RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 22 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 22 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 22/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What is the condition for total internal reflection to occur?
Ans 1. Light must travel from a rarer medium to a denser medium at an angle of 90°.

2. Light must travel from a denser to a rarer medium at an angle greater than the critical angle.

3. Light must strike the boundary at 90° to the normal separating any two mediums of different refractive indices.

4. The refractive indices of both media must be equal.

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Q.2 What is 'Google Beam' introduced under Project Starline?
Ans 1. A language translation tool for real-time communication

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2. An AI-powered video communication platform aiming to redefine virtual interactions

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3. A new satellite launched by Google for global internet coverage

4. A hardware device for enhancing internet speed in rural areas

Q.3 What was the main objective of India’s First Five Year Plan (1951–56)?
Ans 1. Growth of IT services

2. Privatisation of PSUs

3. Heavy industrialisation

4. Agricultural development
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Q.4 Who was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for their contributions to Indian
cinema?
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Ans
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4. Subhash Ghai

Q.5 Why is wheat grown in the north-western plains of India?
Ans 1. Because it lies close to the coastal water bodies

2. Because it receives heavy rainfall during the monsoon

3. Because the region has fertile alluvial soil and cool winters

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4. Because the region has red soil with limited annual rainfall
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Q.6 Which of the following elements provides access to system settings, installed
programs, and power options from the desktop?
Ans 1. Taskbar

2. File Explorer

3. Start Menu

4. Notification Area

Q.7 What did the Supreme Court decide in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) about the
powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India?

Ans 1. The President of India has the ultimate authority to approve or reject constitutional amendments independently.

2. The Parliament cannot amend any part of the Constitution under any circumstances.

3. The Parliament can amend the Constitution, but it cannot change or destroy its basic structure or essential features.

4. The Parliament has unlimited power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights.

Q.8 In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court uphold the Right to Privacy as a
Fundamental Right in 2017?
Ans 1. Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India

2. Indira Sawhney vs. Union of India

3. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India

4. Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India

Q.9 Which mode of transport is most suitable for transporting heavy and bulky goods over
long distances?
Ans 1. Railways

2. Pipelines

3. Roadways

4. Airways

Q.10 Which of the following best defines impulse in mechanics?
Ans 1. The product of mass and velocity

2. The product of force and the time for which it acts

3. The rate of change of momentum multiplied by the distance

4. The change in displacement over time

Q.11 What was the other name of Chandragupta II, the renowned ruler of the Gupta dynasty?
Ans 1. Dhruvasena

2. Suryadeva

3. Karmaputra

4. Vikramaditya

Q.12 Which of the following statements regarding the Ryotwari settlement is correct?
It was developed by Thomas Munro.
The settlement was made directly with the cultivators, not zamindars.
It was tested on a small scale in the annexed territories of Tipu.
Finding it successful, it was then applied in the Ganga plains.
Select the correct combination:
Ans 1. 1 and 2 only

2. 1 only

3. 1, 2 and 3 only

4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q.13 Amir Khusrau is known for contributing to which two languages?
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Ans 1. Sanskrit and Tamil

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4. Persian and Hindavi

Q.14 According to the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, within how many days can an appeal be
made in the High Court on the order of the Waqf Tribunal?
Ans 1. 120 days

2. 70 days

3. 90 days

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4. 50 days

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Q.15
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Which of the following players was named the Men's Player of the Year at the All India

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Football Federation (AIFF) Awards in May 2025?
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Ans 1. Gurpreet Singh Sandhu

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2. Sunil Chhetri

3. Sandesh Jhingan

4. Subhasish Bose

Q.16 Jhumur, a traditional folk dance, originated in which of the following Indian states?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Punjab

3. Kerala
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4. Gujarat

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Q.17
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The Human Development Index emphasises people-centric development. Who is
credited with creating the HDI alongside Amartya Sen?
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Ans 1. Manmohan Singh
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2. Jean Drèze

3. Kaushik Basu

4. Mahbub ul Haq

Q.18 Which of the following Committees is a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
Ans 1. Delimitation Commission

2. Joint Parliamentary Committee on 2G Spectrum
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3. Select Committee on a Bill
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g l a Q.19 Which of the following institutes proposed development of world’s smallest
semiconductors chip in 2025? a
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2. IIT Delhi

3. DRDO Research Lab

4. BARC

Q.20 Which constitutional Articles ensure the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High
Courts for enforcing fundamental rights, including RTI?

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Ans 1. Articles 51 and 356

2. Articles 14 and 15
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3. Articles 21 and 39
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4. Articles 32 and 226
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Q.21 How many Khelo India centres did the Delhi government propose to establish in June
2025?
Ans 1. Six

2. Eight

3. Two

4. Ten

Q.22 What is the value of one roentgen (R) when expressed in SI units?
Ans 1. 1.0×10−3 grays

2. 2.58×10−4 coulombs per kilogram

3. 1.6×10−19 coulombs

4. 3.7×1010 disintegrations per second

Q.23 The introduction of English education in India was promoted through which of the
following documents?
Ans 1. Charter Act of 1813

2. Regulating Act

3. Macaulay’s Minute

4. Pitts India Act

Q.24 Which of the following was NOT a reason for the Paleolithic people to move from place
to place?
Ans 1. Failure of crops

2. Resource exhaustion

3. Movement of prey animals

4. Seasonal changes

Q.25 Littoral forests are most associated with which kind of ecosystem?
Ans 1. Wetland ecosystem

2. Tundra ecosystem

3. Grassland ecosystem

4. Desert ecosystem

Q.26 What was the main motive of British colonial rule in India?
Ans 1. Social development of India

2. Industrialisation of India

3. Welfare of Indian farmers

4. Economic exploitation of India

Q.27 The Women’s Kabaddi World Cup scheduled for June 2025, was announced to be
hosted in which location in India?
Ans 1. Ahmedabad

2. Rajgir

3. Kolkata

4. Chennai

Q.28 What is the primary cause of southwest monsoon in India?
Ans 1. Tidal effects

2. Differential heating of land and sea

3. Westerly winds from the Atlantic

4. Local winds from the desert

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Q.29 On 25 April 2025, DRDO achieved a significant milestone by conducting a long-duration
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ground test of an active cooled scramjet subscale combustor. How long did this test

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3. 500 seconds

4. 120 seconds

Q.30 In which of the following years was the Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
launched with the aim to bring the assisted poor families (Swarozgaris) above the
poverty line by organising them into Self Help Groups (SHGs) through a mix of bank
credit and government subsidies?
Ans 1. 1999

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2. 1994
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3. 1991

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4. 2003

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Q.31 Which of the following is responsible for causing convectional rainfall?
Ans 1. Cyclonic movements

2. Intense surface heating causing air to rise

3. Mountains forcing air to rise

4. Cold and warm air masses meeting

Q.32 Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that Directive Principles are not
enforceable by any court?

