RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 28 Aug (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 28 Aug

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 28/08/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following Constitutional provisions can be amended by an ordinary Act of
Parliament (simple majority), rather than through the special procedure under Article
368?
Ans 1. Article 2 (Parliament may by law admit new states)

2. Article 356 (President’s Rule in states)

3. Article 368 (the Amendment procedure itself)

4. Article 14 (equality before law)
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Q.2
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Which shortcut key opens System Settings quickly in Windows 10/11? .co
Ans 1. Alt + F4
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2. Ctrl + Alt + Del
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3. Windows + D a
4. Windows + I

Q.3 Which book written in Kannada received the 2025 International Booker Prize?
Ans 1. The Girl with the Seven Lives

2. Diotima

3. Heart Lamp
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4. Cascades

Q.4
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Through which of the following states do the Western Ghats pass?
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Ans 1. Punjab
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4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.5 Which of the following agencies collaborated on India’s first Quantum Key Distribution
over a Multi-Core Fibre in 2025?
Ans 1. CSIR & ISRO

2. DRDO & IIT-B

3. C-DOT & Sterlite Technologies Ltd.
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4. NIC & BEL
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Q.6 Article 371A of the Indian Constitution grants special provisions for the state of
____________.
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Rajasthan

3. Nagaland

4. Kerala

Q.7 The famous slogan "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it " was given by _______.
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3. Subhas Chandra Bose

4. Dadabhai Naoroji

Q.8 During 1950–1990, India mainly exported which type of goods?
Ans 1. Automobiles

2. Primary products

3. Capital goods

4. Crude oil

Q.9 During the Chola rule, which of the following was the land donated to Jaina
institutions?
Ans 1. Pallichchhandam

2. Tirunamattukkani

3. Shalabhoga

4. Vellanvagai

Q.10 Which of the following indicators is NOT directly included in the calculation of the
Human Development Index (HDI)?
Ans 1. Life expectancy at birth

2. Infant mortality rate

3. Mean years of schooling

4. Gross National Income per capita

Q.11 In April 2025, DOT announced funding of two specialised national testbeds for 6G R&D.
One focuses on THz communication; which domain does the other explore?
Ans 1. Visible‑light communication

2. Satellite backhaul

3. Advanced optical communication

4. Quantum key distribution

Q.12 Proteins are mainly responsible for which of the following?
Ans 1. Providing quick energy

2. Growth and repair of tissues

3. Improving digestion

4. Enhancing memory power

Q.13 Where was the bilateral naval exercise SLINEX 24 conducted between India and Sri
Lanka in December 2024?
Ans 1. Visakhapatnam

2. Colombo

3. Kochi

4. Chennai

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Q.14 Why is canal irrigation more suitable in the northern plains of India?
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Ans 1. The rivers flow only during monsoon season.

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4. The flat land and perennial rivers support canal networks.

Q.15 Which of the following pollutants is/are primarily responsible for causing acid rain?
Ans 1. Carbon monoxide

2. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides

3. Methane

4. Ozone
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Q.16 Which of the following events is known as India's biggest multi-sport national
competition?
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1. Khelo India Youth Games
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2. National Games
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3. Pro Kabaddi League

4. Indian Premier League

Q.17 Which acid and its salts are widely used as food preservatives to prevent the growth of
mould, yeast and fungi?
Ans 1. Perchloric acid

2. Boric Acid

3. Malic acid
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4. Sorbic acid

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Q.18
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Who among the following has been appointed as the International Trade Negotiator by
China in April 2025?
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Ans 1. Li Chenggang
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2. Jiang Zaidong

3. Xu Feihong

4. Wang Shouwen

Q.19 Which Indian athlete set a new national record in the 200m sprint at the 2025 Asian
Athletics Championships?
Ans 1. Animesh Kujur

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2. Gurindervir Singh
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3. Amlan Borgohain

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4. Amiya Mallick

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a Ans 1. It gets deleted.

2. It goes to the Taskbar.

3. It opens the application or file.

4. It minimizes the window.

Q.21 Which leader founded the Servants of India Society to train Indians for national service
and political awareness?

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Ans 1. BR Ambedkar

2. Motilal Nehru
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3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
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4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
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Q.22 Chilika Lake and Pulicat Lake are located in which of the following?
Ans 1. West Coast of India

2. Malabar Coast

3. Konkan Coast

4. East Coast of India

Q.23 Which of the following sectors has been classified as infrastructure by the Government
of India for improved financing access?
Ans 1. Warehousing

2. Education

3. Apparel

4. Retail

Q.24 Who among the following threw 19.59 m to bag Silver medal in Shot Put at Asian U-18
Athletics Championship in April 2025?
Ans 1. Anuragh G

2. VS Anupriya

3. Vidhi

4. Nishchay

Q.25 What was the capital of Awadh when it was established in 1722?
Ans 1. Faizabad

2. Bareilly

3. Gorakhpur

4. Fatehpur

Q.26 Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis in plants?
Ans 1. Mitochondria

2. Chloroplast

3. Leucoplast

4. Chromoplast

Q.27 Why does a diverse society need a constitution?
Ans 1. To impose religious uniformity

2. To eliminate all differences

3. To provide basic rules for coordination and assurance

4. To allow rulers to dominate others

Q.28 Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) is a premier S&T organisation under which of
the following ministries of the Government of India?
Ans 1. Ministry of Home Affairs

2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)

3. Ministry of Communications

4. Ministry of Science and Technology

Q.29 In which of the following years was Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar born, who is
remembered for his efforts in widow remarriage and the abolition of polygamy in Hindu
society?
Ans 1. 1812

2. 1820

3. 1849

4. 1835

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Q.30 Which of the following options correctly describes the scope of judicial review under
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the Constitution of India?

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Ans 1. Only the Supreme Court can declare laws unconstitutional.
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2. Judicial review is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution (Article 13).

3. Both, Supreme Court and High Courts can strike down unconstitutional laws.
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4. Courts can review any law only after approval by the Parliament.

Q.31 On May 27, 2025, the Rajasthan High Court issued a directive regarding FIRs and
financial transactions. What was one of the key mandates?
Ans 1. All FIRs must be approved by a magistrate before registration.

2. All property transactions must be conducted through digital payments.

3. FIRs can only be filed for criminal offenses, not civil disputes.
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4. Courts must report cash transactions over ₹2 lakh to the Income Tax Department.
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Q.32
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that a person who had voluntarily
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acquired the citizenship of a foreign State shall NOT be considered a citizen of India at
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the commencement of the Constitution under Articles 5, 6, or 8?
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Ans 1. Article 9

2. Article 10

3. Article 12

4. Article 11

Q.33 Which Indian State/Union Territory inaugurated modern sports facilities, including
chess centres and a snooker hall, in 2025?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

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2. Punjab

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3. Chandigarh

4. Andaman and Nicobar
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Q.34
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Which special representation in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies was discontinued
by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020?
Ans 1. Reservation for Women

2. SC/ST Reservation

3. Anglo-Indian Reservation

4. OBC Reservation

Q.35 Which force will get the Ashwini radar system under the ₹2,906-crore deal signed in
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March 2025?
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Ans 1. Indian Navy

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Q.36 In the K. Umadevi v. Government of Tamil Nadu case, 2022, the Supreme Court granted
maternity benefits for the third child under the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act,
2017, stating it is a constitutional right. Which fundamental right did the Court link this
benefit to?
Ans 1. Right to Education under Article 21A

