INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pharmacology

INICET
Question
Paper

INI CET 2022 (Nov)
Question Paper
Pharmacology
(Based on Memory Recall)

Q1.A patient who is a known case of HIV is started on combined active antiretroviral
therapy (cART). After 5 months of liquid heat developing hyper pigmentation in the palms
of the hand and soles of feet, what is the most likely drug causing this?

A) Nelfinavir
B) Emtricitabine
C) Abacavir
D) Zidovudine

Q2.The below image shows the life cycle of a virus, which among the following drugs act
at step 5?

A) Raltegravir

B) Enfuvirtide
C) Tenofovir

D) Zidovudine

Q3.An antiarrhythmic drug is shown to have following effect, it is effective both in atrial
and ventricular arrhythmias. Identify the drug

A) Quinidine
B) Tocainide
C) Propranolol
D) Lignocaine

Q4.Which among the following is the false statement regarding statins?

A) Although HMG coA reductase inhibited substantially reduce the risk of cardiovascular
events, there is mild increase in lipoprotein a(Lpa)
B) Drugs should not stopped even in severe conditions like injury surgery etc
C) It can be given with verapamil and other enzyme inhibitors
D) With the long term use, there is slight increase in the incidence of type 2 diabetes
mellitus

Correct answer : C

Q5.Lipid profile of a patient who suffered from acute coronary symptoms is given. He has
LDL 128g/dL, HDL 32 mg/dL, and Triglycerides are 278 mg/dL. What drug can be used to
treat this condition?

A) Fenofibrate 160mg
B) Rosuvastatin + Fenofibrate
C) Rosuvastatin 10 mg
D) Atorvastatin 80 mg

Correct answer : D

Q6.Which of the following is true regarding memantine?
1. Its therapeutic effect is due to its action on NMDA
2. It is reserved for moderate to severe diseases
3. It is used as monotherapy and should not be used with other cholinesterase
inhibitors
4. It is given in the daily dose of 15 - 30 mg/kg

A) 2 and 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3

Q7.An experiment is being conducted on a cat's spine to study the effect of
acetylcholine. The blood pressure is recorded at each intervention and it's shown below.
What does this graph indicate?

A) Muscarinic action of acetylcholine
B) Nicotinic action of acetylcholine
C) Antagonism of acetylcholine
D) Potentiation of acetylcholine

Q8.A patient is brought with altered sensorium and seizures. Attender shows the
laboratory report which reveals elevated transaminases. Which of the following can be
used in this condition?

A) Diazepam
B) Lorazepam

C) Alprazolam
D) Midazolam

Q9.All of the following site effects are most commonly seen with carbamazepine than
oxcarbazepine except

A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypotension
C) Elevated levels of gamma glutamyl transpeptidases
D) Rash

Q10.Match the following diuretics in column A to their site of action in column B

A) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
B) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
C) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
D) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Correct answer : C

Q11.Dorzolamide is a

A) Topically applied sulfonamide antibacterial
B) Topical ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
C) Second generation sulfonylurea
D) Opioid receptor agonist

Q12.Match the following drugs in column A with their contraindications in Column B

A) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
C) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
D) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Q13.Match the following drugs in column A with their targets:

A) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
B) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
C) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D) A-4, B-3. C-2, D-1

Correct answer : D

Q14.A patient with erectile dysfunction is given sildenafil. The penile erectile function is
found to be improved after the therapy. This is mediated by

A) cAMP
B) cGMP
C) Calcium
D) Phosphatidyl glycerol and inositol phosphate

Q15.A hospital is conducting a study to check the efficiency of statins in multiple
centers. There are 4-5 patients and half of them receive drugs and half placebo. Neither
the patients nor clinicians knew who got what. This is best described as

A) Phase 1
B) Phase 3
C) Phase 4
D) Phase 2

Q16.Which of the following is correct regarding the clinical trials?