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Ans 1. Article 36

2. Article 37

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3. Article 38
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4. Article 39
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Q.33
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According to Article 335 of the Constitution of India, claims of SCs and STs shall be
taken into consideration in matters of:
Ans 1. taxation policies

2. religious freedom

3. land acquisition

4. public employment

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Q.34 The 12th edition of the Global Terrorism Report Index (GTI) 2025 was published by
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_____.
Ans

m.co 1. The UN Counter-Terrorism Centre
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Q.35 What is the name of India's high-resolution weather forecasting system launched in May
2025?
Ans 1. National Weather Grid

2. Bharat Weather Network

3. Bharat Forecasting System

4. India Climate Monitor
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Q.36 Pondicherry was captured by the Dutch in 1693 but was returned to the French
company by the Treaty of Ryswick in _______.
Ans 1. 1741

2. 1704

3. 1699

4. 1696

Q.37 Which of the following is the most effective step for mitigating the impact of an
earthquake?
Ans 1. Seismic zoning and earthquake-resistant buildings

2. Water harvesting

3. Flood barriers

4. Deforestation

Q.38 Who introduced the Railways (Amendment) Bill that was passed in the Rajya Sabha in
March 2025?
Ans 1. Ashwini Vaishnaw

2. Kiren Rijiju

3. Sarbananda Sonowal

4. Hardeep Singh Puri

Q.39 Which keyboard button is used as a shortcut to rename a selected file or folder in
Windows?
Ans 1. F5

2. F2

3. Ctrl

4. Esc

Q.40 The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, which was introduced in the Lok Sabha
on 17 December 2024, amends how many Acts?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 5

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 A number, when decreased by 7%, gives 3720. The number is:
Ans 1. 12000

2. 8000

3. 4000

4. 2000

Q.2

Ans 1. −129x − 155

2. −129x + 155

3. 129x + 155

4. 129x − 155

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Q.3 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80 and the third
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number is 102. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.

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Ans 1. 196.5
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2. 182

3. 183
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4. 197.5

Q.4 A mobile phone is marked at ₹20,000. During a festive sale, a store offers two
successive discounts — 15% first and then 10%. What is the final selling price of the
mobile?
Ans 1. ₹15,000

2. ₹15,500

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3. ₹15,300

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4. ₹16,000

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Q.5
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Which of the following numbers is divisible by 22?
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Ans 1. 7467614
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2. 6136901
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3. 6580350

4. 8132950

Q.6 Manisha bought a toy for ₹940, decorated it at a cost of ₹10 and sold the toy for ₹659.
Find the loss or profit percentage.
Ans
1.

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4.

Q.7 If 2 times the age of Ram is 14 years more than 6 times the age of Ramya, and 4 times
the age of Ramya is 4 years less than the age of Ram, then what is the difference (in
years) between the ages of Ram and Ramya?
Ans 1. 15

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2. 17

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3. 13

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4. 14

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l as Q.8 If the third proportional of 4 and 22 be x, then what is the value of x?
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2. 121

3. 123

4. 119

Q.9

Ans 1. 3.9

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2. 8.31

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3. 7.73

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4. 10.34

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Q.10 If the 6-digit number N01M22 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M - N = 1

2. M + N = -1

3. M - N = 5

4. M = N

Q.11 If the difference between an interior angle and exterior angle of a regular polygon is
140°, then the number of sides of the polygon is equal to:
Ans 1. 12

2. 14

3. 18

4. 16

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 1 month.
Ans 1. ₹8

2. ₹24

3. ₹4

4. ₹48

Q.13 Find the surface area (rounded off to the nearest integer) of a sphere of radius 6.5 cm.
(Take π = 22/7)
Ans 1. 534 cm2

2. 540 cm2

3. 531 cm2

4. 530 cm2

Q.14 A man driving a car at a speed of 67 km/hr crosses a bridge in 3 minutes. Find the
length of the bridge.
Ans 1. 2.46 km

2. 3.35 km

3. 2.84 km

4. 2.51 km

Q.15 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 792, respectively. If one number is 88,
then find the other number.
Ans 1. 99

2. 97

3. 93

4. 89

Q.16 A company offers three schemes of successive discounts.

First: 25%, 10%
Second: 20 %, 15%
Third: 30%, 5%

Which scheme is best for the company?
Ans 1. First scheme

2. Third scheme

3. All the schemes are same

4. Second scheme

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Q.17 Five solid cubes, each of volume 3375 cm3, are joined end to end to form a cuboid.
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What is the lateral surface area (in cm2) of the cuboid?

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Ans 1. 2700

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3. 2801 ag l
4. 2694

Q.18

Ans
1.

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2.

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Q.19

Ans 1. 1

2. 0

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3. 2

4. -1
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Q.20 The sum of two numbers is 52 and their LCM is 627. The two numbers are:
Ans 1. 19, 33
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2. 12, 40

3. 17, 35

4. 24, 28

Q.21 In covering a distance of 156 km, Abhay takes 5 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay
doubles his speed, then he would take 8 hours less than Sameer. Abhay's speed is:
Ans 1. 16 km/hr
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2. 1 km/hr
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Ans
Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-2) × 6
1. -27

2. -30

3. -26

4. -29

Q.23 The product of two positive numbers is 10125. If the first number is five times the
second number, then the sum of the two numbers is:

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Ans 1. 265

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2. 286

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3. 264

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4. 270
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Q.24 If the interest earned during the 2nd year on a certain sum is ₹5,214, and the rate of
interest is 10% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
Ans 1. ₹47,755

2. ₹46,650

3. ₹47,320

4. ₹47,400

Q.25 A trader claims to sell pulses at a profit of 3%, but also dishonestly uses a weight which
is 15% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit earned by
the trader. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 Kushal and Brijesh together invested ₹63,300 in a business. At the end of the year, out
of a total profit of ₹17,600, Brijesh's share was ₹2,200. What was the difference between
their investments?
Ans 1. ₹48,876

2. ₹45,979

3. ₹47,475

4. ₹46,154

Q.27 Pipe A can fill a tank in 13 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 29 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 10 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.28 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 42. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 14 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.
Ans 1. 33.52

2. 32.52

3. 35.52

4. 34.52

Q.29 The income of Raman is ₹60,500. He saves 26% of his income. If his income increases
by 17% and expenditure increases by 50%, then his savings will:
Ans 1. increase by ₹12,099

2. decrease by ₹12,095

3. decrease by ₹12,100

4. increase by ₹12,098

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Q.30 Mr. Sharma, Mr. Gupta and Ms. Sinha invested ₹4,000, ₹8,000 and ₹6,000, respectively,
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in a business. Mr. Sharma left the business after 6 months. If after 8 months, there was

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3. ₹16,000

4. ₹14,000

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
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position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans 1. GI-LE

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2. JL-OH

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3. MO-RK
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4. DF-IC
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Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and
‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−‘ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
117 + 16 − 10 × 2 ÷ 2 − 68 + 10 × 5 − 9 = ?
Ans 1. 124

2. 96

3. 168

4. 186
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Q.3 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

that group?
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

position in the letter-cluster.) ag
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

Ans 1. INS

2. QBA

3. TYD

4. UZE

Q.4 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in

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the same order.

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Only F is kept above A. Only two boxes are kept between A and D. Only B is kept below

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C. G is not kept immediately above D.

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How many boxes are kept between B and E?
Ans
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a 3. 3

4. 2

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

RUM ORJ LOG ILD ?
Ans 1. FJA

2. FIA

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3. FIB

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4. FJB

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Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: Some kites are hats. No hat is a ant.

