Kerala SET 2019 Jul Question Paper _31_

A
19737 120 MINUTES

1. The symbol ‘S’ associated with 40S and 60S ribosome parts stands for
A) Size B) Subunit C) Siemens D) Svedbergs

2. Choose the statement which is NOT true about cancer stem cells (CSCs):
A) Epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) may enhance CSC metastasis.
B) miRNAs are involved in the regulation of CSCs properties.
C) CSCs play important roles in cancer relapse and metastasis.
D) The characteristics of CSCs are different from normal cells.

3. The enzyme responsible for removing the primers after the complementary strand of
DNA has been synthesized:
A) DNA polymerase B) RNAse H
C) Primase D) Helicase

4. A pseudogene is:
A) a gene with no exons
B) a DNA sequence with numerous mutations and their expression product
inhibit the function of a normal gene product
C) a DNA sequence resembling a functional gene but containing numerous
mutations that prevent its expression
D) a gene that express a protein that cannot fold properly and consequently unable
function

5. Match Group I with Group II
Group I Group II
a) Nalidixic acid 1. RNA polymerase
b) Tetracycline 2. DNA gyrase
c) Erythromycin 3. DNA polymerase
d) Rifampin 4. 50S ribosomal submit
5. Aminoacyl tRNA

A) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-1 B) a-5, b-1, c-4, d-2
C) a-2, b-5, c-4, d-1 D) a-2, b-5, c-1, d-4

6. In almost all mammalian cells, glucose transport occurs by
A) Active transport B) Facilitated Diffusion
C) Simple diffusion D) None of the above

7. A Phage stores its genetic information in single-stranded DNA. When DNA was
extracted and analysed from this virus particles, 29 percent of bases were found to be
Adenosine residues. What percentage of the bases in this DNA were Guanosine
residues?
A) 21 B) 29
C) 50 D) cannot determine from this information

8. Which one of the following is known as Kornberg’s enzyme?
A) DNA polymerase III B) DNA polymerase II
C) DNA polymerase I D) DNA polymerase V

9. The fluidity of a phospholipid membrane increases when the fatty acid:
A) Chain length increases and degree of unsaturation decreases
B) Chain length decreases and degree of unsaturation increases
C) Chain length decreases and degree of unsaturation decreases
D) Chain length increases and degree of unsaturation increases

10. A technique used to follow the movements of molecules in the membrane of living
cells:
A) NGS B) SDS-PAGE
C) FRAP D) X-ray Crystallography

11. The map generated by interrupted conjugation is marked off in units of
A) Frequency of mutation B) Average number of crossing over
C) Length of DNA transferred D) Time required for transfer

12. Choose the statements which is/are true?
1. If two transposons in opposite orientation on the same chromosome pair and
cross over, the segments between them will be inverted
2. If two transposons in the same orientation on the same chromosome pair and
cross over, the segments between them will be deleted
3. If two transposons in opposite orientation on the same chromosome pair and
cross over, the segments between them will be deleted
4. If two transposons in the same orientation on the same chromosome pair and
cross over, the segments between them will be inverted

A) 1&4 B) 1&2 C) 2&3 D) 1 only

13. In a randomly mating population, a gene P has three alleles, P1, P2, and P3 with
frequencies 0.2, 0.3 and 0.5 respectively. The combined frequencies of all
heterozygote in this population are:
A) 2 B) 1 C) 0.03 D) 0.62

2

14. Haemophilia is caused by X-linked recessive allele. In a particular population the
frequency of males with Haemophilia is 1/5000. Calculate the expected frequency of
females with Haemophilia:
A) 0.0002 B) (0.0002)2 C) 0.0004 D) 0.0001

15. Immediately after the synthesis of mRNA:
A) Methyl guanosine is added to 5’ end and Poly (A) tail is added to 3’ end of mRNA
B) Methyl guanosine is added to 3’ end and Poly (A) tail is added to 5’ end of mRNA
C) Methyl cytosine is added to 3’ end and Poly (A) tail is added to 5’ end of mRNA
D) None of the above reactions will happen

