mulk appointed the Nazim of Awadh?
Ans 1. 1712

2. 1732

3. 1702

4. 1722

Q.25 Which of the following statements about the Council of Ministers is correct?
Ans 1. Ministers of State rank higher than Cabinet Ministers.

2. Cabinet Ministers are a smaller group within the Council of Ministers.

3. The Council of Ministers is appointed by the Chief Justice.

4. All members of the Council of Ministers are part of the Cabinet.

Q.26 Pitt’s India Act of 1784 established which of the following bodies?
Ans 1. Dual Government in Bengal

2. Indian Civil Services

3. Board of Control

4. Supreme Court at Calcutta

Q.27 Which of the following elements is NOT generally found in proteins?
Ans 1. Nitrogen

2. Phosphorus

3. Carbon

4. Hydrogen

Q.28 The Green Revolution in India primarily led to an increase in the production of which
crops?
Ans 1. Rice and Pulses

2. Wheat and Sugarcane

3. Wheat and Rice

4. Rice and Maize
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Q.29 The primary cause for the rise of Jainism and Buddhism was the religious unrest in
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India in the ______.

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Ans 1. 6th century BCE
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4. 7th century BCE

Q.30 Developing countries have often experienced mixed outcomes from globalisation.
Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of globalisation for developing
economies?
Ans 1. Job creation

2. Transfer of technology

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3. Unequal income distribution

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4. Export growth

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Q.31
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Which soil is acidic in nature and found in high rainfall areas?
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1. Laterite soil
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2. Red soil

3. Alluvial soil

4. Black soil

Q.32 What is the primary goal of the 'MILAN 2025' naval exercise hosted by India?
Ans 1. To promote maritime cooperation among friendly navies

2. To build new submarines jointly with France

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3. To launch new defence satellites

4. To train for desert warfare

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Q.33
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While multitasking, which of the following best describes what happens when Alt + Tab

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is used repeatedly?
1. It locks the computer. ag
2. It cycles through open applications in the order of last use.

3. It opens the Task Manager.

4. It closes the active window.

Q.34 Which trio of leaders is famously associated with the rise of Extremist ideology in
Indian nationalism?
Ans 1. Lal-Bal-Pal
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2. Gokhale-Tilak-Gandhi
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Ans
Yakshagana is a folk theatre form from which of the following states of India?
1. Tamil Nadu

2. Punjab

3. Karnataka

4. Gujarat

Q.36 Which player was honoured with the 2025 Football Writers' Association Men's
Footballer of the Year award?
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Ans 1. Erling Haaland

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2. Mohamed Salah

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3. Harry Kane


4. Bukayo Saka
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Q.37 Which type of mountain range is formed by the uplifted folded sedimentary rocks?
Ans 1. Volcanic Mountains

2. Block Mountains

3. Fold Mountains

4. Residual Mountains

Q.38 During the period of medieval Indian literature, which language began to decline as the
dominant medium for Buddhist literary expression and scholarship?
Ans 1. Pali

2. Sanskrit

3. Apabhramsha

4. Prakrit

Q.39 The RTI Act applies to which of the followings in India?
Ans 1. Only Judiciary

2. Only Central Government

3. All Public Authorities

4. Only State Government

Q.40 Which Indian institute developed a fluorescent sensor capable of detecting cyanide in
water and human cells, using just a UV light source?
Ans 1. IIT Delhi

2. IIT Bombay

3. IIT Madras

4. IIT Guwahati

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 Sapna invested ₹20,300 on simple interest, partly at 11% per annum and partly at 3% per
annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 5 years, then find the
sum invested at 11% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 4,350

2. 4,351

3. 4,347

4. 4,352

Q.2 The number of prime numbers lying between 430 and 443, both included, is:
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 5

Q.3

Ans 1. 31.25

2. 37.25

3. 35.25

4. 34.25

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Q.4 Two times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 41 years. After 7 years,
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nine times Q’s age will be 24 years less than six times P’s age at that time. What is the

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3. 20

4. 13

Q.5 Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-3) × 7
Ans 1. -35

2. -38

3. -36
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4. -39
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Q.6
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The LCM of the numbers 14.2 and 0.05 is:
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Ans 1. 14.2