2. Right to Life under Article 21

3. Right to Equality under Article 14

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4. Right against Exploitation under Article 23

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Q.37 Colonial policies led to the commercialisation of agriculture. Which of the following
crops was encouraged for export during British rule?
Ans 1. Maize

2. Indigo

3. Barley

4. Pulses

Q.38 Which of the following traditional folk theatre forms is famous in Maharashtra?
Ans 1. Tamasha

2. Yakshagana

3. Nautanki

4. Bhavai

Q.39 The neighbouring countries Peru and Chile are located in which continent?
Ans 1. Europe

2. Africa

3. South America

4. Asia

Q.40 PM Modi’s review of NTEP in May 2025 urged volunteers called _____________ to adopt
AI tools for patient follow‑up.
Ans 1. Nikshay Mitras

2. Swasth Sanginis

3. TB Mitra

4. Arogya Sahayaks

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 A company earns a profit (in ₹) that is distributed among the company's three partners
in the ratio of 12 : 3 : 14. If the difference between the smallest and the largest shares is
₹61,699, the total profit (in ₹) of the company is:
Ans 1. 1,62,661

2. 1,62,566

3. 1,62,581

4. 1,62,673

Q.2 ₹21,300 were divided among A, B and C, such that 2 times the share of A = 4 times the
share of B = 7 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹11,868

2. ₹11,919

3. ₹12,099

4. ₹11,928

Q.3 A number, when increased by 60%, gives 3640. The number is:
Ans 1. 4550

2. 1137.5

3. 6825

4. 2275

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Q.4 A shopkeeper offers the following four discount schemes to his customers for the
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purchase of articles in his shop.

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(ii) Buy 6 and get 3 free
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(iii) Buy 20 and get 5 free
(iv) Buy 8 and get 6 free
Which scheme is the most beneficial to the customers?
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Ans 1. (ii)

2. (i)

3. (iv)

4. (iii)

Q.5 The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 452. The sum of the
numbers is:
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Ans 1. 48
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2. 30

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3. 44

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4. 26
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Q.6 ag
Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-12) + (-2) × 9
Ans 1. -34

2. -32

3. -31

4. -35

Q.7 The LCM of the numbers 8.6 and 0.12 is:
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Ans 1. 2.58

2. 258
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3. 25.8
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4. 0.258
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Q.8 Sapna invested ₹20,000 on simple interest, partly at 12% per annum and partly at 13%
per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 7 years, then find
the sum invested at 12% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 10,398

2. 10,403

3. 10,400

4. 10,399
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Q.9 The diameter of a sphere is 12 cm. Find its volume.
Ans
m 1. 144π cm3
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4. 192π cm3

Q.10
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Ans 1. −98x − 111

2. 98x − 111

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3. −98x + 111

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4. 98x + 111

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Q.11 A trader claims to sell flour at a profit of 44%, but also dishonestly uses a weight which
is 10% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit earned by
the trader. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 I bought two bicycles for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 9% and the second at a
gain of 27%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of
the first bicycle.
Ans 1. 920

2. 924

3. 884

4. 900

Q.13 A chair was sold for ₹4,600 after giving two successive discounts of 12% and 9%. What
is the marked price? (Rounded up to two decimal places.)
Ans 1. ₹8,008.39

2. ₹7,820.12

3. ₹7,948.74

4. ₹5,744.26

Q.14 If the sum of all interior angles of a regular polygon is 28 right angles, then its number
of sides is:
Ans 1. 15

2. 14

3. 13

4. 16

Q.15 A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 16 years. In how
many years will it amount to 9 times of itself?
Ans 1. 29 years

2. 26 years

3. 27 years

4. 32 years

Q.16 A train that has a length of 150 m overtakes a man moving at a speed of 9 km/hr (in the
same direction) in 36 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to
completely cross another train that is 185 m long, moving in the opposite direction at a
speed of 43 km/hr?
Ans 1. 35

2. 18

3. 23

4. 12

Q.17 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.

11, 11, 14, 12, 20, 19, 16, 18, 11, 12

The mode of the data is:
Ans 1. 12

2. 14

3. 10

4. 11

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Q.18 If 3 times Mary’s present age is 27 years more than 9 times Diya's present age, and 4
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times Diya's present age is 7 years less than Mary's present age, then what is the

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3. 8

4. 17

Q.19

Ans 1.

2.
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4.
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Q.20
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A man goes to Lucknow from Kanpur at a speed of 18 km/hr and returns to Kanpur at
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speed of 36 km/hr, through the same route. What is his average speed (in km/hr) of the
entire journey?
Ans 1. 18

2. 24

3. 22

4. 27

Q.21 The average of first 164 even numbers is
Ans 1. 165
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2. 164.5

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3. 166
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4. 165.5
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Q.22
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Ans 1.

2.

3.

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4.

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Q.23

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If 51% of first number is equal to six-sevenths of second number, what is the ratio of
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first number to the second number?

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Ans 1. 205 : 116

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2. 195 : 114

3. 199 : 124

4. 200 : 119

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Q.24 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 19 days and B can do the same
job in 11 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 2 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 A man makes a monthly payment equal to 25% of his monthly salary towards debt
repayment. He spends 52% of the remaining salary and saves ₹288. His monthly salary
(in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 811

2. 816

3. 800

4. 888

Q.26 Which of the following numbers divides 74,75,79,723?
Ans 1. 13

2. 9

3. 8

4. 11

Q.27 If the 6-digit number N42M47 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give
a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M - N = 1

2. M + N = 5

3. M = N

4. M - N = -5

Q.28 Find the value of [960 ÷ {28 + 5 × (7 − 3)}].
Ans 1. 29

2. 20

3. 23

4. 15

Q.29 Five solid cubes, each of volume 216000 cm3, are joined end to end to form a cuboid.
What is the lateral surface area (in cm2) of the cuboid?
Ans 1. 43045

2. 43464

3. 43245

4. 43200

Q.30 The sum of two numbers is 66 and their L.C.M. is 400. What are the two numbers?
Ans 1. 21, 45

2. 14, 52

3. 16, 50

4. 9, 57
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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
21 23 33 51 77 ?
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Ans 1. 131

2. 111 ag
3. 112

4. 140

Q.2 W is the daughter of A. A is the brother of K. K is the wife of E. E is the father of S. How
is W related to S?
Ans 1. Mother's sister's son

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2. Mother's sister's daughter

3. Mother's brother's daughter
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4. Mother's brother's son

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Q.3 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. UWS

2. MOJ

3. SUP

4. PRM

Q.4
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Pranay starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn

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and drives 6 km, then turns left and drives 12 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 10
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest

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distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

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Ans 1. 4 km to the east

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3. 5 km to the west

4. 5 km to the east

Q.5 DACB is related to FCED in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, YVXW is related to AXZY. To which of the given options is VSUT related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. XUWV
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2. XUVV
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a alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RMH

2. DYT

3. AVO

4. IDY

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Q.7 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. VZFM

2. PTZG

3. SWCI

4. IMSZ

Q.8 Seven boxes, N, O, T, F, A, R and M, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. M is kept immediately above A. N is kept immediately above O. Only T is
kept above F. Only two boxes are kept above M. N is not kept at third position from the
bottom.