16. Choose the statements which is/are correct about protein glycosylation:
1) The N-linked glycosylation begins in the ER and continues in the Golgi-complex
2) The N-linked glycosylation takes place exclusively in the Golgi-complex
3) The O-linked glycosylation begins in the ER and continues in the Golgi-complex
4) The O-linked glycosylation takes place exclusively in the Golgi-complex

A) 1 only B) 2&3 C) 4 only D) 1&4

17. During cancer treatment hair loss is a common. The reason behind this is:
1) Skin is comparatively more vascularized than other tissues
2) The therapeutic agent is a keratin inhibitor
3) The therapeutic agent inhibits the proliferating cells in the hair
4) The therapeutic agent activates new hair formation

A) Only 1 is correct B) Only 2 & 3 are correct
C) Only 3 is correct D) Only 3 & 4 are correct

18. Slow-twitch (type I fibers) are thinner, with a denser capillary web, and appear red
owing to the existence of a great amount of-----.
A) Myoglobin B) Haemoglobin
C) Low glycogen levels D) High mitochondrial numbers

19. When freshly isolated intact mitochondria were incubated with ADP and inorganic
phosphate neither the oxygen consumption nor the ATP synthesis could be detected.
Addition of succinate resulted in increased oxygen consumption as well as ATP
synthesis with time. Subsequent addition of cyanide to this system will result in which
one of the following?
A) Both oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis are inhibited
B) Oxygen consumption continues but ATP synthesis is inhibited
C) Oxygen consumption is inhibited but ATP synthesis continues
D) Both oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis continue

3

20. Saccharose is a synonym for------.
A) Glucose B) Sucrose C) Fructose D) Starch

21. Maximum number of voltage gated calcium channels can be found at:
A) postsynaptic membrane of an electrical synapse
B) presynaptic membrane of an electrical synapse
C) postsynaptic membrane of a chemical synapse
D) presynaptic membrane of a chemical synapse

22. ‘HeLa’ is a well-known-----used in research labs.
A) High Efficiency Low particle filter
B) First continuous fed fermenter
C) Thermopolymerase
D) Cell line

23. Find the weakest interaction among the following:
A) Covalent bonding B) Hydrogen bonding
C) Electrostatic attractions D) Van der Waals attractions

24. The proteins which help in the process of fusion of the transport vesicle to target
membrane and cargo delivery is:
A) Agglutinin B) CRP C) SNARE D) HRP

25. Triglycerides serve as major energy reservoir because they are-----.
A) Oxidized and anhydrous B) Reduced and hydrated
C) Reduced and anhydrous D) Oxidized and hydrated

26. When the outermost high energy phosphate bond in ATP is hydrolysed under standard
conditions, the energy released is equal to-----.
A) 7.3 kcal/mole B) 21.9 kcal/mole
C) 7.3 J/mole D) 21.9 J/mole

27. Match Group I with Group II
Group I Group II
a. Bt gene 1. Golden rice
b. -carotene biosynthetic genes 2. Insect resistance
c. ACC deaminase 3. Herbicide resistance
d. EPSP synthase 4. Fruit ripening

A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 D) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

4

28. Choose the statements about glycolysis:
1. Total of 4 ATP produced per one fructose 1,6-diphosphate
2. Total of 2 ATP produced per one fructose 1,6-diphosphate
3. The phosphorylation step of glucose is reversible in liver cells
4. In liver the phosphorylation of glucose is promoted by Glucokinase

A) Only 1 is correct B) Only 2 and 4 are correct
C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct D) Only1, 3 and 4 are correct

29. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Each myofibril is composed of myosin and actin filaments at a ratio of 1:2
2. The light bands in the myofibrils contain only actin filaments and thus called A bands
3. The ends of the myosin filaments are attached to a Z disk
4. The part of the myofibril that comes between two successive Z disks is call a
Sarcomere

A) 1, 2 and 3 only are correct B) 1 and 4 only are correct
C) Only 1 and 2 are correct D) Only 4 is correct

30. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).
Assertion (A): Glycine is the highly conserved amino acid residue in the evolution of
proteins
Reason (R) : Glycine has the smallest side chain of any amino acids