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2. 0.142

3. 142

4. 1.42

Q.7 Find the mean proportional of 400 and 4.
Ans 1. 37

2. 39

3. 40
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4. 41

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Q.8
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A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 44% above its cost price and offers a 25%

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discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹126, then what is the list price (in ₹) of

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the fan?
1. 1,968 ag
2. 2,192

3. 2,098

4. 2,268

Q.9
Ans 1. 159°

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2. 186°
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3. 80°

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4. 163°

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to cover the same distance in 10 hours?
1. 167 km/hr

2. 165 km/hr

3. 171 km/hr

4. 168 km/hr

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Q.11 X, Y and Z invested a sum in the ratio of 19 : 88 : 18, respectively. If they earned a total
profit of ₹2,200 at the end of the year, what is the difference between the shares of Y and
Z?
Ans 1. ₹1,181

2. ₹1,391

3. ₹1,302

4. ₹1,232

Q.12 Find the simple interest on ₹4,000 at 7.5% per annum rate of interest deposited on 9
February 2024 and withdrawn on 10 April 2024.
Ans 1. ₹51

2. ₹48

3. ₹49

4. ₹50

Q.13 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.
18, 10, 15, 18, 18, 13, 20, 18, 17, 19
The mode of the given data is:
Ans 1. 18

2. 15

3. 10

4. 13

Q.14 The sides of a triangle are 14 cm, 48 cm, and 50 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 321

2. 324

3. 336

4. 314

Q.15 Which of the following numbers divides 44,43,48,269?
Ans 1. 12

2. 9

3. 10

4. 19

Q.16 M and N start a business. M invests ₹64,000 more than N for 2 months and N invests for
3 months. M's share is ₹552 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹1,656. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹95,898

2. ₹96,000

3. ₹95,804

4. ₹95,828

Q.17 The number 889897 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 52

2. 64

3. 69

4. 59

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Q.18 A can do a work in 16 days and B can do the same work in 18 days. If they work on it
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together for 4 days, then what fraction of the work is left?

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Ans
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1.

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2.
a

3.

4.

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Q.19 The population of a district is 350000, out of which 175000 are males. 36% of the
population is literate. If 22% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
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literate?
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Ans 1. 50%

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2. 53%

3. 48%

4. 47%

Q.20 Hema can do a certain piece of work in 30 days. Hema and Raji can together do the
same work in 25 days, and Hema, Raji and Smitha can do the same work together in 10
days. In how many days can Hema and Smitha do the same work together?
Ans
1.

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2.
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3. a
4.

Q.21 A cuboid has dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm. If the largest possible cube is cut from
one of the corners of the cuboid, what is the total surface area of the remaining
portion?

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Ans 1. 312 cm2

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2. 376 cm2

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km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 71.81

2. 72.97

3. 70.72

4. 70.06

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Q.23 The average weight of Tushar, Salil and Mukund is 45 kg. If the average weight of Tushar
and Salil is 44 kg and that of Salil and Mukund is 47 kg, then the weight of Salil (in kg)
is:
Ans 1. 67

2. 57

3. 62

4. 47

Q.24 Pallavi bought a toy for ₹255, decorated it at a cost of ₹5 and sold the toy for ₹154. Find
the loss or profit percentage.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 Simplify x(4x − 4) + 5(x2 − 5) + 12.
Ans 1. 9x2 − 4x + 13

2. −9x2 − 4x − 13

3. 9x2 − 4x − 13

4. −9x2 − 4x + 13

Q.27

Ans 1. 14.68

2. 11.1

3. 11.75

4. 12.78

Q.28 Under an offer at a shop selling trousers, customers were getting 4 trousers free on the
purchase of 6 trousers. Find the discount available to the customer.
Ans 1. 30%

2. 40%

3. 20%

4. 50%

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Q.29 The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 164. The sum of the
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numbers is:

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Ans 1. 16
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2. 32

3. 8
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4. 18

Q.30 A retailer offers a discount scheme 'Buy 3 get 1 free'. Every item costs ₹3,000. He gave a
discount of 20% on the total bill to his relative. If his relative takes home 4 items, then
how much he would have paid?
Ans 1. ₹7,200

2. ₹5,400

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3. ₹7,000

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4. ₹6,200

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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.1 Seven people, A, B, C, T, U, V and W are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people
sit to the left of V. Only A sits to the right of U. Only three people sit between U and W. T
sits at some place to the left of B but at some place to the right of C. How many people
sit between C and B?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Two

4. Three

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Q.2 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept below B. Only one box is kept above D. Only one

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box is kept between D and E. F is kept immediately above C. G is kept at some place
below A. How many boxes are kept above B?