Conclusion (I): Some kites are ants.
Conclusion (II): Some hats are kites.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.7 Each of the digits in the number 7231456 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 7

2. 10

3. 8

4. 5

Q.8 Seven boxes F, G, H, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.Only three boxes are kept below H. Only two boxes are kept between H and
O. Only N is kept above G. F is kept at some place below M and at some place above P.
Which box is kept at second position from the bottom?
Ans 1. F

2. P

3. G

4. N

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1200, 1200, 1800, 3600, 9000, ?
Ans 1. 18000

2. 12000

3. 15000

4. 27000

Q.10 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
All numbers are single-digits. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) & 1 # 6 * ^ @ 3 & $ 7 Ω $ 2 # 6 @ 2 % 9 (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be third from
the left?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 7

4. 1

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Q.11 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
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certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

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SONG - SGNO - GNOS
Ans 1. RAIL - ARIL - LAIR
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2. CAME - CEMA - EMAC

3. WINK - WNIK - KNIW

4. CODE - COED - ODEC

Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
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All actors are dancers.
Some dancers are singers.
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Conclusions:
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(I) All dancers are actors.
(II) No singer is a dancer.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.13 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (Note: All numbers are single digit numbers
only.)
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(Left) 4 7 + $ 1 * £ 3 & % 5 @ Ω 6 2 9 # 8 (Right)
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How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by another symbol?
Ans 1. 5
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2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Q.14 Atul starts from his home and drives 5 km towards north. He then takes a left turn,
drives 6 km, turns left, and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5 km and
reaches his office. In which direction is the office with respect to his home?
(Note: All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)
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Ans
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1. North-west
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a Q.15 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(196, 142, 338)
(145, 198, 343)
Ans 1. (149, 152, 300)

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2. (183, 209, 392)

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3. (184, 130, 318)

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4. (164, 178, 352)

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Q.16 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
TYP : UZQ
ETQ : FUR
Ans 1. WER : ZFS

2. ELA : FCD

3. UIP : VJR

4. OUT : PVU

Q.17 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical
order?

BJS CLT DNU EPV ?
Ans 1. GRV

2. GSV

3. FRV

4. FRW

Q.18 FNJG is related to DLHE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, IQMJ is related to GOKH. To which of the given options is MUQN related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. SKOL

2. SKLO

3. KSOL

4. KSLO

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

195 189 180 174 165 159 ?
Ans 1. 149

2. 153

3. 155

4. 150

Q.20 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only two people sit between D and C. Only G sits to the right of E. Only one person sits
between C and E. A sits at some place to the right of F but at some place to the left of B.
How many people sit to the right of A?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 5

4. 2

Q.21 If + means ‘subtraction’, − means ‘division’, ÷ means ‘multiplication’, × means ‘addition’,
then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

9 − 3 × 756 + 84 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 509

2. 510

3. 508

4. 507

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Q.22 Prabash starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards east. He then takes a left turn,
m
drives 4 km, turns left and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 7 km. He

. co takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (Note: All
s e m
m a
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turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the north
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2. 4 km to the north

3. 3 km to the north

4. 1 km to the north

Q.23 In a certain code language, ‘GLUE’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘LOAD’ is coded as ‘1375’.
What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

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2. 7
m
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3. 6

m s e
4. 1

s e l a
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Q.24 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. TP-AX

2. GC-OK

3. HD-PL

4. NJ-VR

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Q.25 In a certain code language, ‘DEAR’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘1375’.

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What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5
s e
2. 7
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3. 1 a
4. 6

Q.26 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only three boxes are kept below G. Only two boxes are kept between G and
B. Only A is kept above F. E is kept at some place below D and at some place above C.
How many boxes are kept above E?
Ans 1. 2

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2. 4

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3. 1

e m
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4. 3

l as
l asQ.27 Seven people, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north.
ag
ag Only two people sit between Q and R. Only D sits to the right of A. Only one person sits
between R and A. B sits at some place to the right of P but at some place to the left of C.
How many people sit between C and P?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

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s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.28 D is married to N. K is the daughter of X. X is the father of D. D is the mother of G. G is
the brother of I. I is the sister of E. I is married to H. How is X related to E?
Ans 1. Husband's father

2. Mother's father

3. Father's father

4. Father

Q.29 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
2736158, what will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and third from the
right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 10

4. 12

Q.30 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

31 42 57 76 99 ?
Ans 1. 126

2. 127

3. 125

4. 128

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m . s e
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a

Test Date 22/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 When referring to the conventional rod puppet shows of West Bengal, what is the name
used?
Ans 1. Putul Nautch

2. Kathputli

3. Yakshagana

4. Gombeyatta

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Q.2
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In May 2025, DRDO inaugurated a new research centre focusing on which advanced
technology?
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Ans 1. Artificial Intelligence
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2. Robotics
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3. Quantum Technology a
4. Nanotechnology

Q.3 Which among the following two organisations signed an Memorandum of
Understanding to establish an incubation centre promoting innovation in solar energy
and green hydrogen in May 2025?
Ans 1. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

m
2. Defence Research and Development Organisation and National Thermal Power Corporation

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3. National Institution for Transforming India Aayog and Indian Space Research Organisation
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m.co 4. National Solar Energy Federation of India and National Institute of Solar Energy
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.4 Which DRDO-developed system, tested in 2025, is designed to detect and neutralise
multiple types of underwater threats? a
a Ans 1. Varunastra

2. Maareech

3. MIGM

4. Takshak

Q.5 Bhaga and Chandra streams join at which place in Himachal Pradesh forming the river
Chenab?
Ans 1. Tandi
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2. Kullu
.co s e m
3. Rohtang Pass
s em l a
4. Verinag Spring
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Which Fundamental Right guarantees Freedom of Speech, Assembly and Movement?
Ans 1. Right to Cultural Rights

2. Right to Equality

3. Right to Freedom

4. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Q.7 Which of the following is the correct method to create a new folder using the File menu
in Windows 7?
Ans 1. Open Computer → Right-click drive → File → New → Folder

2. Open Computer → Open desired drive (e.g., D:) → Click on File → New → Folder

3. Start → File → Folder → New

4. Control Panel → File → Create → New Folder

Q.8 In which year was the first metro line in India, between Esplanade and Bhowanipur in
Kolkata, inaugurated—marking the beginning of metro rail services in the country?
Ans 1. 1994

2. 1977

3. 1990

4. 1984

Q.9 How many significant figures are there in 2.308 cm?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT a function under the Twelfth Schedule of the
Constitution?
Ans 1. Public health

2. Foreign trade promotion

3. Urban poverty alleviation

4. Urban planning

Q.11 What does Ctrl + F help users to do?
Ans 1. Find a file on the desktop

2. Forward an email

3. Find text in the current document or webpage

4. Format the document

Q.12 Who was appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner of India in February 2025?
Ans 1. Sunil Arora

2. Sushil Chandra

3. Gyanesh Kumar

4. Rajiv Kumar

Q.13 Who among the following Delhi sultans accidentally died during a game of polo in the
year 1210?
Ans 1. Qutbuddin Aibak

2. Jalaluddin Khilji

3. Firuz Shah Tughluq

4. Ibrahim Lodi

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Q.14 Kartik Aaryan won the Best Performance in a Leading Role (Male) award at the 25th IIFA
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Awards held in March 2025 at Jaipur for his performance in which of the following

. films?
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Ans 1. Chandu Champion

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2. Shehzada

3. Satyaprem Ki Katha
a
4. Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3

Q.15 The February 2025 Technology Adoption Fund launched by IN‑SPACe has earmarked
__________ to support private space start‑ups.
Ans 1. ₹100 crore

2. ₹1,000 crore

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3. ₹500 crore
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4. ₹250 crore

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Q.16 This revolutionary freedom fighter co-founded the Hindustan Socialist Republican

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Association in 1928. Along with B K Dutt, he threw a bomb in the Central Legislative

ag
Assembly in 1929. He was tried and executed at the age of 23, along with
revolutionaries Sukhdev Thapar and Shivaram Rajguru. The freedom fighter is:
Ans 1. Ramprasad Bismil

2. Bhagat Singh

3. Uddham Singh

4. Chandrasekhar Azad

Q.17 The Inter-State Council is constituted under which Article?
Ans 1. Article 263
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2. Article 368
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3. Article 280
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4. Article 346
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Q.18
a
Clean cooking fuel is essential for rural women’s health and environmental
sustainability. Which scheme provides LPG connections to women in BPL households?
Ans 1. Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin

2. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

3. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

4. Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana

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Q.19 In which city was the agreement signed in March 2025 to resolve the border dispute
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between Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan?
Ans 1. Batken
e m
e m l as
l as 2. Bishkek

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3. Osh

a 4. Dushanbe

Q.20 If we derive an expression for velocity, its dimension should be ________.
Ans 1. M0L1T1

2. M L−1T –2

3. M−1L1T −1

4. M0L1T −1

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s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 19 of 48

Q.21 Which of the following processes is absent in C4 plants?
Ans 1. Transpiration

2. Photorespiration

3. Photosynthesis

4. Respiration

Q.22 Which valuable tree grows mainly in the western Himalayas and is used in
construction?
Ans 1. Magnolia

2. Rhododendron

3. Cinchona

4. Deodar

Q.23 Which of the following is cited as evidence for a highly centralised administration in the
Indus-Sarasvati civilisation?
Ans 1. Elaborate royal tombs

2. Absence of seals and standard script

3. Standardised weights and measures

4. Monumental palaces and temples

Q.24 Which non-constitutional body investigates corruption complaints against public
servants?
Ans 1. Finance Commission

2. Lokpal

3. Election Commission

4. Union Public Service Commission

Q.25 Which Indian Army officer has written the book titled ‘Ready, Relevant and Resurgent: A
Blueprint for the Transformation of India’s Military’, which was unveiled by the Defence
Minister Rajnath Singh in May 2025?
Ans 1. CDS General Anil Chauhan

2. Lieutenant General NS Raja Subramani

3. Lieutenant General Rajiv Ghai

4. General Upendra Dwivedi

Q.26 The brothers Sidhu and Kanhu were the leaders of which of the following tribal
uprisings?
Ans 1. Koya revolts

2. Santhal Rebellion

3. Kol Mutiny

4. Ho uprising

Q.27 Which of the following is/are an ancient set of inscriptions, promoting moral values and
governance principles and is considered one of the earliest written records in Indian
history?
Ans 1. Arthashastra

2. Upanishads

3. Vedas

4. Edicts of Ashoka

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Q.28 Which of the following human activities contributes the most to the increase in
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atmospheric carbon dioxide levels?

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Ans 1. Construction of dams
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2. Burning of fossil fuels

3. Use of fertilisers in agriculture
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4. Afforestation

Q.29 Which of the following organisations developed the nanoporous multilayered polymeric
membrane for high-pressure seawater desalination in May 2025?
Ans 1. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

2. Department of Science and Technology (DST)

3. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
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4. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
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Q.30
m .co
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, allows juveniles aged
s em
s e
16-18 to be tried as adults in cases of:
l a
Ans 1. theft
l a ag
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2. drug abuse

3. cybercrime

4. heinous crimes

Q.31 According to constitutional provisions, what is the maximum permissible size of a State
Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister?
Ans 1. 20% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly

2. No specific limit is defined
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3. 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly

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4. 10% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly
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Q.32
Ans 1. Rapid urbanisation ag
Which of the following is considered a major challenge to human development in India?

2. High foreign exchange reserves

3. Increasing digital infrastructure

4. Persistent regional disparities

Q.33 During the colonial period, the services sector accounted for only _____.
Ans 1. 22-29%

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2. 5-10%
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3. 15-20%

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4. 25-32%

g l a
g l a Q.34 In which of the following years was the first thermal power plant of the Calcutta Electric a
a Ans
Supply Corporation Limited commissioned?
1. 1909

2. 1916

3. 1925

4. 1899

Q.35 Which among the following state lies in the south of the Great Indian Desert?

m .
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Gujarat
.co s e m
3. Uttar Pradesh
s em l a
4. Haryana
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.36 Where was Exercise Dharma Guardian, 2025, held?
Ans 1. Pune, India

2. New Delhi, India

3. East Fuji, Japan

4. Tokyo, Japan

Q.37 Which Indian airport secured a position among the top 10 hub airports in the Asia-
Pacific and Middle East region in the 2024 ACI Hub Connectivity Rankings?
Ans 1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport

2. Chennai International Airport

3. Kempegowda International Airport

4. Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA)

Q.38 Who among the following won a maiden Italian Open title in May 2025 by
defeating world No. 1 Jannik Sinner in Rome?
Ans 1. Daniil Medvedev

2. Novak Djokovic

3. Carlos Alcaraz

4. Rafael Nadal

Q.39 To harden the steel, which material is required in the steel industry?
Ans 1. Mica

2. Manganese

3. Limestone

4. Bauxite

Q.40 Lala Lajpat Rai, Indian revolutionary politician and author was also recognised by which
of the following title?
Ans 1. Mahamana

2. Tilak of Punjab

3. Deshbandhu

4. Punjab Kesari

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 If the marked price of a book is ₹900, then find the selling price of the book after getting
discount of 13%.
Ans 1. ₹891

2. ₹789

3. ₹783

4. ₹889

Q.2 The average of three numbers is 20. If two of them are 18 and 28, the third number is:
Ans 1. 15

2. 16

3. 14

4. 13

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Q.3 An amount of ₹638 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 4. The
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difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:

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Ans 1. 76
s e m
m a
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2. 110

3. 157
ag
4. 174

Q.4 2 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days, while 4 women can do it in 6 days. In
how many days can 6 women and 9 men complete this work?
Ans 1. 1 day

2. 2 days

3. 3 days
m
4. 4 days
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Q.5
m .co
If 2 times Mary’s present age is 20 years more than 6 times Diya's present age, and 5
s em
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times Diya's present age is 6 years less than Mary's present age, then what is the
l a
a ag
difference (in years) between the ages of Mary and Diya?
l
ag
Ans 1. 15

2. 18

3. 16

4. 14

Q.6 Anaya has to reach Hyderabad which is 574 km away in 18 hours. His starting speed for
11 hours was 36 km/hr. For the next 136 km his speed was 34 km/hr. By what speed he
must travel now so as to reach Hyderabad in the decided time of 18 hours?

m
Ans 1. 8 km/hr

2. 14 km/hr

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3. 9 km/hr
s e
4. 20 km/hr
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Q.7
a

Ans 1. ₹37,783

2. ₹37,791

3. ₹37,784

4. ₹37,794
m
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.co m
Q.8 Find the mean proportional between 18 and 32.
Ans
m 1. 24
s e
s e g l a
a
2. 21

g l a
a
3. 26

4. 23

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s em l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 23 of 48

Q.9

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 2
months.
Ans 1. ₹96

2. ₹16

3. ₹28

4. ₹8

Q.11 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 40. In the next 10 matches, the
batsman scored an average of 14 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to
two decimal places) in all 33 matches.
Ans 1. 32.12

2. 33.12

3. 31.12

4. 34.12

Q.12 Pipe A can fill a tank in 16 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 26 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 16 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13

Ans 1. -50

2. -40

3. -37

4. -32

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Q.14 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 24 and 288, respectively. If one of the
m
numbers is 72, find the other one.

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Ans 1. 10
s e m
m a
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2. 20

3. 170
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4. 96

Q.15 The LCM of 23 × 72 × 12, 22 × 122 × 18 and 73 × 122 × 182 is:
Ans 1. 27 x 35 x 73

2. 27 x 36 x 74

3. 27 x 36 x 73

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4. 27 x 36 x 72
m
Q.16

m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Ans 1. 141x − 116

2. −141x − 116

3. 141x + 116

4. −141x + 116

Q.17 A trader claims to sell vegetables at a profit of 52%, but also dishonestly uses a weight
which is 8% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit earned
by the trader. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
Ans
m
1.