A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A
B) A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A
C) A and R are false
D) A is false but R is true

31. The absorption coefficient of a protein at 600nm is 12000 M-1cm-1. What is the
absorbance of 1mg/ml (4.5 X 10-5 M) solution across a 1-cm path length?
A) 0.870 B) 0.720 C) 0.540 D) 0.420

32. Assertion(A): Phosphoenolpyruvate has a high phosphoryl-transfer potential
Reason (R) : The phosphoryl group traps the molecule in its unstable enol form

A) A and R are correct and R is the reason for A
B) A is correct and R is wrong
C) A is wrong but R is correct
D) A and R are wrong

5

33. If glucose is labelled with 14C at C-6, where we can find the radioactive label after
oxidative phase of pentose phosphate pathway
A) C-2 of ribulose 5- phosphate B) C-1 of ribulose 5- phosphate
C) C-5 of ribulose 5- phosphate D) C-6 of ribulose 5- phosphate

34. Assertion (A) : Treatment of carbonic anhydrase with high concentrations of EDTA
results in loss of enzyme activity
Reason(R) : EDTA will bind and remove Mg2+, which is required for Carbonic
anhydrace enzyme activity
A) A and R are true and R is the reason for A
B) A and R are true and R is not the reason for A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A and R are false

35. Choose the correct statements about noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes
1) An inhibitor and a substrate can bind simultaneously to an enzyme
2) KM is unchanged
3) Can be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration
4) Vmax is increased

A) Only 1,3 & 4 are correct B) Only 1 & 2 are correct
C) Only 1 & 4 are correct D) Only 1, 2 & 4 are correct

36. Psychrophiles are organisms that grow at:
A) high salt concentration B) high sugar concentration
C) low temperature D) low humidity

37. Vesicular-Arbuscular Mycorrhizae (VAM) is found in ------.
A) Plant roots
B) Tooth lichens
C) AIDS and other immunodeficiency conditions
D) Phylloplane

38. Which of the following is a tissue specific macrophage?
A) Osteoclasts B) Osteoblasts
C) Melanocytes D) Dendritic cells

39. The Papain enzyme digestion of IgG will yield:
A) Two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment
B) One Fab fragment and two Fc fragments
C) One Fab fragment and one Fc fragment
D) Two heavy chains and two light chains

6

40. A complete virus particle, consisting of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA
enclosed in a coat protein, is called a ------.
A) Viroid B) Virion C) Virusoid D) Prion

41. The time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms or spores in a sample under
specified conditions is
A) L value B) D value C) K value D) M value

42. Choose the correct statement about T lymphocytes:
A) Both CD4 and CD8 glycoproteins are expressed on the surface of all T
lymphocytes
B) T cells displaying CD4 generally functions as TH cells, whereas those
displaying CD8 generally functions as Tc cells
C) T cells displaying CD4 generally functions as TC cells, whereas those
displaying CD8 generally functions as TH cells
D) Neither CD4 nor CD8 is expressed on T lymphocytes

43. Choose the correct statements:
1) TH cells are class II MHC restricted and Tc cells are class I MHC restricted
2) TH cells are class I MHC restricted and Tc cells are class II MHC restricted
3) All nucleated cells express class II MHC molecules and expression of class I
MHC molecule is limited to antigen-presenting cells
4) All nucleated cells express class I MHC molecules and expression of class II
MHC molecule is limited to antigen-presenting cells

A) Only 1 & 3 B) Only 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 4 D) Only 2 & 4

44. Choose the statements which are correct about monoclonal antibody:
1) They are specific for a single epitope
2) Comprises a mixture of antibodies, each specific for a particular epitope,
produced from a variety of B-cell clones
3) It is easy to purify monoclonal antibody from polyclonal antibody preparation
4) Have research, diagnostic and therapeutic applications

A) Only 1 & 4 B) Only 1, 2 & 4 C) Only 1 & 3 D) All are correct

45. The drug, aminopterin, in the HAT medium blocks ------.
A) DNA repair mechanism B) Cell-cell fusion
C) Nucleotide synthesis D) Antibody production