A) Investigation new drug is done after phase 4
B) Phase 4 is also called post marketing surveillance
C) Phase 3 is always double blinded
D) Phase 2 in done on healthy individuals

Q17.Match the following teratogenic drugs with their teratogenic effects

A) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
B) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
C) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
D) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D

Q18.A young man sustained a scorpion sting 2 hours ago. Aur elimination his blood
pressure is 108/60 mm Hg, HR 72 and respiratory rate 32 per minute. He also complains
of breathlessness. How do you manage this patient

A) Metoprolol

B) Prazosin
C) Ivabradine
D) Furosemide

Q19.A patient who is a known addict is brought to the hospital with the intoxication of an
agent. Ocular examination shows the following, which of the following is true regarding
this condition

A) This action can be reversed by phenylephrine
B) Cannot be reversed by levonordefrin
C) Caused due to activation of Edinger Westphal nucleus
D) Tolerance develops due to long term use

Correct answer : A, B, C

Q20.Urinary alkalinization will be most useful in which of the following toxicities?

A) Beta blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Aspirin
D) Acetaminophen

Correct answer : C

Q21. Alkalinization of urine will be helpful in the removal of

A) Weakly acidic drugs
B) Weakly basic drugs
C) Strong electrolytes
D) Polar drugs

Q21. A pregnant female is on SSRI for depression. Which of the following will be seen in
a newborn?

A. Delayed milestones
B. ADHD

C. Low APGAR score
D. Persistent pulmonary hypertension

A) A,B,C,D
B) A,B,C
C) A,B
D) A

Q22. Which of the following statements are true:
A. Bedaquiline inhibits mycobacterial ATP synthase
B. Pyrazinamide in enzyme inducer
C. Rifampicin is used only in TB
D. Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

A) A,B,C,D
B) A,B,C
C) A,D
D) B,C

Correct answer : C

Q23. Meropenem is indicated in treatment of
A. Intra Abdominal infections
B. MRSA
C. Febrile neutropenia
D. Diabetic foot

A) A,B,C,D
B) A,B,C
C) A,C,D
D) A,D

Correct answer : C

Q24. Drug given preoperatively in thyroid surgery to prevent bleeding:

A) Propranolol
B) Iodides
C) PTU
D) Methimazole

Q25. Match antiaggregants drugs mechanism of action :

A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
B) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Q26. Patient on losartan for 3 years and now has been that diagnosed with type 2
Diabetes mellitus, with HbA1C of 8, what drugs will be given instead of losartan:

A) Telmisartan
B) Olmesartan
C) Metformin
D) Propranolol

Q27. Drug causing contraction of ciliary muscles acts via

A) Na channels
B) IP3-DAG
C) CGMP
D) cAMP

Q28. Identify the following drugs denoted as A, B and C in the image?

A) A-Aspirin, B-Eptifibatide, C-Prasugrel
B) A-Aspirin, B-Eptifibatide, C-Vorapaxar
C) A-Aspirin, B-Eptifibatide, C-Prasugrel
D) A-Aspirin, B-Prasugrel, C-Eptifibatide

Q29. Identify the wrong statement about disulfiram used in alcohol dependence:

A) Does not stop cravings
B) Accumulate acetaldehyde
C) Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
D) Starting dose is 250 mg

Correct answer : C

Q30. Match the mechanism of action of antiarrhythmic drugs:

A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-4
D) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct answer : D

Q31. Regarding antipsychotics use in schizophrenia, correct matches are?

A) 5HT2 antagonist - Causes weight loss
B) Muscarinic antagonism - Treats EPS
C) 5HT-2 block - Treats negative symptoms
D) D2 block - Treats positive symptoms

Correct answer : B,C,D

Q32. Dose-response curves of 3 drugs were given. Pick the right statement:

A) C is a non competitive antagonist
B) A and B are agonist
C) A is more efficacious than B
D) B is more potent than A

Q33. Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency can manifest with which of the following drugs:

A) Primaquine
B) Chloroquine
C) Penicillin
D) Tetracycline

Q34. Sildenafil acts by?

A) Phosphodiesterase 5 inhibition
B) IP3 pathway
C) Nitric oxide and cyclic GMP

D) Cyclic AMP

Q35. Finasteride used to treat male pattern baldness acts by inhibiting?