2.

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3.
s e
4.
g la
Q.18
a
A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 1100 cm2. If the length of the rod is
29 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:

Ans 1. 5.53

2. 4.72

m
3. 6.03

m
4. 8.17
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m.co s e m
a
Q.19

s e g l
g l a Ans
1.
a
a
2.

3.

m .
4.

.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 25 of 48

Q.20 If the length, breadth and height of a room are 10.5 m, 8.5 m and 11 m, respectively, then
what is the area (in m2) of the four walls of the room?
Ans 1. 414

2. 418

3. 416

4. 412

Q.21 If the measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon is 140°, then the number of its
diagonals will be:
Ans 1. 25

2. 16

3. 27

4. 20

Q.22 Ritik and Sanjay together invested ₹77,600 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a
total profit of ₹19,000, Sanjay's share was ₹7,600. What was the difference between their
investments?
Ans 1. ₹14,343

2. ₹15,520

3. ₹15,928

4. ₹16,401

Q.23 In an election between two candidates, 96% of the registered voters cast their vote and
15% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 80% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 1224 votes. How many voters were
registered?
Ans 1. 2503

2. 2501

3. 2500

4. 2502

Q.24 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 24?
Ans 1. 73,40,390

2. 68,30,908

3. 71,32,968

4. 79,91,987

Q.25 Pallavi bought a toy for ₹322, decorated it at a cost of ₹6 and sold the toy for ₹398. Find
the loss or profit percentage.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.26 If the 6-digit number N73M10 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
m
a possible correct relation between M and N?

. co
Ans 1. M + N = 3
s e m
m a
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2. M - N = -3

3. M = N
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4. M - N = 1

Q.27 A number when increased by 100% gives 2730. The number is:
Ans 1. 2730

2. 4095

3. 1365

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4. 682.5

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Q.28
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Ritesh and Gauri have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Ritesh is

m
driving at 150 km/hr while Gauri is driving at 60 km/hr. Find the time taken by Gauri to
s em
s e
reach Kanpur if Ritesh takes 8 hours.
l a
Ans 1. 20 hours
l a ag
ag
2. 17 hours

3. 14 hours

4. 30 hours

Q.29 A shopkeeper offers a scheme discount of 20% and an additional 5% discount if
payment is made in cash. What is the total discount percentage on ₹1,000?
Ans 1. 23%

2. 26%
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3. 24%

4. 25%
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Q.30
g
The cost of 19 pens and 13 pencils is ₹254. If the cost of a pen decreases by ₹6 and the
a
cost of a pencil increases by ₹9, then the cost of 14 pens and 2 pencils is ₹106. What is
the original cost of 12 pens and 15 pencils?
Ans 1. ₹171

2. ₹173

3. ₹174

4. ₹175

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
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Q.1 Seven people, I, J, K, L, U, V and W are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only three people sit to the left of V. Only I sits to the right of U. Only three people sit
e m
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between U and W. J sits at some place to the left of K but at some place to the right of L.

l as
l asAns
How many people sit between L and K?
1. One
ag
ag 2. Three

3. Two

4. Four

Q.2 MKOJ is related to SQUP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, KIMH is related to QOSN. To which of the following is HFJE related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. LNKP

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2. NLPK

e m
3. LNPK

em l as
4. NLKP
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 27 of 48

Q.3 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

32 + 4 × 2 − 6 ÷ 9 = ?
Ans 1. 84

2. 81

3. 83

4. 82

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘always on time’ is written as ‘aj tj tr’ and ‘time is precious’ is
coded as ‘lo tr mo’. How is ‘time’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. lo

2. tr

3. mo

4. aj

Q.5 If 1 is subtracted from each odd digit of the number 86071452 and then the digits are
arranged in ascending order, find the sum of the digits, which are repeated more than
once in the new number formed.
Ans 1. 10

2. 11

3. 13

4. 8

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

33 , 34 , 36 , 40 , 48 , ?
Ans 1. 65

2. 64

3. 56

4. 45

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘music is therapy’ is written as ‘ak bj jo’ and ‘stop the music’
is coded as ‘tu mt jo’. How is ‘music’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. mt

2. ak

3. tu

4. jo

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

4 12 28 52 84 ?
Ans 1. 125

2. 124

3. 130

4. 120

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

DKS ELT FMU GNV ?
Ans 1. ROX

2. ROW

3. HOW

4. HOX

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m
.co
Q.10 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
. co (Left) 256 987 325 489 723 (Right)

s e m
m a
se l
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
ag
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 16

2. 10

3. 14

4. 12

m
.co
Q.11 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs

m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

.co m
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
m s e
e
position in the letter-cluster.)

s l a
a ag
Ans 1. FH-KD
l
2. MO-RL

3. IK-NG
ag
4. CE-HA

Q.12 Seven people, B, C, D, E, F, G and L, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. Only three people sit between B and F when counted from the left of B.
Only three people sit between D and E when counted from the right of E. G sits to the
immediate right of D. C is an immediate neighbour of E as well as F. Who sits to the
second to the left of L?
Ans 1. F
m
2. E
m .co
3. C
s e
4. B
g la
Q.13
a
If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
3851764, what will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second
from the right?
Ans 1. 12

2. 6

3. 10

4. 8
m
m .co
.co
Q.14 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
e m
e mbelong to that group?

l as
s
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

l a position in the letter-cluster.)
ag
ag Ans 1. OQ -TV

2. VX-AC

3. GI-LM

4. KM-PR

Q.15 In a row of 163 students facing north, Mr. Maxi is 89th from the left end. If Mr. Han is 2nd
to the right of Mr. Maxi, what is Mr. Han's position from the right end of the line?
Ans 1. 72nd

m .
.co m
2. 75th

s e
em
rd
3. 73

s l a
la ag
4. 74th

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Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some trees are plants.
Some plants are graphs.

Conclusions:
(I): Some trees are graphs.
(II): All graphs are plants.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.17 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

DIMS - SIDM - IMDS
COLT - TOCL - OLCT
Ans 1. GUYS - SUGY - YUGS

2. FROG - GRFO - ROFG

3. TIME - ITME - EIMT

4. FOUR - FUOR - RUOF

Q.18 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, K, L and O, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only D is kept above C. Only L is kept between C and B. Only A is kept
below K. How many boxes are kept between O and A?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four

Q.19 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

KFU-15 IIQ-22 ? EOI-42 CRE-55
Ans 1. HGL-31

2. KJG-32

3. KLJ-30

4. GLM-31

Q.20 Alexander starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the south. He then takes a left
turn and drives 4 km, then turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and
drives 9 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km to the east

2. 3 km to the east

3. 2 km to the east

4. 4 km to the east

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m
.co
Q.21 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. JM-QG
ag
2. EH-LC

3. LO-SJ

4. OR-VM

Q.22 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
FEI−HGK
YXB−AZD
m
.co
Ans 1. WVZ−YXB
m
.co m
2. SRV−TTW

m s e
3. SQT−UTX

s e l a
4. SQT−TSW
l a ag
Q.23 ag
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(46, 41, 26)
(77, 72, 57)
Ans 1. (59, 54, 34)
m
.co
2. (93, 88, 83)

3. (81, 71, 61)
e m
4. (62, 57, 42)
las
Q.24 ag
Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) # 3 % 7 $ 5 * & 4 β 9 Ω 4 9 μ 8 @ $ 1 π 3 (Right)