46. A patient with myasthenia gravis disease produce auto-antibodies that bind with:
A) Histone proteins B) Acetylcholine receptor
C) TSH receptor D) Fc region of IgG

7

47. The method that can be employed effectively to analyse the diffusion rate of
membrane proteins:
A) Patching and capping B) Immuno diffusion
C) FRAP D) Patch-clamp

48. Individual variations in response to a drug are responsible for the high failure rates of
new drug molecules at the clinical trial stage. What might be the reason for this
individual variation?
A) Variations in the structure of the target molecule
B) Differences in the way that a particular drug is adsorbed and distributed
C) Differences in their metabolism and excretion
D) All of the above

49. After a certain dosage level of the drug, any further increase in the dosage of the drug,
shows no additional effect. This is known as-----.
A) Ceiling effect B) Null effect
C) Threshold effect D) Dose effect

50. Resistance of a population to the infection and pathogen spread due to the immunity
among the large percentage of the population is called:
A) Passive immunity B) Acquired immunity
C) Secondary immunity D) Herd immunity

51. Assertion (A): Although antigen-antibody reactions are highly specific, in some cases
antibody elicited by one antigen can cross-react with an unrelated antigen
Reason (R) : Two different antigens can have equal number of epitopes
A) A is true and R is the reason for A
B) A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
C) A is true but R is not true
D) A and R are not true

52. An example for toxoid vaccine:
A) BCG B) HBsAg
C) Tetanus vaccine D) Salk vaccine

53. Which of the following statement about primer conditions are correct for a
successful PCR experiment?
1) Primers with less than 20% GC content is ideal
2) Sequence with long runs of a single nucleotide should be avoided
3) Primers with significant secondary structures are undesirable
4) The two primers should be complementary to each other

A) 1 & 3 only B) 2 & 3 only C) 1 & 4 only D) 1,2 & 3 only

8

54. Nested PCR is a modification of PCR in which:
A) Adding DNA polymerase after the heat-denaturation step of the first cycle
B) Products of initial PCR amplification are used to seed a second PCR
amplification
C) cDNA serves as the template for DNA polymerase
D) mRNA can be directly used in the amplification reaction

55. Assertion (A) : phage that survive one cycle of growth upon the restrictive host can
become protected from restriction enzyme and can subsequently
reinfect that host efficiently
Reason (R) : their DNA becomes glycosylated by modifying enzymes in host

A) A and R are true and R is the reason for A
B) A is true but R is wrong
C) A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
D) A and R are wrong

56. A single-stranded DNA vector:
A) pBR322 B) pUC18
C) Bacteriophage  D) M13

57. The enzyme terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase catalyze:
A) the formation of phosphodiester bonds between blunt-ended fragments
B) synthesis of homopolymeric 3’ single-stranded tails
C) covalent joining of annealed cohesive ends produced by certain restriction
enzymes
D) modification of internal cytosine residues

58. An affinity column containing immobilized divalent nickel can be used to purify
fusion proteins with:
A) Biotin tag B) Glutathione-S-transferase
C) Polyhistidine tag D) MalE protein

59. Assertion (A) : Despite the success of microbes in biotechnology, mammalian cells
are widely used in biopharmaceutical industry.
Reason (R) : Only mammalian cells can glycosylate human proteins in the correct
manner
A) A is true but R is wrong
B) A and R are correct but R is not reason for A
C) A and R are wrong
D) A and R are correct and R is the reason for A

9

60. Choose the correct statements about primary cell culture of animal cells
1) Freshly isolated cell culture
2) Usually homogenous cultures
3) More representative of the tissue of the origin
4) Very fast growth rate
A) Only 1, 2 & 4 are correct B) Only 1 & 4 are correct
C) Only 1 & 3 are correct D) Only 2 & 4 are correct

61. Common origin of primary tumors of reticulo endothelial system is due to:
A) Impaired CM1 B) Hyper gamma globulinemia
C) Abuse of cortico steroid D) Acquired hemolytic anemia