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Ans 1. Five

2. Four a
3. Three

4. Two

Q.3 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (Note: All numbers are single digit numbers
only).

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(Left) 9 # 8 $ 1 * £ 3 4 7 + Ω 6 2 & % 5 @ (Right)

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How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by another
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symbol and also immediately followed by another symbol?
Ans
m 1. 3
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a 3. 1

4. 0

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘FAIR’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘RENT’ is coded as ‘1365’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 7

3. 5

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4. 6

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Q.5 WFJU is related to AINX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MRZG is related to QUDJ. To which of the given options is YALP related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. CDSP

2. CDPS

3. CSPO

4. CSER

Q.6 IQNJ is related to GOLH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, FNKG is related to DLIE. To which of the given options is CKHD related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. AIBF

2. IABF

3. AIFB

4. IAFB

Q.7 If ‘I’ stands for ‘+’, ‘J’ stands for ‘×’, ‘K’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘L’ stands for ‘−’, then what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

65 I 35 L 35 I 15 K 5 J 24 I 65 K 5 J 8 = ?
Ans 1. 211

2. 316

3. 241

4. 303

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

28 49 72 97 124 ?
Ans 1. 144

2. 172

3. 153

4. 166

Q.9 H is the brother of P. P is the brother of S. S is the daughter of K. K is the wife of L. N is
the son of M. M is married to S. How is N related to L?
Ans 1. Brother's son

2. Daughter's son

3. Son's son

4. Son

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

800, 1100, 850, 1150, 900, ?
Ans 1. 1200

2. 1150

3. 600

4. 650

Q.11 Tiya, Tarun, Shyam, Jiya, Varun and Ram are sitting around a circle, facing the centre.
Ram sits third to the right of Tarun. Tarun sits second to the right of Tiya. Shyam sits to
the immediate right of Varun. Who sits second to the right of Tarun?
Ans 1. Varun

2. Tiya

3. Jiya

4. Shyam

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Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

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statements.
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All fans are bulbs. ag l
No bulb is a geyser.

Conclusions:
(I): No fan is a geyser.
(II): No geyser is a bulb.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.
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4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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Q.13
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MONK is related to SUTQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In

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the same way, KMLI is related to QSRO. To which of the following is CEDA related,

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following the same logic?
Ans 1. IKOP

2. IKJG
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3. JUIY

4. JUYT

Q.14 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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42 × 6 − 18 ÷ 4 + 15 = ?

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Ans 1. 64

2. 66
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3. 68
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4. 62
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Q.15 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PRN

2. VXT

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3. TVR

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4. RTO

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Q.16 mRead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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l as given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the

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Statements:
All bottles are ludo.
All ludo are drums.

Conclusions:
(I): Some drums are ludo.
(II): All bottles are drums.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

515 518 523 530 539 ?
Ans 1. 550

2. 549

3. 548

4. 551

Q.18 Seven boxes C, D, E, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only two boxes are kept below O. Only one box is kept above N. Only one box is kept
between N and E. C is kept immediately above M. D is kept at some place below P.
How many boxes are kept between P and C?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Three

4. Two

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

UXZ RUW ORT LOQ ?
Ans 1. IKN

2. IKM

3. ILN

4. ILM

Q.20 Gill starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards south. She then takes a left turn, drives
12 km, turns left and drives 4 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 5 km. She takes a
final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 9 km towards west

2. 7 km towards east

3. 7 km towards west

4. 9 km towards south

Q.21 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

6 − 3 + 77 × 7 ÷ 11 = ?
Ans 1. 28

2. 18

3. 21

4. 35

Q.22 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PLQ

2. EAG

3. HDI

4. LHM

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.co
Q.23 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

. co (Left) 4 6 % Ω 9 # @ 8 $ 7 1 * £ 5 & + 3 2 (Right)
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m a
se How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another symbol?
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Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Q.24 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
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numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down

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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
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3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

s l a
86, 286
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48, 248
Ans 1. 65, 265

2. 70, 280

3. 78, 378

4. 45, 235

Q.25 Dominic starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 9 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 19 km.

m
He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)

.co
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 11 km; south
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2. 10 km; south
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3. 13 km; south
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4. 12 km; south

Q.26 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ORM

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2. KNI
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3. RUP

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4. TWS

g l a
g l a Q.27 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the a
a English alphabetical order?