How many such symbols are there that are immediately preceded by a number and also
immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. Three

2. Five

m
.co
3. One

m
.co m
4. Six

m s e
s e
Q.25 Geeta starts from Point P and drives 6 km towards south. Then, she takes a right turn,
g l a
g l a drives 8 km, turns right again and drives 10 km. She then takes a right turn and drives
12 km. Then, she takes a left turn and drives 2 km; she takes a left turn again and drives a
a 4 km and stops at Point Q. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should she drive in order to reach Point P again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only,
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 8 km towards south

2. 4 km towards north

3. 4 km towards south

4. 6 km towards south

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.26 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All beds are pillows.
Some beds are curtains.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pillows are curtains.
(II) Some curtains are beds.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.27 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

14 16 20 28 44 ?
Ans 1. 83

2. 76

3. 96

4. 63

Q.28 A is the brother of H. H is the father of R. R is the daughter of M. G is the father of M.
How is A related to M?
Ans 1. Daughter's husband's brother

2. Husband's father

3. Husband's brother

4. Daughter's husband's father

Q.29 If 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number 36719542, then what will be the
product of digits that are repeated more than once in the new number formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 5

3. 15

4. 3

Q.30 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only four boxes are kept between A and D. Only F is kept above A. Only two
boxes are kept between B and C. E is kept immediately above G. C is not kept
immediately above E. How many boxes are kept above E?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 22/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 China deployed a sophisticated Large Phased Array Radar (LPAR) system near the
__________ raising concerns over increased surveillance capabilities.
Ans 1. India-Bangladesh border

2. India-Nepal border

3. India-Bhutan border

4. India-Myanmar border

m
Q.2
.co
What is the correct order of the three-tier Panchayati Raj structure from bottom to top in
India?
m
Ans 1. Panchayat Samiti – Gram Panchayat – Zila Parishad
s e
2. Gram Sabha – Gram Panchayat – Zila Parishad
g la
a
3. Gram Panchayat – Panchayat Samiti – Zila Parishad

4. Zila Parishad – Panchayat Samiti – Gram Panchayat

Q.3 How did the Industrial Revolution alter the British economic interests in India?
Ans 1. From taxes to feudal rule

2. From plantations to nomadic life

3. From control to cultural ties
m
m .co
4. From trade to industry and raw material use

Q.4
m.co
Which among the following South Indian kingdoms is known for the conquest that
s e m
s e crossed the river Ganga in the north?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Pandyas
a
a 2. Pallava

3. Chalukya

4. Chola

Q.5 Which chemical process results in the formation of plaque on copper, the rusting of
iron and the blackening of silver?
Ans 1. Flocculation

2. Extrusion
m .
.co m
3. Corrosion

s e
4. Encapsulation

s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 Which of the following sectors employed the largest share of India’s population before
independence?
Ans 1. Industry

2. Agriculture

3. Services

4. Trade

Q.7 Which type of rural settlement is most common in the northeastern states and Northern
Plains of India?
Ans 1. Dispersed

2. Semi-clustered

3. Hamleted

4. Clustered

Q.8 Which of the following players was awarded with National Sports award 2024 in the field
of Para-Badminton in January 2025?
Ans 1. Nithya Sre Sumathy Sivan

2. Saina Nehwal

3. PV Sindhu

4. S Muralidharan

Q.9 Which of the following correctly describes the impact of 1991 reforms on agricultural
exports?
Ans 1. Export promotion was encouraged through de-regulation.

2. Export restrictions were imposed to ensure food security.

3. Agricultural exports were completely banned.

4. Only wheat and rice were allowed for export.

Q.10 Which of the following are main subsystems of the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
Ans 1. Arithmetic Unit, Memory Unit and Output Unit

2. Control Unit, Arithmetic Unit and Logic Unit

3. Arithmetic Unit, Graphics Unit and Control Bus

4. Logic Unit, Input Unit and Storage Unit

Q.11 Which law is most frequently applied when calculating the electric field, particularly
when high symmetry is present?
Ans 1. Faraday's Law

2. Coulomb's law

3. Gauss's Law

4. Lenz's Law

Q.12 Which of the following refers to the newer and younger deposits of the floodplains in
the Northern Plains of India, which are renewed almost every year and are therefore
very fertile?
Ans 1. Terai

2. Bhangar

3. Kankar

4. Khadar

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.co
Q.13 Which of the following athletes set a new record in triple jump with a 15.66 m leap at the
m
2025 Khelo India Youth Games in May 2025?

. co
Ans 1. Qadir Khan
s e m
m a
se l
2. Animesh Kujur

3. Tushar Chaudhary
ag
4. Sheikh Zeeshan

Q.14 Which of the following groups is provided support under the One-Stop Centre (OSC)
scheme?
Ans 1. Only women from a specific caste or religion

2. Only women working in government offices

3. Only married women in urban areas
m
m
4. All women and girls below 18 years of age affected by violence
.co
Q.15
m .co
Exercise Desert Hunt 2025, an integrated tri-service special forces exercise was
s em
s e
conducted by the Indian Air Force at which of the following stations?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Airforce station at Jodhpur
ag
ag
2. Airforce station at Gandhi Nagar

3. Airforce station at Prayagraj

4. Airforce station at Agra

Q.16 Who was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2025 for his leadership
in Indian hockey?
Ans 1. Rupinder Pal Singh

2. PR Sreejesh
m
.co
3. Manpreet Singh

4. Harmanpreet Singh
e m
las
Q.17
g
Which Amendment of the Citizenship Act introduced the provision that an illegal
a
migrant cannot acquire citizenship by naturalisation or registration?
Ans 1. 2015 Amendment

2. 1986 Amendment

3. 2005 Amendment

4. 2003 Amendment

Q.18 The Santhal Revolt of 1855-56 was against which groups along with the British
officials?
m
.co
Ans 1. Zamindars and moneylenders
m
.co m
2. French traders

m s e
s e 3. Afghan invaders

g l a
g l a 4. Marathas and Nawabs
a
a Q.19 According to the report titled “India Revives ₹44,000 Crore Plan to Boost Defence
Manufacturing”, published in 2025, what is the primary purpose of this plan?
Ans 1. Enhancing cyber defence capabilities

2. Safeguarding ports and trade routes

3. Developing fifth-generation fighter jets

4. Acquiring advanced radar systems

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 35 of 48

Q.20 Which Act first recognised the political and administrative functions of the East India
Company in India?
Ans 1. Charter Act 1813

2. Pitt’s India Act 1784

3. Government of India Act 1858

4. Regulating Act 1773

Q.21 The government tracks the performance of eight core industries to monitor industrial
activity. What is the approximate weight of the core industries in the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP)?
Ans 1. 30%

2. 40%

3. 20%

4. 45%

Q.22 In which of the following years was the monetary policy framework moved towards
flexible inflation targeting and a six member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
constituted for setting the policy rate?
Ans 1. 1992

2. 2016

3. 2013

4. 1998

Q.23 You want to create a file called "Notes.txt". Which tool would you use?