How many boxes are kept between R and T?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Zero

4. Two

Q.9 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7856413, what will be the sum of the digits which are third from the left and third from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 10

3. 12

4. 8

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

73 76 81 90 107 ?
Ans 1. 139

2. 123

3. 155

4. 140

Q.11 In a row of 22 students facing north, Mayank is 15th from the left end. If Payal is 7th to
the right of Mayank, what is Payal's position from the right end of the line?
Ans 1. 1st

2. 3rd

3. 4th

4. 2nd

Q.12 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) / 8 5 2 1 1 4 < $ 2 & 8 # 7 5 & 3 + 1 6 ^ (Right)

How many such numbers are there that are immediately preceded by a symbol and also
immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

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Q.13 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting to be done from left to right only.

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se How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number?
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Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. One

4. More than two

Q.14 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical
order?
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ELY FNX GPW HRV ?
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Ans 1. HYV

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2. HGU
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3. IUV
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4. ITU
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Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

819 829 830 840 841 851 852 ?
Ans 1. 853

2. 854

3. 862

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4. 861

Q.16
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In a certain code language, ‘TEMP’ is coded as ‘3129’ and ‘ITEM’ is coded as ‘1396’.
What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
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Ans 1. 1

2. 3 ag
3. 9

4. 6

Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

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Statements:
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All magnets are rocks.
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a (I) Some soils are rocks.
(II) All magnets are soils.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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Q.18 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some Beetroots are Radishes.
Some Radishes are Onions.

Conclusions:
I. Some Beetroots are Onions.
II. No Beetroots are Onions.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.19 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

TKF 4, SJE 8, RID 12, QHC 16, ?
Ans 1. OGB 20

2. PFA 18

3. OFA 18

4. PGB 20

Q.20 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
12, 134
9, 71
Ans 1. 15, 235

2. 13, 170

3. 16, 246

4. 11, 130

Q.21 211 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Maxi is 9th from the left end while Mr.
Han is 91st from the right end. How many people are there between Mr. Maxi and Mr.
Han?
Ans 1. 112

2. 111

3. 109

4. 110

Q.22 SKEA is related to PGBW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, GUSK is related to DQPG. To which of the given options is XIJY related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. PPOI

2. UGEU

3. UIOP

4. UEGU

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.co
Q.23 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
m
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

. co 26 × 4 ÷ 8 − 15 + 6 = ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 62

2. 59 ag l
3. 61

4. 60

Q.24 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing the north. Only one
person sits to the right of B. E sits third from the left end of the row. G is the immediate
neighbour of F and B. C sits to the immediate left of A. How many people sit to the left
of D?
Ans 1. Four
m
2. Three
m .co
3. Six
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. Five

l a
Q.25
ag
Satheesh starts from his home and drives 5 km towards north. He then takes a left turn,
drives 6 km, turns left, and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5 km and
turns right, then drives 3 km to reach his office. In which direction is the office with
respect to his home?
(Note: All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)
Ans 1. North-west

2. North

3. South

4. West
m
Q.26
m .co
In a certain code language, ‘LIKE’ is coded as ‘7029’ and ‘KAIL’ is coded as ‘1279’. What
is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
s e
la
Ans 1. 1

2. 2
ag
3. 9

4. 7

Q.27 Five people, A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a straight line, facing North. B is sitting to the
extreme left end. Only two people are sitting between D and B. E is seated second to the
right of B. A is not an immediate neighbour of E. How many people are sitting to the
right of C?
Ans 1. Three
m
m .co
2. One

m.co 3. Zero
s e m
s e 4. Two

g l a
g l a a
a
Q.28 CROWD is related to HWTBI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, DRAWN is related to IWFBS. To which of the given options is BRUSH
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GWZXM

2. FVYWL

3. GWZYM

4. HXAYN

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.29 Each of the digits in the number 9231475 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Three

4. Two

Q.30 If 1 is added to each even digit and 3 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
943372856, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 8

4. 6

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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 28/08/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following was the runner-up defeated by Viktor Axelsen in his
third India Open victory in the 2025 India Open Badminton Tournament in January
2025?
Ans 1. Anthony Sinisuka Ginting

2. Lakshay Sen

3. Lee Cheuk Yiu

4. Chou Tien Chen
m
m .co
Q.2
e
In which of the following years was Delhi Metro Rail Corporation established?

s
la
Ans 1. 1992

2. 1995
ag
3. 1999

4. 1997

Q.3 What is the full name of MNREGA in the Indian policy context?
Ans 1. Modern National Rural Employment Growth Act

2. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

3. Ministry for National Rural Employment Growth Agenda
m
m
4. Mainstream National Rural Education Guarantee Act
.co
m.co s e m
s
Q.4
e
Which of the following constitutional mechanisms ensures political representation for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Indian Parliament?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Article 15 and 16
a
a 2. Article 341 and 342

3. Article 330 and 332

4. Article 338 and 339

Q.5 The DBT‑funded project that first produced a GMP‑grade viral vector for Indian CAR‑T
research was supported under which flagship scheme?
Ans 1. Biotechnology Ignition Grant

2. PACE
m .
3. National Biopharma Mission
.co s e m
4. Atal Jai Anusandhan
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.6 Which of the following rivers flows through a small part of the Great Indian Desert?
Ans 1. Ravi

2. Mahanadi

3. Satluj

4. Luni

Q.7 In which of the following years did Vasco da Gama land in Calicut on the Malabar Coast
for the second time?
Ans 1. 1509

2. 1502

3. 1505

4. 1511

Q.8 The Pochampad Dam is also known as _____________.
Ans 1. Hirakud Project

2. Sri Rama Sagar Project

3. Bhakra Nangal Project

4. Nagarjuna Sagar Project

Q.9 Which of the following Bengali writers composed the famous novel Anandamath?
Ans 1. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay

2. Rabindranath Tagore

3. Kazi Nazrul Islam

4. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Q.10 At what age did Gautama Buddha attain Enlightenment (Nirvana) at Bodh Gaya in
Bihar?
Ans 1. 49 years

2. 42 years

3. 35 years

4. 29 years

Q.11 After a hundred years of conquest and administration, the English East India Company
faced a massive uprising that took place in _________.
Ans 1. 1856

2. 1857

3. 1854

4. 1855

Q.12 How many facial bones are there in the face skeleton, each with its own anatomical
landmarks and stage of development?
Ans 1. 14

2. 18

3. 11

4. 21

Q.13 What was the theme for National Safety Day, observed on 4 March 2025?
Ans 1. Safety & Well-being Crucial for Viksit Bharat

2. Safety Awareness: A National Priority

3. Safety First: Every Day

4. Secure India: Secure Future

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Q.14 In the first phase of the Green Revolution (approximately mid 1960s upto mid 1970s),
m
the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent states such as _________.

. co
Ans 1. Rajasthan, Gujarat and Kerala
s e m
m a
se l
2. Bihar, Odisha and West Bengal

3. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Assam
ag
4. Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Q.15 During the Later Vedic period, which of the following animals was specifically
mentioned as useful for ploughing swampy land?
Ans 1. Cow

2. Buffalo

3. Horse
m
4. Elephant
m .co
Q.16
m .co
According to the Climate Risk Index 2025, what is India's long-term rank (1993–2022)
s em
s e
among the most affected countries by extreme weather events?
l a
Ans 1. 12 th
l a ag
2. 9th ag
3. 3rd

4. 6th

Q.17 Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953 by separating Telugu-speaking areas from which of
the following states?
Ans 1. Madras

2. Kerala
m
.co
3. Karnataka

4. Tamil Nadu
e m
las
Q.18
Ans 1. Karnataka ag
The Koyna Project is constructed on a tributary of the River Krishna in which state?