BGK HMQ NSW TYC ?
Ans 1. ZIE

2. ZLE

3. ZEL

4. ZEI

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.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.28 Each of the digits in the number 7356981 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 11

3. 8

4. 10

Q.29 In a certain code language, ‘FELT’ is coded as ‘4629’ and ‘LOAN’ is coded as ‘1345’.
What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 1

4. 2

Q.30 Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the
same order. Only P is kept above R. Only X is kept between R and Q. Only Z is kept
below S. How many boxes are kept between Y and Z?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Two

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m . s e
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Test Date 21/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which organisation has released the India Justice Report (IJR) in April 2025?
Ans 1. Ambedkar Trusts

2. National Trusts

3. Tata Trusts

4. Bombay Public Trusts

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Q.2 Which of the following is a national waterway between Haldia (Sagar) and Prayagraj?
Ans 1. National Waterways 1

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2. National Waterways 3

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3. National Waterways 4

4. National Waterways 2 ag
Q.3 Which Indian sprinter made a successful comeback by winning a silver medal in the
women's 4×100m relay at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships?
Ans 1. Hima Das

2. Dhanalakshmi Sekar

3. Dutee Chand

4. Srabani Nanda
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Q.4
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Which organisation’s support was crucial in India’s globalisation process post 1991

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economic crisis?
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Ans 1. WHO
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g l a 2. UNICEF a
a 3. IMF

4. UNESCO

Q.5 Which district became the first in India to meet its entire power demand through solar
energy, as of 2025?
Ans 1. Silvassa

2. Kavaratti

3. Leh
m .
4. Diu
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 In February 2025, a self-cleaning, flexible heating fabric was developed by ___________.
Ans 1. IIT Madras

2. IIT Delhi

3. IIT Guwahati

4. IIT Bombay

Q.7 When were Bahadur Shah Zafar and his wife Begum Zinat Mahal sent to prison in
Rangoon?
Ans 1. April 1857

2. October 1858

3. January 1859

4. October 1857

Q.8 Which of the following coast lies in Karnataka and Kerala states?
Ans 1. Kachchh coast

2. Kathiawar coast

3. Malabar coast

4. Konkan coast

Q.9 Which Amendment gave Constitutional recognition to the National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC)?
Ans 1. 98th Amendment Act, 2013

2. 102nd Amendment Act, 2018

3. 99th Amendment Act, 2014

4. 100th Amendment Act, 2015

Q.10 Which edition of the BIMSTEC Summit in Thailand did the Indian Prime Minister attend
on 4 April 2025?
Ans 1. 6th

2. 7th

3. 5th

4. 8th

Q.11 Manimekali, a notable work within early Tamil literature, is categorised as which type of
literary composition?
Ans 1. An Epic

2. An Autobiography

3. A Treatise

4. A Memoir

Q.12 In dry areas, water from underground comes up through the soil by capillary action and
dries quickly, leaving salts behind. These salts form a hard layer called:
Ans 1. hardpans

2. pedalfer

3. laterite

4. granite

Q.13 The main objective of British economic policies in India was to:
Ans 1. support rural employment

2. promote Indian self-sufficiency

3. benefit the British economy

4. industrialise India

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Q.14 Which of the following kings of Kalinga in the 2nd century B.C. professed Jainism in
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India?