Ans 1. Calculator

2. Paint

3. Windows Media Player

4. Notepad

Q.24 The Indus River system includes all of the following rivers EXCEPT:
Ans 1. Sutlej

2. Godavari

3. Ravi

4. Jhelum

Q.25 Where was the 2025 Global Artificial Intelligence Summit & Awards (GAISA) held?
Ans 1. Bengaluru International Exhibition Centre

2. Taj Palace, New Delhi

3. Pragati Maidan, New Delhi

4. Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi

Q.26 In May 2025, Union Home Minister Amit Shah laid the foundation stone for the
permanent campus of the National Forensic Sciences University (NFSU) in Nagpur. At
which location did this ceremony take place?
Ans 1. Mouza Chicholi, Kamptee tehsil, Nagpur district

2. Swasthi Nivas, Nagpur

3. Vishwas Cell, Nagpur University

4. Subhash Nagar, Nagpur

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.co
Q.27 Which of the following options best defines 'Sustainable Development'?
m
co
Ans 1. Industrialisation without any restrictions

. e m
m 2. Maximising profits from natural resources
as
se 3. Using only renewable resources
ag l
4. Development that meets present needs without compromising future generations

Q.28 The 2025 Sheikh Zayed Book Award recognised which author as the Cultural
Personality of the Year?
Ans 1. Nairithi Konduru

2. Haruki Murakami

3. Sophie Elmhirst

m
.co
4. Michael Crummey

m
Q.29
.co
In 2025, which state achieved a major infrastructure milestone with the support of Indo-
foreign collaboration?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Gujarat

l a
ag
2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Rajasthan

Q.30 Which ISRO mission, in collaboration with JAXA, aims to explore the Moon's polar
regions?
Ans 1. Chandrayaan-4

2. Lunar Polar Exploration Mission

m
.co
3. Shukrayaan

4. Chandrayaan-5

e m
Q.31
las
In 2022, which of the following states made headlines for having discovered the oldest

Ans
Iron Age site in the Indian subcontinent?
1. Gujarat ag
2. Tamil Nadu

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Meghalaya

Q.32 Which of the following authors penned the novel "Midnight's Children," famous for its
fusion of historical narratives with elements of magical realism?
Ans 1. Rohinton Mistry
m
m
2. Vikram Seth
.co
m.co 3. Arundhati Roy
s e m
s e 4. Salman Rushdie
g l a
g l a a
a Q.33
Ans
What types of climate and vegetation characterise the Taiga natural region?
1. Arid deserts with cactus

2. Cold climate with coniferous forests

3. Flood-prone swamp areas

4. Dense tropical vegetation

Q.34 In May 2025, IBM and TCS partnered with Andhra Pradesh to build the “Quantum Valley
Tech Park” in __________.
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Srikakulam

s e
em
2. East Godavari

s l a
la ag
3. Kakinada


4. Amaravati
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.35 One of the largest terminals in the world, Terminal-3 of the Indira Gandhi International
Airport (IGIA), was inaugurated in which year with a capacity to handle up to 40 million
passengers annually?
Ans 1. 2010

2. 2005

3. 2020

4. 2015

Q.36 In angiosperms, which of the following organs represents the male reproductive part of
a flower?
Ans 1. Gynoecium

2. Petals

3. Androecium

4. Sepals

Q.37 Yakshagana is a folk theatre form from which of the following States of India?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Gujarat

Q.38 The provisions for salaries and emoluments of constitutional authorities are mentioned
in which Schedule?
Ans 1. Ninth Schedule

2. Second Schedule

3. Seventh Schedule

4. Third Schedule

Q.39 Which state has special constitutional provisions to protect its tribal customs and laws
under Article 371A?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Nagaland

3. Mizoram

4. Tripura

Q.40 The world's first Pandemic Agreement was adopted during which session of the World
Health Assembly held in May 2025?
Ans 1. 77th World Health Assembly

2. 76th World Health Assembly

3. 78th World Health Assembly

4. 79th World Health Assembly

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 4 times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 19 years. After 5 years, 3
times the age of Q will be 27 years less than 9 the age of P. The present age of Q is (in
years):
Ans 1. 63

2. 58

3. 66

4. 61

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m
.co
Q.2
m
. co s e m
m Ans 1.
a
se 2.
ag l
3.

4.

Q.3 P, Q and R invest a sum in the ratio of 59 : 14 : 72, respectively. If they earned a total
profit of ₹4,790 at the end of the year, what is the difference between the shares of Q
and R?
Ans 1. ₹2,022

2. ₹1,836
m
3. ₹1,966
m .co
4. ₹1,916
m .co s em
s e l a
Q.4
l a ag
Ans 1. 6.03 ag
2. 15.54

3. 8.24

4. 8.55

Q.5

m
.co
Ans 1. 22 cm

2. 25 cm

e m
3. 36 cm

las
4. 28 cm
ag
Q.6 Anjani can do a certain piece of work in 30 days. Anjani and Khushbu can together do
the same work in 10 days, and Anjani, Khushbu and Sushmita can do the same work
together in 9 days. In how many days can Anjani and Sushmita do the same work
together?
Ans
1.

2.
m
m .co
m.co s e m
a
3.

s e g l
g l a a
a 4.

Q.7 The number of prime numbers lying between 488 and 494, both included, is:
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 1

4. 2
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.8 Find the surface area of a sphere whose diameter is equal to 54 cm.
Ans 1. 3865π cm2

2. 2386π cm2

3. 3651π cm2

4. 2916π cm2

Q.9 The income of Raman is ₹86,400. He saves 22.5% of his income. If his income increases
by 22% and expenditure increases by 25%, then his savings will:
Ans 1. decrease by ₹2,271

2. increase by ₹2,268

3. increase by ₹2,273

4. decrease by ₹2,263

Q.10 Diya has to reach Surat which is 811 km away in 14 hours. His starting speed for 5
hours was 91 km/hr. For the next 84 km his speed was 84 km/hr. By what speed he must
travel now so as to reach Surat in the decided time of 14 hours?
Ans 1. 38 km/hr

2. 39 km/hr

3. 35 km/hr

4. 34 km/hr

Q.11 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 7.5% per annum rate of interest deposited on
5 February 2024 and withdrawn on 6 April 2024.
Ans 1. 49

2. 51

3. 50

4. 48

Q.12 A number, when increased by 60%, gives 3600. The number is:
Ans 1. 4500

2. 6750

3. 2250

4. 1125

Q.13 The average of first 165 even numbers is
Ans 1. 166

2. 167

3. 165.5

4. 166.5

Q.14 An article is marked for ₹720. If two successive discounts of 10% and 15% are allowed
for sale, then the selling price of the article is:
Ans 1. ₹597.60

2. ₹550.80

3. ₹468

4. ₹489.60

Q.15 What sum of money (in ₹) will amount to ₹2,400 at 5% per annum simple interest in 4
years?
Ans 1. ₹1,950

2. ₹2,000

3. ₹12,000

4. ₹2,050
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m
.co
Q.16 The average price of three items of furniture is ₹16,005. If their prices are in the ratio 3 :
m
5 : 7, the price of the cheapest item (in ₹) is:

. co
Ans 1. 9,603
s e m
m a
se l
2. 5,335

3. 3,201
ag
4. 7,469

Q.17 Anil bought some pens at the rate of ₹150 a dozen. He sold them for ₹45 each. His profit
percentage is ______%.
Ans 1. 258

2. 260

3. 262
m
4. 264
m .co
Q.18 −2
m
7.co −10
s em
Find the value of 83

s e
÷ 83 × 83 .
l a
a ag
Ans 1. 83−19
l
2. 83−20

3. 83−16
ag
4. 83−14

Q.19 The product of two consecutive positive natural numbers is 930. The greater of the two
numbers is:
Ans 1. 29

2. 32

m
.co
3. 33

m
4. 31

s e
Q.20 Simplify x(7x − 2) + 5(x2 − 3) + 13.
g la
Ans 2
1. 12x − 2x + 2 a
2. −12x2 − 2x − 2

3. 12x2 − 2x − 2

4. −12x2 − 2x + 2

Q.21 Arjun and Malaika have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Arjun is
driving at 66 km/hr while Malaika is driving at 99 km/hr. Find the time taken by Malaika
to reach Kanpur if Arjun takes 3 hours.