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Maharashtra

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.19 Which advanced radar systems are being deployed under a ₹5,700-crore contract
signed in March 2024 and operational from April 2025 to strengthen India's air defence
network?
m
.co
Ans 1. Over-the-horizon radars
m
.co m
2. Synthetic aperture radars

m s e
s e 3. Passive electronically scanned array radars

g l a
g l a 4. High-Power Radars (HPR)
a
a Q.20 Which Fundamental Right was removed from the Indian Constitution by the 44th
Amendment Act, 1978?
Ans 1. Right to Property

2. Right to Freedom

3. Right to Education

4. Right to Equality

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.21 Who is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India as of May 2025?
Ans 1. Shaktikanta Das

2. Sanjay Malhotra

3. Raghuram Rajan

4. Urjit Patel

Q.22 The UK–India Free Trade Agreement that concluded on 6 May 2025, primarily aims to
reduce barriers to which sector listed first in its conclusion summary?
Ans 1. Agricultural commodities

2. Medicinal products

3. Digital trade and e‑commerce

4. Legal services

Q.23 Which of the following is the correct method to rename a file or folder using the left
mouse button?
Ans 1. Click and drag the file → Rename it in the pop-up window

2. Double-click the file name → Type the new name → Press Esc

3. Select the file → Press F2 or click once on the name → Type new name → Press Enter

4. Select the file → Press F1 → Type new name → Press Enter

Q.24 In which event, at The Ten 2025 athletics meet in San Juan Capistrano, USA, did Gulveer
Singh break his own national record in March 2025?
Ans 1. Marathon

2. 5,000m race

3. 3,000m steeplechase

4. 10,000m race

Q.25 Which theory suggests that planets were formed out of a cloud of material surrounding
a young Sun?
Ans 1. Collision Theory

2. Binary Star Hypothesis

3. Nebular Hypothesis

4. Big Bang Theory

Q.26 Which of the following statements about the Right to Property in India is correct?
Ans 1. It is a fundamental right under Article 31 (now omitted).

2. It was completely abolished by the Forty-Second Amendment (1976).

3. It is a fundamental right under Article 32 of the Constitution.

4. It is no longer a fundamental right.

Q.27 In 2025, who launched 'Srjanam', India's first indigenous automated bio medical waste
treatment plant?
Ans 1. HD Kumaraswamy

2. Dr. Jitendra Singh

3. Nitin Jairam Gadkari

4. Manohar Lal

Q.28 The first human gene therapy experiment, which began in September 1990, used a
retroviral vector against which deficiency?
Ans 1. X-Linked Adrenoleukodystrophy

2. Mitochondrial encephalopathy

3. 3-Methylglutaconic Aciduria

4. Adenosine deaminase
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.co
Q.29 In which year was the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted by the United
m
Nations Member States?

. co
Ans 1. 2017
s e m
m a
se l
2. 2015

3. 2016
ag
4. 2014

Q.30 As of December 2024, what is the age eligibility of player to avail facility of Retired
Sportsperson Empowerment Training (RESET) Programme?
Ans 1. 18-40 years

2. 20-45 years

3. 20-50 years
m
4. 25-55 years
m .co
Q.31
m .co
For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure, the Gibbs free
s em
s e
energy change is ________.
l a
Ans 1. ∆G = 0
l a ag
2. ∆G > 0
ag
3. ∆G < 0

4. ∆G = ∆H + T∆S

Q.32 As per the Ministry of Defence’s Year End Review 2024 (PIB), what is the number of C-
295 aircraft to be indigenously built by TASL in India?
Ans 1. 72

2. 56
m
.co
3. 40

4. 65
e m
las
Q.33
g
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with special provisions for Scheduled
a
Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other backwards classes?
Ans 1. Part III

2. Part IX

3. Part XVI

4. Part IV

Q.34 Which of the following correctly differentiates between RAM and ROM?
Ans 1. ROM performs all logical operations, while RAM controls input devices
m
m
2. RAM is permanent memory while ROM is volatile
.co
m.co 3. RAM loses its content when the computer is turned off, while ROM retains its data
s e m
s e 4. ROM is used to store data temporarily during program execution
g l a
g l a a
a Q.35 What minimum legal practice experience did the Supreme Court mandate on 20 May
2025 for applicants to the Civil Judge (Junior Division) post?
Ans 1. Three years of legal practice experience

2. Four years of legal practice experience

3. One year of legal practice experience

4. Two years of legal practice experience

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.36 Which country ranked 10th in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025 report
released at the annual UN climate conference in Baku?
Ans 1. Brazil

2. China

3. South Africa

4. India

Q.37 The _____ developed 32-bit microprocessors for space applications named
VIKRAM3201 and KALPANA3201.
Ans 1. Indian Space Research Organization

2. European Space Agency

3. National Aeronautics and Space Administration

4. Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

Q.38 In which of the following years was the Bharatmala Pariyojana approved by the
Government of India covering a length of 34,800 km to improve connectivity and reduce
logistics cost in the country?
Ans 1. 2014

2. 2017

3. 2024

4. 2022

Q.39 Which of the following sectors contributed significantly to India’s GDP growth after the
1991 reforms?
Ans 1. Agriculture

2. Public sector enterprises

3. Services sector

4. Cottage industries

Q.40 Sharing borders with the states of Kerala and Karnataka, Mudumalai National Park of
Tamil Nadu is a part of which biosphere reserve of India?
Ans 1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

2. Kangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve

3. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve

4. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The average weight of Gopal, Akshay and Atul is 45 kg. If the average weight of Gopal
and Akshay is 44 kg and that of Akshay and Atul is 46 kg, then the weight of Akshay (in
kg) is:
Ans 1. 65

2. 55

3. 60

4. 45

Q.2 What smallest number should be added to 74978 so that the sum is completely divisible
by 24?
Ans 1. 22

2. 17

3. 20

4. 26

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.co
Q.3
m
. co
Ans 1. 39
s e m
m a
se 2. 45

3. 49 ag l
4. 48

Q.4 A number, when increased by 80%, gives 2520. The number is:
Ans 1. 4200

2. 1400

3. 2800

m
.co
4. 700

m
Q.5
.co
The LCM of 43 × 62 × 15, 42 × 152 × 19 and 63 × 152 × 192 is:
m s em
Ans 1. 28 4 2
s e
x 3 x 5 x 19 2
l a
l a ag
ag
2. 28 x 35 x 53 x 192

3. 28 x 35 x 52 x 192

4. 29 x 35 x 52 x 192

Q.6 If one interior angle of a regular polygon is greater than its exterior angle by 144°, how
many sides does the polygon have?
Ans 1. 21

2. 19

3. 18
m
4. 20

m .co
s e
la
Q.7

ag
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 Anshuman and Kunal together invested ₹48,300 in a business. At the end of the year,
m
.co
out of a total profit of ₹14,000, Kunal's share was ₹6,000. What was the difference
m
between their investments?
Ans

m.co 1. ₹5,940
s e m
s e 2. ₹6,500
g l a
g l a 3. ₹7,640
a
a 4. ₹6,900

Q.9 Simplify: x(8x − 7) + 7(x2 − 5) + 14
Ans 1. −15x2 − 7x + 21

2. 15x2 − 7x − 21

3. −15x2 − 7x − 21

4. 15x2 − 7x + 21
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.10 Yash travels 152 km at 38 km/hr, the next 189 km at 63 km/hr and the next 375 km at 75
km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 59.67