. Ans 1. Kharavela
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m as
se 2. Ashoka

3. Samprati ag l
4. Bindusara

Q.15 Each modern industrialised country, including India, has a National Metrology Institute
(NMI). What is the main role of an NMI?
Ans 1. To maintain standards of measurements

2. To monitor weather conditions

3. To regulate internet access in the country
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4. To conduct medical research
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m .co s em
Q.16 What is the name of the Act that governs the rules and service conditions of All-India
Services?
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Ans
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1. All-India Civil Act, 1950
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2. Indian Services Governance Act, 1955

3. All-India Services Act, 1951

4. Civil Services Regulation Act, 1946

Q.17 Colonial policies significantly altered India’s trade structure. Which of the following best
describes India’s foreign trade pattern at the time of independence?
Ans 1. Export of capital goods and import of consumer goods

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2. Export of finished goods and import of raw materials

3. Balanced trade between agriculture and industry

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4. Export of raw materials and import of manufactured goods
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Q.18 Which British policy promoted English education to create a loyal class serving British
interests in India?
Ans 1. Education Policy

2. Subsidiary Alliance

3. Divide and Rule

4. Trade Policy

Q.19 Tussocky grass grows mainly in which type of forests?
Ans 1. Tropical Thorn forests
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2. Tropical Deciduous forests

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3. Evergreen forests

l as
l as 4. Montane forests
ag
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Ans 1. Tidal energy

2. Natural gas transport fuel

3. Thermal power plant

4. Diesel generator

Q.21 Dr. Justice DY Chandrachud, former Chief Justice of India, joined which of the following
institutions in May 2025 as a distinguished professor?
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Ans 1. National Law University, Delhi (NLUD)

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2. Faculty of Law, University of Delhi (DU)

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la ag
3. Indian Law Institute (ILI)

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4. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (
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Q.22 Which of the following was a major criticism of the Green Revolution in India?
Ans 1. It reduced agricultural output.

2. It discouraged use of technology.

3. It promoted organic farming.

4. It led to regional and crop imbalances.

Q.23 Which of the following options best represents the predictions of a Punnett square?
Ans 1. Genotype and phenotype probabilities

2. Genetic linkage relationships in siblings

3. Genetic mutations over several generations

4. DNA sequence in parents

Q.24 Which Constitutional Amendment Act abolished the provision for nominating members
from the Anglo-Indian community to the State Legislative Assemblies?
Ans 1. 104th Amendment Act, 2019

2. 105th Amendment Act, 2021

3. 101st Amendment Act, 2016

4. 102nd Amendment Act, 2018

Q.25 The Government conducted a crocodile census in the Vishwamitri River to estimate the
population of mugger crocodiles. In which state is the Vishwamitri River located?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Maharashtra

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Rajasthan

Q.26 Which of the following films is considered the first Indian sound (talkie) film, marking
the beginning of Bollywood?
Ans 1. Sholay

2. Raja Harishchandra

3. Alam Ara

4. Mughal-e-Azam

Q.27 Who laid the foundation stone of the Bageshwar Dham Medical and Science Research
Institute in Madhya Pradesh?
Ans 1. Mangubhai C Patel

2. Narendra Modi

3. Mohan Yadav

4. JP Nadda

Q.28 What special provision is granted under Article 371J of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Provision for official language use in Goa and Daman and Diu

2. Special status for the Hyderabad–Karnataka region

3. Creation of a common High Court for the northeastern states

4. Special powers to the Governor of Manipur for law and order

Q.29 What significant milestone did Pixxel achieve with its 2025 space launch?
Ans 1. Launch of a reusable rocket

2. India’s first lunar lander by a startup

3. Launch of the first private satellite constellation from India

4. Construction of a domestic space observatory

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Q.30 Which of the following is the function of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) in a
m
computer?

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Ans 1. It receives input from the keyboard and mouse only.
s e m
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2. It stores all user files permanently.

3. It processes data and controls operations of all parts of the computer.
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4. It sends output to printers and monitors.

Q.31 Which of the following is NOT a feature of India’s federal system, thereby reflecting its
unitary character?
Ans 1. Single citizenship for the entire country

2. Requirement of some Constitutional Amendments to be ratified by States

3. An upper house of Parliament (Rajya Sabha) representing the states
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4. Division of powers between the Centre and States
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Q.32
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Which Latin American country became the first to pull out of China's Belt and Road
s em
s e
Initiative in February 2025?
l a
Ans 1. Panama
l a ag
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2. Argentina

3. Chile

4. Brazil

Q.33 The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists various subjects. Which level of
government are these subjects intended for?
Ans 1. Urban Municipal Corporations

2. State Governments (State legislative matters)
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3. Panchayati Raj Institutions (village/local level)

4. Central Government (Union ministries)
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Q.34
Ans 1. Program Control Block ag
What does the abbreviation 'PCB' stand for in operating systems?