62. Browning on culture medium often occurs in plant tissue culture experiments due to
the presence of:
A) Certain antibiotics B) Excess sugar in medium
C) Microbial contamination D) Phenolic compounds

63. Shoots developed from in vitro appear brittle, glassy, and water-soaked, this is called
A) Vitrification B) Somaclonal variation
C) Somatic embryogenesis D) Recalcitrance

64. The most commonly used fusogen for protoplast fusion is-----.
A) Sorbitol B) Macerozyme
C) Polyethylene glycol D) 50-100mM CaCl2

65. The procedures or systems designed to minimize accidental release of organisms
during laboratory operations, their dissemination and survival in the environment and
accidental infections to persons is:
A) Containment B) Quarantine
C) Filtration D) None of the above

66. Which of the following is a selectable marker?
A) genes conferring resistance to kanamycin
B) -galacturinidase gene
C) luciferase gene
D) nopaline synthase gene

67. Find the missing value
1,1
1,2,1
1,3,3,1
1,4,- ,4,1

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

10

68. The ‘S’ in the ‘https://’ stands for:
A) safe B) secure C) stable D) secret

69. Choose the correct statements related with the human genome project:
1. There are more than 1 million SNPs.
2. We have some genes which might have come from bacteria
3. Most mutations occur in females
4. Most mutation occur in males
5. No correlation between mutation rate and gender
6. Not more than 60 % of our DNA is junk

A) Only 2, 4 and 6 are correct B) Only 1, 3 and 6 are correct
C) Only1, 2 and 5 are correct D) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

70. Collagen protein consists of three helical chains containing glycine and protine in each
chain. The overall structure of each polypeptide in the molecule is a:
A) Polyprotine I B) Polyglycine 1
C) Polyprotine II D) - helix

71. A=4,6,8,9 B= 6,7,8,9 .What is the set difference A−B?
A) 4,7 B) 7 C) 4,7 D) 4

72. In 200 meters running race 8 participants had the following finishing times in seconds:
28,22,26,29,21,23,24,29. Calculate the Mode, Median, and Mean of this running race
results and Identify the correct answer from the following options
A) ModeMedian=Mean B) Mode meanmedian
C) Mode meanmedian D) Mode meanmedian

73. Which of the following statement is true?
A) The larger the p-value, the more strongly the data contradict null hypothesis.
B) The smaller the p-value, the more strongly the data contradict alternative
hypothesis.
C) The smaller the p-value, the more strongly the data contradict null hypothesis.
D) The larger the p-value, the more strongly the data contradict alternative
hypothesis.

74. Choose the statement which is true about Python and SPSS:
A) Both Python and SPSS are statistical software
B) Python is a statistical software and SPSS is a non-parametric paired t test
C) Python is a programming language and SPSS is a non-parametric paired t test
D) Python is a programming language and SPSS is statistical software

75. Which of the following is not a stop codon?
A) UAG B) UAC C) UAA D) UGA

11

76. When you study the gene expression analysis of a stem cell population, which of the
following strategies will be useful for avoiding false positive results?
A) Treating the sample with RNAse H
B) Treating the sample with RNAse free DNAse
C) Using an exon spanning primer
D) All of the above

77. ----- is NOT a bioinformatic method to study gene expression.
A) t-SNE B) PCA
C) Hierarchical Clustering D) MALDI-TOF

78. The first patent was given for a living organism in connection with a genetically
engineered----.
A) Bacteria B) Drosophila C) Maze plant D) Bacteriophage

79. Plant breeder’s right are granted by a government to:
A) The breeder to exclude others from producing or commercializing the
propagating material of the protected variety
B) Breeders to use a protected variety in breeding programmes without any
obligation to the party holding the PBR title of the initial variety
C) Farmers/farming communities, who provided the genetic resources for the
varieties, to share the profit earned by seed corporations
D) A farmer to use a part of the material produced on his farm, from protected
variety, for planting his own fields without any obligation to the PBR title of
holder

80. The currently operative patent act in India is:
A) Indian Patents Act 1985 B) Indian Patents Act 2014
C) Indian Patents Act 1992 D) Indian Patents Act 1970