2. 51.83

3. 58.22

4. 70.03

Q.11 The cost of 9 pens and 9 pencils is ₹252. If the cost of a pen decreases by ₹1 and the
cost of a pencil increases by ₹3, then the cost of 13 pens and 3 pencils is ₹100. What is
the original cost of 10 pens and 19 pencils?
Ans 1. ₹513

2. ₹517

3. ₹514

4. ₹516

Q.12 Find the value of: [428 ÷ {17 + 8 × ( 5 − 7 )}].
Ans 1. 428

2. 429

3. 427

4. 426

Q.13 The sum of two numbers is 121 and their L.C.M. is 264. What are the two numbers?
Ans 1. 81, 40

2. 86, 35

3. 88, 33

4. 93, 28

Q.14 If the interest earned during the 2nd year on a certain sum is ₹1,760, and the rate of
interest is 10% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
Ans 1. ₹16,405

2. ₹15,495

3. ₹16,000

4. ₹15,990

Q.15 A dealer wants to make a 20% profit on a smart watch that costs him ₹1,575. To attract
customers, he plans to offer a 10% discount on the listed price. At what price should he
list the smart watch to achieve his desired profit?
Ans 1. ₹2,100

2. ₹1,918

3. ₹1,654

4. ₹1,890

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) if a sum of ₹400 is borrowed for 4.5 years at 20% per
annum rate of interest.
Ans 1. 460

2. 360

3. 410

4. 340

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.co
Q.17 6 years ago, the age of a father was 34 years more than twice his son's age. After how
m
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?

. co
Ans 1. 23
s e m
m a
se l
2. 28

3. 26
ag
4. 24

Q.18

Ans
m
.co
1.

m
m .co s em
2.

s e l a
l a ag
3.
ag
4.

Q.19 Pipe A can fill a tank in 16 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 21 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 15 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.
m
m .co
2.
s e
g la
3.
a
4.

Q.20 Five solid cubes, each of volume 512000 cm3, are joined end to end to form a cuboid.
What is the lateral surface area (in cm2) of the cuboid?
m
.co
Ans 1. 76949
m
.co m
2. 76903

m s e
s e
3. 76800

g l a
g l a 4. 76820
a
a Q.21 The marks scored by 10 students are given below.

19, 15, 10, 14, 13, 18, 19, 19, 11, 11

The mode of the data is:
Ans 1. 19

2. 20

3. 15

m .
.co
4. 10

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 25 of 48

Q.22 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 50% above its cost price and offers a 30%
discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹91, then what is the list price (in ₹) of
the fan?
Ans 1. 2,774

2. 2,697

3. 2,730

4. 3,025

Q.23 Which of the following numbers divides 2,45,015?
Ans 1. 2

2. 11

3. 15

4. 5

Q.24 If the third proportional of 9 and 51 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 287

2. 288

3. 291

4. 289

Q.25 The marked price of an article is ₹4,500. It is sold at successive discounts of 25% and
20%. Find the selling price of the article (in ₹).
Ans 1. 2,700

2. 2,800

3. 2,750

4. 2,900

Q.26 Mahesh bought some pens at the rate of ₹150 a dozen. He sold them for ₹44 each. His
profit percentage is ______%.
Ans 1. 256

2. 250

3. 254

4. 252

Q.27 A toy designer is making a spherical ball with a radius of 6 cm. What is the surface area
of the ball? (Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 678.24 cm2

2. 301.44 cm2

3. 452.16 cm2

4. 282.74 cm2

Q.28 The population of a district is 374000, out of which 170000 are males. 78% of the
population is literate. If 72% males are literate, then what percentage of females are
literate?
Ans 1. 85%

2. 83%

3. 81%

4. 80%

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m
.co
Q.29 Arjun and Malaika have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Arjun is
m
driving at 140 km/hr while Malaika is driving at 65 km/hr. Find the time taken by Malaika

. co to reach Kanpur if Arjun takes 13 hours.

s e m
m Ans 1. 25 hours
a
se 2. 34 hours
ag l
3. 26 hours

4. 28 hours

Q.30 Anand, Preeti and Dev invested ₹1,310, ₹1,350 and ₹1,140, respectively to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,630, what is Dev's share of the profit?
Ans 1. ₹488

2. ₹487

m
.co
3. ₹489

m
.co m
4. ₹490

m s e
s e l a
ag
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

l a
ag
Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

27 31 40 56 81 ?
Ans 1. 121

2. 120

3. 118

4. 117

Q.2 In a certain code language,
m
.co
A $ B means ‘A is the son of B’
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’
e m
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’

las
Based on the above, how is E related to N if ‘E @ F $ G ÷ M + N’?
Ans 1. Brother's daughter
ag
2. Brother's wife

3. Wife

4. Daughter

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

m
WVH BAM GFR LKW ?

.co
Ans 1. QPB
m
m.co 2. QBP

s e m
s e 3. QWE

g l a
g l a 4. QEW
a
a Q.4 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PT-KQ

2. JN-EK

3. MQ-HN

m .
.co
4. SW-NU

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
Click to Join Telegram Railway News Room Page 27 of 48

Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:

All letters are mails.
All schedules are mails.

Conclusions:

(I) Some letters are schedules.
(II) Some mails are schedules.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(16, 63, 16)
(36, 111, 4)
Ans 1. (47, 144, 4)

2. (48, 162, 15)

3. (44, 155, 20)

4. (1, 12, 6)

Q.7 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

48 D 14 B 3 C 27 A 3 = ?
Ans 1. 24

2. 31

3. 15

4. 37

Q.8 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RXCJ

2. OUZG

3. KQVC

4. NTYE

Q.9 BGLY is related to DJNB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, JSTK is related to LVVN. To which of the given options is PBZT related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. RWBY

2. REWB

3. REBW

4. RWYI

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.co
Q.10 Seven people, I, J, K, L, M, N and O, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only J sits to the
m
left of O. Only four people sit between J and I. Only K sits between M and N, and M is

. co not an immediate neighbor of I. Who sits at the extreme right of the line?

s e m
m Ans 1. M
a
se 2. L
ag l
3. O

4. I

Q.11 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 & % 1 @ 2 3 $ 9 & 6 Ω 4 # 5 * £ 7 (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be fourth from
m
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the right?

m
.co
Ans 1. 4

em
2. 2

e m l as
3. 6

l as ag
ag
4. 9

Q.12 Rahul starts from Point Y and drives 14 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 6 km, then he turns right and drives 20 km. He then takes a right turn and
drives 12 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point Z. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point
Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km towards the east

2. 6 km towards the north

3. 6 km towards the east
m
4. 4 km towards the north

m .co
s e
la
Q.13 RUWU is related to YBDB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In

g
the same way, JMOM is related to QTVT. To which of the given options is TWYW related,

Ans
following the same logic?
1. ADED
a
2. ACED

3. ADFD

4. AEEL

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘reading is important’ is written as ‘pb mk lo’ and ‘is it
raining’ is coded as ‘jo mt pb’. How is ‘is’ coded in the given language?