2. Process Control Block

3. Primary Communication Bus

4. Process Communication Block

Q.35 Who among the following had given the idea to mobilise all the leading Indian political
leaders under a common platform called the Indian National Congress?
Ans 1. A O Hume
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2. W C Bannerjee
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m.co 3. Surendranath Bannerjee
s e m
s e 4. Ananda Mohan Bose
g l a
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always combine in a fixed 1 : 8 mass ratio to form water?
Ans 1. Law of Conservation of Energy

2. Dalton's Atomic Theory

3. Law of Multiple Proportions

4. Law of Constant Proportions

Q.37 In how many cities of Bihar were the Khelo India Youth Games 2025 held?
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Ans 1. 3

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2. 5

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3. 6


4. 4
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Q.38 ‘Milind Panho’ is a post-Mauryan text which contains the conversations between the
Indo-Greek ruler Menander and the scholar and Buddhist monk ___________.
Ans 1. Nagasena

2. Badarayana

3. Patanjali

4. Kapila

Q.39 When did Donald Trump officially take office as the 47th President of the United States?
Ans 1. 20 January 2025

2. 4 March 2025

3. 1 February 2025

4. 6 January 2025

Q.40 Which Indian city, also called the 'Detroit of India,' hosts manufacturers like Hyundai,
BMW, Ford and Ashok Leyland, making it a major automotive hub?
Ans 1. Gurugram

2. Pune

3. Sanand

4. Chennai

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 After allowing a discount of 28%, an article is available for ₹3,240. Its marked price is
_______.
Ans 1. ₹4,147

2. ₹4,450

3. ₹4,332

4. ₹4,500

Q.2 If the 6-digit number N84M69 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M + N = 7

2. M - N = 1

3. M = N

4. M - N = -7

Q.3 Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 22 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 8 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.4 A train that is 220 m long overtakes a man moving at a speed of 10 km/hr (in same
m
direction) in 44 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to completely

. co cross another train of a length of 315 m, moving in the opposite direction at a speed of
79 km/hr?
s e m
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se Ans 1. 14

2. 32 ag l
3. 28

4. 18

Q.5 A sum of ₹15,625 amounts to ₹24,389 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest per annum,
compounded annually. The rate of interest per annum is:
Ans 1.

2.
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3.

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4.

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Q.6
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Find the value of [868 ÷ {26 + 6 × (3 − 7)}].
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Ans 1. 432

2. 435
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3. 431

4. 434

Q.7 Sapna invested ₹21,700 on simple interest, partly at 3% per annum and partly at 12%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 7 years, then find
the sum invested at 3% per annum (in ₹).

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Ans 1. 17,360

2. 17,357

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3. 17,361

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4. 17,358
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Q.8 Which of the following is the greatest number that, when dividing 183, 127 and 211,
leaves the same remainder each time?
Ans 1. 25

2. 28

3. 30

4. 32

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Q.9
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s e
Ans 1.
g l a
g l a 2. a
a 3.

4.

Q.10 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 182. The greater of the two numbers
is:
Ans 1. 14

2. 26

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3. 7

e m
4. 27

em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.11 If the third proportional of 25 and 35 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 52

2. 51

3. 49

4. 50

Q.12 The sides of a triangle are 44 cm, 33 cm, and 55 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 732

2. 726

3. 742

4. 749

Q.13 A number, when increased by 60%, gives 3570. The number is:
Ans 1. 4462.5

2. 1115.625

3. 2231.25

4. 6693.75

Q.14 The number of prime numbers lying between 306 and 313, both included, is:
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 3

4. 4

Q.15 A jacket is marked at ₹12,000. Store A offers two successive discounts of 15% and 10%.
Store B offers two successive discounts of 10% and 15%. A customer wants to know
which store provides a better deal and by how much?
Ans 1. Store A; by ₹150

2. Store A; by ₹100

3. Store B; by ₹100

4. Both stores A and B offer the same price

Q.16 The perimeter of an equilateral triangle ABC is 22.2 cm. What is the area of triangle (in
cm2)?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17
Ans 1. 76°

2. 91°

3. 85°

4. 82°

Q.18 If 3 times Mary’s present age is 18 years more than 5 times Diya's present age, and 2
times Diya's present age is 3 years less than Mary's present age, then what is the
difference (in years) between the ages of Mary and Diya?
Ans 1. 12

2. 16

3. 15

4. 11
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Q.19 Find the value of x satisfying: 5(5x2 − 6) − 5(5x2 + 2x − 4) = 20
m
co m
Ans 1.

m . s e
se
2.

g l a
3.
a
4.