81. The definition which best suits for ‘trademark’:
A) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess
qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin
B) is a word or symbol adopted and used by a manufacturer or merchant to
identify his goods and distinguish them from those manufactured or sold by
others
C) Private proprietary information or physical material that allows a definite
advantage to the owner
D) the rights that creators have over their literary and artistic works

82. PDB is an example for:
A) Primary nucleotide sequence database
B) Protein sequence database
C) Macromolecular 3D structure database
D) Sequence motif database

12

83. Quorum sensing is a signaling mechanism usually found in-----.
A) Biofilms B) Epithelium C) Lichens D) Endothelium

84. Characteristics preferred for a tissue engineering scaffold:
1. Biodegradable 2. Porous with interconnected pores
3. Porous without interconnected pores 4. Hydrophobic
5. Non-biodegradable
A) 1 and 2 B) 2, 4 and 5 C) 3, 4 and 5 D) 1 and 3

85. An ideal preservative for Wine:
A) Ethanolamine B) Sodium chloride
C) Sulphur dioxide D) Polyvinyl pyrrolidone

86. The method that can be adopted to test mutation ability of the pollutant:
A) ELISA B) Ames test C) RIA D) Oxidase test

87. The polymer which is an example for bioplastic:
A) Poly -hydroxy butyrate B) Poly vinyl chloride
C) Polycarbonate D) Polystyrene

88. The two major nutrients implicated in eutrophication are
A) Oxygen and Carbon B) Nitrogen and Oxygen
C) Carbon and Phosphorus D) Nitrogen and Phosphorus

89. For effective microbial activity during the activated sludge process, the optimum
BOD: nitrogen: phosphorus ratio is
A) 1: 100: 5 B) 5: 100: 1 C) 100: 5: 1 D) None of these

90. The increase of a pollutant in the organism at the successive trophic level of a food
chain is known as:
A) Bioconcentration B) Bioaccumulation
C) Biomagnification D) Bioconversion

91. Match Group I with Group II
Group I Group II
1) Amylase a) Clarification of juice
2) Pectinase b) Meat tenderizer
3) Papain c) Cheese production
4) Rennet d) Baking industry

A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
C) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c D) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

13

92. The antimicrobial peptide which is permitted as a food preservative:
A) Nisin B) Defensin C) Penicillin D) Histatin

93. Canning is a process for food preservation by the application of -----.
A) Low temperature B) Gamma radiation
C) Thermal sterilization D) Preservatives

94. Yoghurt is commercially manufactured by the fermentation of milk with:
A) Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus
B) Propionibacterium
C) Penicilliumroquefortiand Penicilliumcamemberti
D) Lactobacilli and Brevibacterium linens

95. Sauerkraut is a fermented food prepared from:
A) Meat B) Peas C) Cabbage D) Milk

96. Molasses, which is being used in the production medium of many fermentation
processes is a byproduct of-----.
A) Sugar industry B) Dairy industry
C) Paper industry D) Brewing industry

97. Analyse the following components in connection with the control of aeration and
agitation in the course of fermentation and select the correct components::
1) Impellers 2) Baffles
3) Sparger 4) Auto-titration unit
A) 1 only B) 1 &3 only C) 2 & 4 only D) 1,2 & 3 only

98. Nanoparticles can be used in drug delivery systems to
1) Improve uptake of drug 2) Enhance targeting of drug
3) Increase drug bioavailability 4) Reduce doses of drugs

A) 1&4 B) 1, 2 & 4 C) 1, 2, 3 & 4 D) 1, 3 & 4

99. Paecilomyces lilacinus is widely used as a biopesticide for the control of ------.
A) Moths and butterflies B) Insects
C) Nematodes D) Weeds

100. The disease which is a consequence of DNA repair deficiency:
A) AIDS B) Xerodermapigmentosum
C) Myesthenia gravis D) Pneumonia

101. Cell population acquires new potentially advantageous traits that give rise to more
competitive clones in cancer. This is known as:
A) Competitive colonization B) Clonal evolution
C) Mutation stress D) Neo colonization