m
.co
Ans 1. 2 hours

m
.co
2. 4 hours

e m
e m 3. 12 hours

l as
l as 4. 11 hours
ag
ag Q.22 An electronics retailer offers two successive discounts of 7% and 10% on a TV priced at
₹48,000. What is the difference in the final price after applying two successive
discounts compared to applying a flat discount of 17%?
Ans 1. ₹327

2. ₹312

3. ₹318

4. ₹336

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.23 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 60°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 20°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 58°

2. 50°

3. 46°

4. 54°

Q.24 What smallest number should be added to 71079 so that the sum is completely divisible
by 23?
Ans 1. 15

2. 13

3. 9

4. 14

Q.25 M and N start a business. M invests ₹24,000 more than N for 3 months and N invests for
4 months. M's share is ₹962 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹7,696. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹57,424

2. ₹57,692

3. ₹57,626

4. ₹57,600

Q.26 Pipe A can fill a tank in 19 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 21 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 8 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.27 Which of the following numbers divides 934725?
Ans 1. 6

2. 2

3. 10

4. 3

Q.28 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 50% above its cost price and offers a 30%
discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹175, then what is the list price (in ₹) of
the fan?
Ans 1. 5,040

2. 5,250

3. 5,021

4. 5,088

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m
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Q.29 Find the mean proportional between 22 and 88.
m
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Ans 1. 47

. e m
m 2. 44
as
se 3. 46
ag l
4. 41

Q.30 The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 11 and 495, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 55, find the other one.
Ans 1. 99

2. 172

3. 21

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4. 181

m
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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
m s em
s e l a
ag
Q.1 Seven people, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north.

l a
Only three people sit to the left of R. Only A sits to the right of C. Only three people sit

ag
between C and Q. B sits at some place to the left of P but at some place to the right of D.
How many people sit between D and P?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘PICK’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘COST’ is coded as ‘2146’.
What is the code for ‘C’ in the given code language?
m
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Ans 1. 3

2. 1
e m
3. 6
las
4. 4
ag
Q.3 In a certain code language,
A # B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A % B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is C related to U if ‘C - O @ M # B % U’?
Ans 1. Mother

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2. Mother's mother
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3. Mother's sister

m s e
s e
4. Sister

g l a
g l a Q.4 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ anda
a ‘×’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

2 + 8 ÷ 84 − 7 × 27 = ?
Ans 1. 15

2. 31

3. 26

4. 21

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘CURE’ is coded as ‘8426’ and ‘THOU’ is coded as ‘5183’.
What is the code for ‘U’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 8

4. 3

Q.6 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

LUNG - UNLG - GNUL
FERN - ERFN - NREF
Ans 1. COIR - OICR - RIOC

2. SWAP - SAWP - PAWS

3. BAKE - AKBE - AKEB

4. CUTS - UCTS - SUTC

Q.7 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ORK

2. RUO

3. ILF

4. LOI

Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All laptops are computers.
Some laptops are desktops.

Conclusions:
(I): Some computers are desktops.
(II): Some desktops are laptops.
Ans 1. Only Conclusion I follows

2. Only Conclusion II follows

3. Both Conclusions I and II follow

4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Q.9 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

36 + 48 × 4 ÷ 5 − 3 = ?
Ans 1. 39

2. 47

3. 52

4. 43

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

94 ? 118 142 174 214
Ans 1. 102

2. 106

3. 112

4. 108
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.co
Q.11 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NJ-OL
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2. TP-US

3. QM-RO

4. KG-LI

Q.12 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
m
Statements:
m .co
.co m
All Steel are Nickel.
Some Nickel are Chromium.
m s e
s e l a
a ag
Conclusions:
l
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I: Some Steel are Chromium.
II: No Chromium are Steel.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.13 Samar ranked 39th from the top and 34th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
m
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Ans 1. 72

2. 74
e m
3. 71
las
4. 73
ag
Q.14 Ram starts his journey from point A and drives for 12 km towards the south. He then
turns right and drives for 7 km. He then turns left, drives for 5 km, then again turns left
and drives for 13 km, and then again turns left and drives for 9 km. He then turns left
and drives for 14 km. He takes a final right turn and drives for 8 km and stops. How far
(shortest distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach point A
again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 8 km towards the east

2. 8 km towards the north
m
m .co
3. 6 km towards the east

m.co 4. 5 km towards the east

s e m
s e g l a
a
Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the

g l English alphabetical order?
a
a RXY TTV ? XLP ZHM
Ans 1. VWZ

2. PDM

3. VPS

4. SRV

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.16 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 0 3 # π 2 σ Ω 9 $ # 4 8 9 % 1 & 5 @ 8 6 μ (Right)

How many such symbols are there, which are immediately preceded by a prime number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. None

4. Three

Q.17 Teena, Beena, Meera, Leena, Meenu and Reena are sitting around a circle, facing the
centre. Reena sits second to the left of Teena. Meenu sits third to the left of Reena.
Leena sits second to the left of Meera. Who sits second to the left of Beena?
Ans 1. Reena

2. Teena

3. Leena

4. Meera

Q.18 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

EYN : FAQ
GWA : HYD
Ans 1. JUF : KWI

2. SBL : TEM

3. TQH : WSI

4. OCR : PDS

Q.19 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 438 745 217 153 876 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 10

2. 12

3. 13

4. 11

Q.20 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RV-MP

2. NR-IL

3. KO-FI

4. IM-DH

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m
.co
Q.21 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
m
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

. co POST - OPST - PSTO
s e m
m a
se l
LITE - ILTE - LTEI
Ans 1. GANY - AGNY - GNYA
ag
2. HOST - OHST - OSTH

3. VAIN - VIAN - NIAV

4. MIND - IMND - DINM

Q.22 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
m
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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and

m
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(19, 374, 14)
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(47, 2230, 22)

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. (50, 2514, 15)
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2. (27, 744, 11)

3. (45, 2031, 2)

4. (4, 22, 2)

Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

750 755 745 750 740 745 735 ?
Ans 1. 740

2. 750
m
3. 735

m .co
4. 745
s e
g la
Q.24
a
Navish ranked 14th from the bottom and 17th from the top in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 28

2. 30

3. 27

4. 29

Q.25 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then the
m
.co
resultant of which of the following would be 18?
Ans
m
1. 45 D 6 B 8 C 42 A 2

m.co 2. 45 C 6 A 8 B 42 A 2
s e m
s e 3. 45 B 6 C 8 D 42 A 2
g l a
g l a 4. 45 A 6 B 8 D 42 C 2 a
a Q.26 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DKR 79, HOV 73, LSZ 67, PWD 61, TAH 55, ?
Ans 1. XEM 50

2. XEL 49

3. ZEL 51

m .
.co
4. XOL 53

e m
em l as
las ag
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Q.27 Vinay starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards North. He then takes a left turn,
drives 4 km, turns left and drives 11 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 6 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to west

2. 2 km to east

3. 3 km to east

4. 2 km to west

Q.28 Seven boxes V, W, X, Y, Z, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only four boxes are kept between Z and Y. Only X is kept above Z. Only two
boxes are kept between W and V. R is kept immediately above Q. V is not kept
immediately above R. Which box is kept fourth from the top?
Ans 1. W

2. R

3. Q

4. Y

Q.29 Each of the digits in the number 8127365 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 8

3. 6

4. 7

Q.30 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 13 21 33 49 ?
Ans 1. 69

2. 70

3. 75

4. 67

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