A) Aromatase
B) 5 alpha reductase
C) 17 hydrolase
D) None of the above

Q36. Which among the following are agonists at β2 receptors?
1. Dipivefrine
2. Dopexamine
3. Mirabegron
4. Fenoldopam

A) 1,2 and 3
B) 1,3 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 3 and 4

Correct answer : C

Q37. True statement about bioavailability and route of Administration:
A. IV; f = 1
B. SC; 0.75 < f< 1
C. IM; 0.75 < f< 1
D. Oral; 0.75 <f < 1

A) A,B,C,D
B) A,B,C
C) A,B
D) A

Q38. Drug which increases trabecular outflow

A) Brimonidine
B) Acetazolamide

C) Timolol
D) Netarsudil

Correct answer : D

Q39.Oral drug given for smoking cessation is

A) Varenicline
B) Cevimeline
C) Muscarine
D) Scopolamine

Q40. Rituximab is a

A) Monoclonal antibody which act against CD20
B) Polyclonal antibody which acts against CD20
C) Monoclonal antibody which acts against CD50
D) Polyclonal antibody which acts against CD50

Q41. Hypertensitive patient with k+6.5 meq/l, Na+ 137 meq/l, Urea 42, Creatinine 3.8.
Which of the following drugs should be stopped:

A) Furosemide
B) Losartan
C) Metoprolol
D) None of the above

Q42. New drug application is filled after phase:

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Correct answer : C

Q43. Atropine is contraindicated in

A) Malignant glaucoma

B) Acute anterior uveitis
C) Closed angle glaucoma

D) Corneal ulcer

Correct answer : C

Q44. Which of the following agents causes QT prolongation and is used in ventricular
arrhythmias?

A) Lidocaine
B) Quinidine
C) Flecainide
D) Digoxin

Q45. Gallstones as a side-effect can be seen with

A) HMG -Co A reductase inhibitors
B) Bile Acid Binding Resins
C) Ezetimibe
D) PPAR - Alpha agonists

Correct answer : D

Q46. Antidepressant contraindicated in angle closure glaucoma is

A) Fluoxetine
B) Mirtazapine
C) Amitriptyline
D) Moclobemide

Correct answer : C

Q47. Which of the following is a novel antidepressant?

A) Asenapine
B) Lurasidone
C) Vilazodone
D) Blonanserin

Correct answer : C

Q48. What is the appropriate serum plasma concentration of lithium for treatment and

prophylaxis of mania?

A) 0.5 - 0.8 mEq/L
B) 0.6 - 1.5 mEq/L
C) 2.0 - 3.0 mEq/L
D) 3.0 - 4.0 mEq/L

Q49.A patient present with high Grade fever, seizure and peripheral blood smear reveals
P.falciparum. What should be used for treatment?

A) IV Artesunate
B) Chloroquine
C) Oral Quinine
D) Oral Doxycycline

Q50.Which of the following drugs acts on the site 1 mentioned in the image?

A) Maraviroc
B) Zidovudine
C) Raltegravir
D) Ritonavir

Q51.Match the site effect of the following drugs:

A) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
D) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Q52.Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine + Artesunate is used in

A) STD
B) HIV
C) Kala Azar
D) Malaria

Correct answer : D

Q53.Which of the following oral Antidiabetic is saved in renal failure?

A) Linagliptin
B) Vildagliptin
C) Saxagliptin
D) Alogliptin

Q54.Alkalinization of urine is done overdosage of

A) Weak acid
B) Weak base
C) High volume of distribution drugs
D) Non polar drugs

Q55.Alkalization of urine will help in ethe excretion of which of the following drug?

A) Acetaminophen
B) Salicylate
C) Digoxin
D) Morphine

Q56. A 14 year old boy patient presented with tachypnoea and BP 106/60 mmHg after
Scorpion bite, which of the following preferred agents?

A) Prazosin
B) Adrenaline
C) Atropine
D) Ivabradine

Q57. In a patient with hyperkalemia, which drugs should be stopped:

A) Furosemide
B) Losartan
C) Metoprolol
D) Amlodipine

Q58. Based on the image, find out the antiplatelet acting on the side mission in the arrow
mark:

A) Spirin

B) Eptifibatide
C) Prasugrel

D) Vorapaxar

Q59.Which of the following agent is given prior to thyroid surgery to decrease the blood
loss during surgery:

A) Steroids
B) PTU
C) Methimazole
D) Potassium iodide

Correct answer : D

Q60.Which of the following DPP4 inhibitors is given in CKD patients without dose
modification?

E) Linagliptin
F) Vildagliptin
G) Saxagliptin
H) Alogliptin

Q61. MOA of sildenafil is

A) Via NO and Cgmp
B) Selective PDE5 inhibitor
C) Via IP3 and DAG pathway
D) Promotes Na+ influx