Q.20 The average weight of Mandar, Ketan and Tushar is 45 kg. If the average weight of
Mandar and Ketan is 44 kg and that of Ketan and Tushar is 45 kg, then the weight of
Ketan (in kg) is:
Ans 1. 53

2. 63

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3. 43

m
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4. 58

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Q.21
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Mahesh bought some sharpeners at the rate of ₹150 a dozen. He sold them for ₹41
l a
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each. His profit percentage is ______%.
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ag
Ans 1. 226

2. 230

3. 232

4. 228

Q.22 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.

18, 13, 14, 14, 19, 14, 17, 17, 14, 20

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The mode of the data is:
Ans 1. 13

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2. 14

las
g
3. 18

4. 19 a
Q.23 Find the value of: 55−13 ÷ 5514 × 55−11
Ans 1. 55−36

2. 55−48

3. 55−38

4. 55−32
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Q.24

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l asAns 1. 18.4%
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ag 2. 18.7%

3. 16.1%

4. 16.5%

Q.25 Which of the following numbers divides 3,27,087?
Ans 1. 3

2. 12

3. 8
m .
4. 5
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.26 4 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days, while 9 women can do it in 8 days. In
how many days can 3 women and 6 men complete this work?
Ans 1. 11 days

2. 13 days

3. 8 days

4. 4 days

Q.27 A man driving a car at a speed of 41 km/hr crosses a bridge in 2.4 minutes. Find the
length of the bridge.
Ans 1. 2.18 km

2. 2.54 km

3. 0.69 km

4. 1.64 km

Q.28 A company earns a profit (in ₹) that is distributed among the company's three partners
in the ratio of 14 : 10 : 16. If the difference between the smallest and the largest shares
is ₹29,547, the total profit (in ₹) of the company is:
Ans 1. 1,96,892

2. 1,96,980

3. 1,97,067

4. 1,96,943

Q.29 A man makes a monthly payment equal to 30% of his monthly salary towards debt
repayment. He spends 20% of the remaining salary and saves ₹602. His monthly salary
(in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 1,075

2. 1,072

3. 1,115

4. 1,078

Q.30 M and N started a business. M invested ₹48,000 more than N for 3 months, while N
invested for 4 months. M's share is ₹498 more than that of N, out of a total profit of
₹1,494. Find the capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹78,600

2. ₹76,800

3. ₹75,000

4. ₹78,000

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Seven people, I, J, K, L, U, V and W are sitting in a row, facing north.
No one sits to the left of V. Only four people sit between V and I. Only three people sit to
the right of K. J sits to the immediate left of W. L is not an immediate neighbour of K.
Who sits at the rightmost end of the line?
Ans 1. L

2. K

3. W

4. I

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Q.2 Refer to the following letter-symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting is to be done from left to right only.

. co (Left) 7 1 $ % 3 $ % 8 < 7 8 1 8 # < 7 @ * 5 5 + (Right)

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How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol

Ans
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
1. Four ag
2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.3 Kabir ranked 27th from the top and 34th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 59
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2. 60

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3. 62

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4. 61

l as ag
Q.4
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In a certain code language, ‘MORE’ is coded as ‘1432’ and ‘MOVE’ is coded as ‘3254’.
What is the code for ‘V’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

4. 1

Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements: All kiwis are bananas. All bananas are grapes. s
Conclusions (I): All kiwis are grapes. ag
Conclusions (II): Some grapes are bananas.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.6 Seven people, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit
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between J and I. Only M sits to the right of K. Only one person sits between I and K. O
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sits at some place to the right of L but at some place to the left of N. How many people
sit between N and L?
e m
Ans
e m 1. Two
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l as 2. One
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4. Three

Q.7 B is the father of O. O is the wife of A. A is the brother of T. T is the daughter of S. How
is B related to S?
Ans 1. Son's wife's brother

2. Son's wife's sister

3. Son's wife's mother

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4. Son's wife's father

s e
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.8 Which of the following options is the closest approximate value that will come in place
of question mark (?) in the following equation?