m
.co
Ans 1. lo

m
.co m
2. mk

m 3. jo
s e
s e g l a
g l a 4. pb
a
a Q.15 Seven boxes V, W, X, Y, Z, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept below Z. Only one box is kept above W. Only one
box is kept between W and Q.V is kept immediately above Y. R is kept at some place
below X. How many boxes are kept between X and V?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Two

4. One

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.16 Seven people, I, J, K, L, P, Q and R are sitting in a row, facing north. Only J sits to the
left of P. Only four people sit between J and I. Only K sits between R and Q. R is not an
immediate neighbour of I. Who sits at the extreme right end of the line?
Ans 1. R

2. L

3. K

4. I

Q.17 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

JMR11 KNS20 LOT29 MPU38 ?
Ans 1. NQU42

2. NQV47

3. NQU46

4. NQV56

Q.18 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7453186, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. None

4. One

Q.19 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

57 × 3 − 11 ÷ 7 + 42 = ?
Ans 1. 54

2. 50

3. 52

4. 56

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘BLUE’ is coded as ‘7524’ and ‘UNIT’ is coded as ‘1356’.
What is the code for ‘U’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 5

4. 6

Q.21 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 4 7 # # # 5 * £ 8 2 £ & € 2 $ £ @ 3 # 7 & (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. 6

2. 5

3. 3

4. 4

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.co
Q.22 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
m
91526374, what will be the sum of second digit from left and third digit from right in the

. co new number thus formed?

s e m
m Ans 1. 10
a
se 2. 14
ag l
3. 6

4. 2

Q.23 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

TOWN - NWTO - TWON
CLAW - WACL - CALW
Ans 1. PICK - KCPI - PCIK
m
2. ROSE - RSOE - ESOR
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3. FUME - UMFE - UMEF
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. HALF - FLHA - ALHF

l a
Q.24
ag
Seven boxes L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. M is kept fourth from the bottom. O is placed immediately below M. Q is
placed immediately above R. P is the topmost box. M is placed immediately below L.
Which box is placed at the bottom?
Ans 1. O

2. R

3. L

4. Q

m
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Q.25 Rishabh starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards west. He then takes a left turn,

m
drives 8 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. He

e
takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
s
la
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are

g
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 16 km towards east
a
2. 14 km towards north

3. 16 km towards west

4. 14 km towards south

Q.26 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

85 86 88 92 100 ?

m
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Ans 1. 118

m
.co m
2. 117

m 3. 116
s e
s e g l a
g l a 4. 115
a
a Q.27 Mr. Into ranked 49th from the bottom and 56th from the top in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 105

2. 103

3. 104

4. 107

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.28 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT
belong to that group? (NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of
consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)
Ans 1. TM-WR

2. OH-RN

3. NG-QL

4. JC-MH

Q.29 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: Some notes are books. All books are tables.

Conclusion (I): Some notes are tables.
Conclusions (II): All tables are books.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.30 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

3 12 30 57 93 ?
Ans 1. 130

2. 138

3. 135

4. 140

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 28/08/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Himalayan Mountain ranges stretch in a west-east direction from the Indus River to
which major Indian river?
Ans 1. Godavari

2. Brahmaputra

3. Ganga

4. Yamuna

m
Q.2
.co
Which AI-driven anti-drone system was deployed at India's largest naval port in
Karnataka in May 2025 to protect critical infrastructure?
m
Ans 1. AeroGuard
s e
2. SkyNet
g la
3. Indrajaal Infra a
4. DroneShield

Q.3 Which military division had become rare in warfare during the Gupta period despite
being part of the army in texts?
Ans 1. Infantry

2. Chariot

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3. Cavalry

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4. Elephant

e m
e
Q.4 m
Which crop is primarily associated with plantation agriculture in Kerala?
l as
l asAns 1. Wheat
ag
ag 2. Rubber

3. Cotton

4. Rice

Q.5 In which of the following groups of states are the lower regions of the Western Ghats
located where subtropical vegetation is found?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Karnataka

2. Gujarat, Maharashtra and Kerala
m .
.co m
3. Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

s e
em
4. Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Goa

s l a
g la ag
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Q.6 What is the function of the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + Z?
Ans 1. Redo an action

2. Undo the last action

3. Close the window

4. Zoom the window

Q.7 Alauddin Khilji introduced the Dagh and Huliyah systems to control the army. What was
Huliyah associated with?
Ans 1. Soldier’s salary

2. Soldier’s description

3. Land revenue

4. Horse branding

Q.8 Who authored the book 'The Churn' that was released in April 2025?
Ans 1. Bandaru Dattatreya

2. Himanshu Roy

3. Arvind Kumar

4. Dr. Vijay Darda

Q.9 Which sector was the dominant contributor to India's GDP immediately after
independence in 1947?
Ans 1. Foreign trade

2. Services

3. Industrial

4. Agriculture

Q.10 The process by which traits are passed from parents to offspring is known as
_____________.
Ans 1. mutation

2. heredity

3. hybridisation

4. linkage

Q.11 Which architectural style, introduced by the British, combines Indian traditional
elements with Gothic, Victorian and Neo-Classical forms?
Ans 1. Indo-Saracenic

2. Colonial Neo-Baroque

3. Gothic Revival

4. Victorian Classical

Q.12 In which of the following years was the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) launched
with the aim to translate the comprehensive vision of Mahatma Gandhi about an ideal
Indian village into reality, keeping in view the present context?
Ans 1. 2009

2. 2014

3. 2006

4. 2012

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Q.13 Which of the following Bollywood actresses was honoured at the inaugural Global
m
Vanguard Honour, 2025, held in Los Angeles?

. co
Ans 1. Nitanshi Goel
s e m
m a
se l
2. Deepika Padukone

3. Priyanka Chopra
ag
4. Pratibha Ranta

Q.14 Which of the following pairs correctly classifies one input and one output device?
Ans 1. Keyboard – Output device, Printer – Input device

2. Microphone – Input device, Monitor – Output device

3. Mouse – Output device, Scanner – Input device

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4. Joystick – Output device, Speaker – Input device

m
Q.15
.co
Which city in Assam issued evacuation notices to residents in landslide-prone areas

m
due to continuous rainfall in June 2025?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Silchar

l a
ag
2. Dibrugarh

3. Jorhat

4. Guwahati

Q.16 For the implementation of which of the following did the Central Government estimate a
total requirement of ₹2.31 lakh crore over a five year period from 2010-11 to 2014-15?
Ans 1. Right to Education Act

2. Right to Information Act

m
.co
3. Ayushman Bharat Scheme

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

e m
Q.17
las
During the colonial period in India, the Vernacular Press Act (1878) was introduced by

Ans
_____.
1. Lord Curzon ag
2. Lord Wellesley

3. Lord Lytton

4. Lord Ripon

Q.18 Which of the following subjects is addressed by the Tenth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. Panchayati Raj system
m
m
2. Emergency powers and procedures
.co
m.co 3. Official languages
s e m
s e 4. Provisions related to anti-defection
g l a
g l a a
a Q.19 Which of the following years saw the foundation of the Home Rule League and its
phenomenal success?
Ans 1. 1909

2. 1916

3. 1906

4. 1919

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.20 Which of the following organisations is tasked with providing certification to films
before their public release in India?
Ans 1. Film and Television Institute of India

2. National Film Development Corporation

3. Children's Film Society, India

4. Central Board of Film Certification

Q.21 Which of the following is a feature of the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) in
India?
Ans 1. It can be dissolved like the Legislative Assembly

2. The people directly elect their members

3. It has a fixed term of five years

4. It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved

Q.22 Under the Ayushman Vaya Vandana Yojana launched in October 2024, every Indian
citizen aged 70 years and above will get free health insurance up to what amount every
year?
Ans 1. ₹7.5 lakh

2. ₹8 lakh

3. ₹5 lakh

4. ₹3 lakh

Q.23 The exchange of gases at the alveoli and tissues occurs by which process?
Ans 1. Osmosis

2. Decantation

3. Diffusion

4. Filtration

Q.24 Which artist was recognised as the Global Recording Artist of the Year 2024 by the
IFPI?
Ans 1. Billie Eilish

2. Taylor Swift

3. Beyoncé

4. Olivia Rodrigo

Q.25 Why is air transport less popular for freight movement in India?
Ans 1. It is widely available in rural and remote villages.