14

102. The diagram that shows the relationship among the members of a family is------.
A) Karyotype B) Heat map C) Pedigree D) Mammogram

103. Choose the statements which are correct about Riboswitches:
1) are mRNAs
2) are tRNAs
3) bind to a metabolite and allow to alter the gene expression
4) bind to repressor and allow to alter the gene expression
A) 2 & 3 only B) 2 only C) 1 & 3 only D) 2 & 4 only

104. Translate the following amino acid sequence into one letter code
Val-Ile-Asn-Glu-Leu-Val-Ile-Ser-Ile-Ser-Leu-Ile-Gly-Ala-Ser-Gly-Ile-Asn-Leu-Ala-
TYR- Val-Trp
A) VIAGLVISISLIGASGIALAYVT
B) VINELVISISLIGASGINLAYVW
C) VINGLVISISLIGASGINLATVR
D) VINELVISISLIGASGINLAYVT

105. Choose the statement which is true about gel permeation chromatography:
A) Large molecules flow more rapidly through the column and emerge first
B) Small molecules flow more rapidly through the column and emerge first
C) The separation is not based on the size of the molecules
D) None of the above

106. Identify the amino acid, which are not involved in the building blocks of proteins:
1) Ornithine 2) Cystein 3) Citrulline 4) Methionine

A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C) 2 only D) 3&4

107. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an example for the---
A) Alcohol fast B) Acid fast
C) Alcohol and acid fast D) None of the above

108. The selection of B cells and their differentiation to plasma cells occurs at….
A) Primary lymphoid organs B) Secondary lymphoid organs
C) Bone marrow D) Thymus

109. The sugar derivatves which is/are present in the peptidoglycan layer of bacteria:
1) N-acetylneuraminic acid 2) N-acetyl-glucosamine
3) N-acetylmuramic acid 4) N-acetyl-galactosamine

A) 1&2 B) 2&3 C) 1&4 D) 4 only

15

110. Which of the following is a recently developed technique in biotechnology?
A) Hydrogel B) MRI C) CRISPR D) PCR

111. Most useful restriction-modification system for gene manipulation is
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IIs

112. Choose the correct statements about YACs
1) much larger size than  replacement vectors
2) large genes are less likely to be contained within a single clone
3) widely used for the construction of libraries of large genomes

A) 1 &2 only B) 1 & 3 only C) 2 only D) 2& 3 only

113. Choose the statements which are true about chloroplast transformation:
1) There is no risk of the transgene being transmitted through pollen
2) Transgene integrated into chloroplast genome show very low levels of
expression
3) Transformation frequencies are much higher than those for nuclear genes
4) Products of transgene ordinarily accumulates in green parts

A) 1, 2 & 3 only B) 2 & 3 only C) 3 & 4 only D) 1 & 4 only

114. Recombinant therapeutic proteins are produced commercially in:
A) Bacteria B) Yeast
C) Mammalian cells D) All of the above

115. When ‘c’ is a real number larger than or equal to 2 and ‘q & r’ are positive real
numbers, which of the following is a correct formula?
A) logc(1)=0 B) logc(1)=1
C) logc(q.r)=logc (q). logc(r) D) logc(c)=c

116. Suppose you have a number locker which work on combination (order is not
important) and your code to open the locker is 8925. How many combinations could
be used to open that locker?
A) 720 B) 24 C) 1 D) None of these

117. The ChIP-Seq technology is a way to find out the interactions between:
A) DNA and RNA B) DNA and telomerase
C) DNA and proteins D) proteins and proteins

16

118. The post patent grant opposition should be made by the opponent within ……… from
the date of publication of grant.
A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 24 months D) 5 years

119. Choose the greenhouse gases which occur naturally
1) Carbon dioxide 2) Methane
3) Water vapour 4) Chlorofluorocarbons

A) 1&2 B) 1,2&3 C) 1 only D) 2 only

120. Bio diesel, an alternative fuel is provided by the technique:
A) Fermentation B) Esterification
C) Transesterification D) High pressure oxidation

__________________

17