Ans 1. 544

2. 594

3. 449

4. 494

Q.9 XAYA is related to BECE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, GJHJ is related to KNLN. To which of the given options is MPNP related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. QUQV

2. QSQT

3. QTQT

4. QTRT

Q.10 Mr. Tim starts from point A and drives 9 km towards the west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 3 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 4 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 20 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-
degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 1 km to the south

2. 3 km to the south

3. 4 km to the east

4. 2 km to the south

Q.11 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
All numbers are single-digit. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 6 @ 2 & % 8 $ 7 + 1 * £ 5 & 3 Ω 9 # (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 1

4. 2

Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

96 102 104 110 112 ?
Ans 1. 118

2. 116

3. 120

4. 119

Q.13 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘÷’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

13 − 2 × 75 + 3 ÷ 24 = ?
Ans 1. 38

2. 34

3. 46

4. 25

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m
.co
Q.14 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’
m
are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

. co 8 + 5 ÷ 40 − 4 × 17 = ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 52

2. 47 ag l
3. 58

4. 40

Q.15 Mohit starts from Point Y and drives 35 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
drives 83 km, turns right and drives 49 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 36 km.
He takes a right turn, drives 76 km. He then turns left, drives 47 km, turns left again,
drives 21 km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90° turns only
m
.co
unless specified.)

m
.co
Ans 1. 37 km towards west

em
2. 39 km towards north

e m l as
s
3. 43 km towards east

l a ag
ag
4. 41 km towards south

Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NE-HL

2. PG-JN

3. LC-FJ
m
4. JA-DG

m .co
s e
la
Q.17 Seven boxes D, E, F, G, H, I and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the

g
same order. Only F is kept above I. Only X is kept between I and E. Only H is kept below

Ans
G. How many boxes are kept between D and F?
1. Three
a
2. Two

3. One

4. Four

Q.18 VXZA is related to WYAB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, YACD is related to ZBDE. To which of the following is BDFG related,
following the same logic?
m
Ans
m
1. CFFH
.co
m.co 2. CEGH
s e m
s e 3. CDFH
g l a
g l a 4. CEFH a
a Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘the glass broke’ is written as ‘al tk jb’ and ‘answer the
question ’ is coded as ‘ mo jb tu’. How is ‘the’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. mo

2. tk

3. jb

4. al

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.20 URKE is related to ZWPJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, OLEY is related to TQJD. To which of the given options is DATN related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. IFYS

2. IYSF

3. IFSY

4. IUOP

Q.21 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

23 ? 46 59 73 88
Ans 1. 36

2. 34

3. 42

4. 30

Q.22 If 1 is subtracted from each odd digit of the number 95423671, then what will be the
product of the digits that are repeated more than once in the new number formed?
Ans 1. 8

2. 48

3. 24

4. 16

Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

50 61 78 101 132 173 ?
Ans 1. 201

2. 220

3. 221

4. 210

Q.24 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MPO

2. YBZ

3. ORP

4. EHF

Q.25 In a row of 151 students facing north, Mr. Into is 12th from the right end. If Mr. Toni is
16th to the left of Mr. Into; what is Mr. Toni's position from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. 126th

2. 123rd

3. 124th

4. 125th

Q.26 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

WJO, BHR, GFU, ?, QBA
Ans 1. LDC

2. LWC

3. LDX

4. LMX
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Q.27 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
m
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the

. co numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
s e m
m a
se l
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding

3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and

15, 224
8, 63
Ans 1. 9, 80

2. 11, 123

3. 6, 37

4. 13, 170

m
Q.28
m
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
.co
.co m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?
m s e
e
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

s l a
ag
position in the letter-cluster.)

l a
ag
Ans 1. BR-XE

2. CS-YA

3. VL-RT

4. HX-DF

Q.29 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

BD 99 GI 97 LN 93 QS 87 ?
Ans 1. VX 79
m
2. TV 79
m .co
3. UW 77
s e
4. VW 77
g la
Q.30
a
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some lipsticks are tabs.
No tab is a kite.

Conclusions:
m
.co
(I): Some lipsticks are kites.
m
.co
(II): Some tabs are lipsticks.
Ans
e m
s
1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

e m l a
l as 2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

ag
ag 3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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