2. It requires minimal infrastructure for operation.

3. It is expensive and ideal only for light, high-value goods.

4. It is slower and less efficient than water transport.

Q.26 India launched chip-enabled biometric e-passports in __________ cities as of April 2025.
Ans 1. 13

2. 11

3. 15

4. 9

Q.27 Events of Khelo India Youth Games 2025 were NOT conducted in which of the following
cities of Bihar?
Ans 1. Bhagalpur

2. Gaya

3. Samastipur

4. Rajgir
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Q.28 Which of the following is NOT a Central Armed Police Force?
m
co
Ans 1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police

. e m
m 2. Border Security Force
as
se 3. Central Reserve Police Force
ag l
4. Criminal Investigation Department

Q.29 When was the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) established to investigate
cases of human rights violations in India?
Ans 1. 12 October 1993

2. 10 December 1994

3. 15 January 1995

m
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4. 20 February 1996

m
Q.30
.co
Who is responsible for the administration of Union Territories like Chandigarh and
Lakshadweep?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. The President of India

l a
ag
2. Prime Minister of India directly

3. Elected Chief Ministers of the Union Territories

4. Governors of neighbouring states

Q.31 What is the preferred unit used in the scientific literature to express the ratio between
two sound intensities?
Ans 1. Phon

2. Pascal

m
.co
3. Hertz

4. Decibels

e m
Q.32
las
Which anniversary of the Meter Convention was celebrated by the Department of

Ans 1. 125th ag
Consumer Affairs, Government of India on 20 May 2025?

2. 155th

3. 100th

4. 150th

Q.33 The western coastal plains are an example of:
Ans 1. tectonic coast

m
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2. submerged coast
m
.co m
3. volcanic coast

m s e
s e
4. emergent coast

g l a
g l a Q.34 India is set to invest over US$360 billion in renewable energy and infrastructure by . a
a Ans 1. 2032

2. 2034

3. 2036

4. 2030

Q.35 What is the name of India’s first satellite, which completed 50 years in April 2025 and
was launched in 1975?

m .
Ans 1. Rohini

2. INSAT-1A
.co s e m
3. Bhaskara
s em l a
4. Aryabhata
g la ag
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Q.36 Pick the INCORRECT statement regarding the life of Birsa Munda.
Ans 1. He urged people to destroy the Europeans.

2. He advised his people to bring back the Golden Age of Mundas.

3. Birsa was born in the forests of Madhya Pradesh.

4. He had joined the local missionary school.

Q.37 As per India Justice Report 2025, how many judges does India have per million
population?
Ans 1. 10

2. 17

3. 21

4. 15

Q.38 In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution that gave importance to the public
sector adopted?
Ans 1. 1951

2. 1956

3. 1947

4. 1991

Q.39 According to the Henley Passport Index released in January 2025, what is India's global
passport ranking for 2025?
Ans 1. 85th

2. 88th

3. 83rd

4. 80th

Q.40 When and where were the flight trials of the ULPGM‑V3 missile conducted?
Ans 1. Rajasthan (Pokhran), 24 July 2025

2. Maharashtra (Pune), 27 July 2025

3. Odisha (Chandipur), 26 July 2025

4. Andhra Pradesh (Kurnool), 25 July 2025

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 M and N start a business. M invests ₹17,000 more than N for 6 months and N invests for
5 months. M's share is ₹498 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹1,494. Find the
capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹42,500

2. ₹42,326

3. ₹42,661

4. ₹42,304

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 10
months.
Ans 1. ₹40

2. ₹60

3. ₹480

4. ₹80

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m
.co
Q.3 Simplify the given expression.
m
. co x(7x − 5) + 3(x2 − 2) + 14

s e m
m a
se
Ans 1. −10x2 − 5x + 8

g l
2. 10x2 − 5x − 8

3. 10x2 − 5x + 8
a
4. −10x2 − 5x − 8

Q.4

m
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Ans 1.

2.

m .co s em
3.
s e l a
4.
l a ag
Q.5
ag
The average of first 163 even numbers is
Ans 1. 165

2. 163.5

3. 164.5

4. 164

Q.6
m
m .co
s e
Ans
1.
g la
a
2.

3.

4.

m
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Q.7 The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 110. The greater of the two numbers

m
is:

.co m
Ans 1. 3

m s e
s e 2. 5

g l a
g l a 3. 11
a
a 4. 7

Q.8

Ans 1. 13.05

2. 12.62

3. 8.75

4. 5.35

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.9

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 72 and 432, respectively. If one of the numbers is
144, find the other one.
Ans 1. 216

2. 144

3. 72

4. 288

Q.11 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 58°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 16°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 42°

2. 49°

3. 52°

4. 48°

Q.12 What is the volume of a cylindrical container that has a base radius of 3.5 metres and a
height of 5.2 metres?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 Find the mean proportional of 96 and 54.
Ans 1. 71

2. 69

3. 75

4. 72

Q.14

Ans 1. 16

2. 31

3. 23

4. 26

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m
.co
Q.15 Pipe A can fill a tank in 11 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 24 hours and pipe C
m
can fill the same tank in 19 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they

. co operate together is::

s e m
m Ans
a
se 1.

ag l
2.

3.

4.
m
m .co
Q.16
.co
A trader offers one kitchen set free with each kitchen set purchased at the marked price.

m
If he still makes a profit of 20%, at what percentage above the cost price has the trader
s em
s e
marked the kitchen set?
l a
Ans 1. 50%
l a ag
2. 150%
ag
3. 140%

4. 40%

Q.17 The number 716710501 is divisible by which of the following?
Ans 1. 20

2. 16

m
.co
3. 19

4. 13

e m
Q.18
las
The number of prime numbers between 374 and 381, both included, is:
Ans 1. 2
ag
2. 3

3. 4

4. 1

Q.19

m
.co
Ans 1. 19.75

m
.co m
2. 18.75

m s e
a
3. 15.75

s e g l
g l a 4. 21.75
a
a Q.20

Ans 1. 23.1%

2. 23.7%

3. 22.5%

4. 21.8%

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Q.21 8 years ago, the age of a father was 20 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 8

2. 12

3. 16

4. 7

Q.22 The average weight of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg,
75 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 53.4 kg

2. 50.4 kg

3. 52.4 kg

4. 51.4 kg

Q.23 Train A leaves station M at 6:30 AM and reaches station N at 3:30 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 8:30 AM and reaches station M at 2:30 PM on the same day.
Find the time when trains A and B meet.
Ans 1. 11:18 AM

2. 12:18 PM

3. 11:38 AM

4. 11:08 AM

Q.24 A book is sold at three successive discounts of 8%, 4%, and 5%. If the marked price of
the book is ₹3,125, find its net selling price.
Ans 1. ₹2,622

2. ₹2,492

3. ₹2,594

4. ₹2,465

Q.25 Find the circumference (in m) of the largest circle that can be drawn completely inside a
rectangle whose dimensions are given as 63 m and 116 m.

Ans 1. 202

2. 200

3. 190

4. 198

Q.26 Pallavi bought a toy for ₹578, decorated it at a cost of ₹14 and sold the toy for ₹476.
Find the loss or profit percentage.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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m
.co
Q.27 If the interest earned during the 2nd year on a certain sum is ₹6,534, and the rate of
m
co
interest is 20% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:

. Ans 1. ₹28,030
e m
m as
se 2. ₹27,630

3. ₹28,205 ag l
4. ₹27,225

Q.28 The current population of a town is 14,568. It increases by 25% and 60% in two
successive years but decreases by 50% in the third year. What is the population of the
town at the end of the third year?
Ans 1. 14,568

2. 14,563

m
.co
3. 14,565
m
.co m
4. 14,573

m s e
Q.29
s e
X, Y and Z invest a sum in the ratio of 16 : 82 : 2, respectively. If they earned a total
l a
l a
profit of ₹2,750 at the end of the year, then what is the difference between share of Y
ag
ag
and Z?
Ans 1. ₹2,200

2. ₹2,159

3. ₹2,191

4. ₹2,122

Q.30 A man goes to Nagpur from Visakhapatnam at a speed of 3 km/hr and returns to
Visakhapatnam at speed of 6 km/hr, through the same route. What is his average speed
(in km/hr) of the entire journey?
m
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Ans 1. 4

2. 3
e m
3. 2
las
4. 7
ag
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. SL-XQ
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2. CW-HA
m
m.co 3. GZ-LE

s e m
s e 4. WP-BU

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g l a Q.2 Each of the digits in the number 3147569 is arranged in the ascending order from left to a
a right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. Zero

2. Two

3. Three

4. One

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.3 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 666 714 792 824 596 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the
second digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 7

2. 13

3. 9

4. 11

Q.4 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

11, 96
10, 75
Ans 1. 9, 56

2. 13, 134

3. 12, 120

4. 14, 172

Q.5 In a row of 161 students facing north, Mr. Into is 98th from the left end. If Mr. Toni is 20th
to the right of Mr. Into, what is Mr. Toni's position from the right end of the line?
Ans 1. 43rd

2. 41st

3. 42nd

4. 44th

Q.6 JM 8 is related to FI 11 in a certain way. In the same way, LO 19 is related to HK 22. To
which of the following is UX 27 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. QT 30

2. PT 33

3. QT 33

4. PT 30

Q.7 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

ROP 1, VST 3, ZWX 5, DAB 7, ?
Ans 1. HGF 9

2. HEF 11

3. HEF 9

4. HGF 11

Q.8 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

IGE 13, LJH 17, OMK 21, RPN 25, ?
Ans 1. UTS 29

2. VTQ 28

3. USQ 29

4. VTS 29
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Q.9 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All actors are dancers. ag l
Some dancers are magicians.

Conclusions:
(I) All dancers are actors.
(II) No magician is a dancer.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.
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4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.10
m .co
In a certain code language, ‘FLAG’ is coded as ‘7239’ and ‘ALIF’ is coded as ‘3289’. What
s em
e
is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
s l a
Ans 1. 9
l a ag
2. 3
ag
3. 2

4. 8

Q.11 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)

m
Ans 1. CELS

2. JMSZ

m .co
3. NQWD
s e
4. SVBI
g la
Q.12
a
Each of the digits in the number 817594326 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. Which of the following digits will be fourth from the left?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 4

4. 3

m
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Q.13 M is the son of L. L is the father of D. D is the brother of N. N is the sister of A. A is the

m
daughter of K. K is the mother of Q. N is married to S. S is the father of C. How is L

.co m
related to C?
Ans
m 1. Father's father
s e
s e g l a
a
2. Mother's father

g l a
a
3. Father's brother

4. Mother's brother

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘TAME’ is coded as ‘4257’ and ‘MIND’ is coded as ‘1365’.
What is the code for ‘M’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 5

m .
.co
4. 1

e m
em l as
las ag
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Q.15 Kabir, Sumit, Ranvir, Madhu, Samir and Tanvi are sitting around a circle, facing the
centre. Ranvir sits second to the right of Samir. Samir sits second to the right of Madhu.
Sumit sits to the immediate left of Samir. Kabir sits second to the left of Tanvi. Who sits
to the immediate right of Kabir?
Ans 1. Tanvi

2. Ranvir

3. Samir

4. Sumit

Q.16 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to
the right of C. A sits second to the left of D. B sits to the immediate right of E. F sits on
the extreme right end of the line. How many people sit between B and F?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Four

4. Three

Q.17 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some Magpies are Swans.
No Swans are Seagulls.

Conclusions:
I: Some Magpies are Seagulls.
II: No Seagulls are Magpies.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.18 QERG is related to WJVJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, OYHS is related to UDLV. To which of the given options is GNTB related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. MSXE

2. MSEX

3. MSWE

4. MXEW

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

82 , 83 , 85 , 89 , 97 , ?
Ans 1. 112

2. 113

3. 121

4. 131

Q.20 Each of the digits in the number 9254631 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. None

4. One

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Q.21 Kiya ranked 7th from the bottom and 15th from the top in her class. How many students
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co
are there in her class?

. Ans 1. 22
e m
m as
se 2. 21

3. 20 ag l
4. 19

Q.22 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LP-GI

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2. NR-IL
m
.co m
3. QU-LO

m s e
4. JN-EH

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.23 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

425 300 236 209 201 ?
Ans 1. 200

2. 182

3. 172

4. 152

Q.24 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
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question mark (?) in the following equation?

8 − 3 + 63 × 3 ÷ 14 = ?
e m
Ans 1. 24

las
2. 17

3. 12 ag
4. 30

Q.25 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 € 1 @ % 5 5 3 % © 2 € £ 7 1 # 8 % 8 7 2 @ (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
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and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans
m
1. 4

m.co 2. 2
s e m
s e 3. 3
g l a
g l a 4. 1 a
a Q.26 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

312 320 329 ? 350 362
Ans 1. 336

2. 339

3. 337

4. 341
m .
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s em l a
g la ag
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Q.27 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, M, N and O, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only three boxes are kept above C. Only one box is kept between O and C. Only three
boxes are kept between O and N. N is kept at some place above C. A is kept immediately
below N. B is kept at one of the places above D. M is not kept immediately above or
below O.
Which box is kept at the lowermost position?
Ans 1. M

2. D

3. O

4. A

Q.28 Hanish starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 8 km, turns right and drives 17 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 10
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the east

2. 3 km to the west

3. 3 km to the east

4. 2 km to the west

Q.29 URKE is related to QOGB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, EFUS is related to ACQP. To which of the given options is SWIJ related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. OTEG

2. OTYU

3. OGET

4. OETY

Q.30 Town J is to the south of Town K. Town L is to the east of Town K. Town M is to the
north of Town L. Town N is to the east of Town M. Town O is to the northeast of Town N.
What is the position of Town O with respect to Town J?
Ans 1. Northeast

2. Southwest

3. South

4. Southeast

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