INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) OBGyn

INICET
Question
Paper

INI CET 2022 (Nov)
Question Paper
OB-Gyn
(Based on Memory Recall)

Q1. The following are correct regarding normal Placenta except

A) Placenta weight 500g
B) round oval with 22 CM diameter
C) Central thickness less than 2.5 CM
D) Extraplacental membrane and two vessel umbilical cord

Correct answer : D

Q2. Which of the following suggests primary amenorrhoea

A) 11 year old girl with tanner stage 1 breast
B) 13 year old girl with tanner stage 5 breast
C) 14 year old girl with tanner stage 1 breasts
D) 12 year old with tanner stage 4 breasts

Q3. What can be used in 1st trimester MTP except

A) Mifepristone + Misoprostol
B) Dilatation and curettage
C) Extra amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate
D) Manual Vacuum Aspiration

Q4. All are causes of uterine dysfunction except

A) Neuraxial block
B) High fetal head station
C) Multiparity

D) Chorioamnionitis

Q5. All are long term reversible methods of contraception except

A) Progestin injection
B) Female sterilization
C) Levonorgestrel and copper containing intrauterine devices
D) Subcutaneous progestin implants

Correct answer : B

Q6. What is the age group distribution for vulvar cancer

A) 35-55
B) 45-85
C) Both A and B
D) No specific age group

Correct answer : B

Q7. A woman with eclampsia is started on magnesium sulphate, what is the first sign of
MgSO4 toxicity?

A) Hypotension
B) loss of knee jerk
C) Reduced muscle tone
D) Respiratory depression

Correct answer : B

Q8. According to new WHO guidelines, what is the minimum number of antenatal visits
recommended to have a positive pregnancy outcome?

A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10

Q9. Steps of D & C
1. Serial dilation

2. Curettage
3. Uterine sound
4. Assessment of uterine size and direction

A) 4312
B) 4321
C) 4231
D) 4123

Q10. What is false regarding late decelerations

A) At least 10 beats, 2 times in a 20 minute period ever baseline
B) they are smooth and gradual
C) starts after uterine contraction ends and end after uterine contraction ends
D) not associated with accelerations

Q11. Not a component of biophysical profile:

A) Amniotic fluid volume
B) Fetal tone
C) NST
D) DFMC

Correct answer : D

Q12. All are true about biophysical profile except

A) Include breathing, movement, tone and amniotic fluid volume
B) Can tell us about fetal outcome and fetal pH
C) score is inconsistent with fetal pH at different gestational ages
D) Score < 4; fetal pH < 7.2; Score 0: 100% fetal acidemia

Q13. Wrong statement regarding POG calculation

A) Calculated from last day of menstrual cycle
B) first trimester USG is the best assessment

C) In an IVF pregnancy, day of embryo transfer/day of fertilization is needed to calculate
POG

D) Crown - rump length is the best measure in the first trimester

Q14. A 15 year old present with absent menses. Examination shows widely spaced
nipples, webbed neck, Tanner grade 1 breast development. USG shows streak ovaries. In
v shows - raised FSH, raised LH, reduced estradiol. What is the diagnosis?

A) Turner’s
B) Kallman’s
C) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D) Mayer rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome

Q15. Under the anemia mukt Bharat program, mild to moderate anemia is treated using:

A) Iron and folic acid tablets - 3 tablets OD
B) Iron and folic acid 2 tablets OD + IV sucrose
C) IV sucrose for non compliance with oral tablets
D) IM Ferric carboxy maltose

Q16. All of the following are risk factors of Vulval ca except

A) Vulval dystrophy
B) Vulval hamartoma
C) Smoking
D) Vulval warts

Correct answer : B

Q17. The non contraceptive uses of oral contraceptives include all except

A) Protects against STDs including HIV
B) Reduces the risk of ovarian Ca
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Reduces the risk of endometrial Ca

Q18. A woman with 35 + 5 bks gestation complains of epigastric pain, headache, and
blurring of vision. Her HR—-, BP - 170/110. She is in labor pain?? Examination shows 3
cm dilatation, bag of liquor. What is management?

A) Conservative management
B) Administer tocolytics and deliver at 37 wks
C) Treat hypertension, administer MgSO4, and consider termination of pregnancy
D) Give steroid cover and wait until steroid cover is complete

Q19. Placenta previa will show

A) Dark painful bleeding
B) Uterine tenderness
C) Increased/large uterine size
D) Warning bleeds

Correct answer : D

Q20. APH due to abruption shows - multiple choice

A) Uterine tenderness
B) Firm uterus
C) Painless vaginal bleeding
D) Increased uterine size

Correct answer : A, C, D

Q21. Image - tuft of hair. The appearance of an ovarian mass is given below. This is
suggestive of :

A) Mature cystic teratoma
B) Immature teratoma

C) Mucinous cystadenoma
D) Serous cystadenoma

Q22. A woman present at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following signs can be
elicited at this gestation?

A) Goodell's sign
B) Osiander sign
C) Internal balloting
D) Lightening

Correct answer : A,B

Q23. Consider the following action under AMTSL. Arrange them in the right order:

A) Exclude the presence of another fetus
B) Give uterotonic ( oxytocin 10 mg)
C) Controlled cord traction
D) Uterine massage

A) A,B,C,D
B) C,B,A,D
C) A,C,D,B
D) D,A,C,B

Q24. Image - graph. What can be said about the graph

A) This is a non stress test
B) The baseline shows that the fetus has tachycardia
C) The Beat to beat variability is less/inadequate
D) This is uterine contraction graph

Q25. Image shows marginal code and also a separated lobe. This image show

A) Succenturiate lobe
B) Marginal insertion/Velamentous insertion of the cord
C) Both succenturiate and marginal insertion
D) Normal placenta

Q26. Hormone secreted by Placenta is

A) Human chorionic gonadotropin
B) FSH
C) LH
D) GnRH

Q27. Perimortem c-section is done

A) LSCS
B) Pfannenstiel incision
C) Upper segment CS
D) Done in OT

Q28.Vagitus uterinus

A) Cry of baby in the womb
B) Infection of vagina
C) Infection of uterus
D) Infection of both vagina and uterus

Q29. Match the following - (which column was correctly matched )
1. CVS
2. amniocentesis
3. Fetal blood sampling
4. Fetoscopy

A) Done at 8-12 wks
B) Done at 19-20 wks
C) Fetal organs visualized
D) Amniotic fluid assessed for detection of AFP

A) 2,4
B) 1,3
C) 1,4
D) 2,3

Q30. Arrange Cardinal movements of labour in sequence

A) Engagement
B) Restitution
C) External rotation
D) Crowning

A) A,D,B,C

B) A,B,C,D
C) D,C,B,A
D) None of the above

Q31. True about ovarian cancer recurrence

A) Platinum susceptible if recurrence is < 6 months
B) Partially platinum resistant if recurrence is 6 - 12 months
C) Platinum resistant if recurrence is > 12 months
D) Platinum resistant if recurrence occurs at < 6 months

Correct answer : D

Q32. All are LARC except

A) Implants
B) IUD
C) Tubal ligation
D) Injectable contraception

Q33. cancer caused by DES

A) Sarcoma botryoides
B) Squamous cell cancer of vagina
C) Pagets disease of vagina
D) Clear cell cancer vagina

Correct answer : D

Q34. All are True about late deceleration except

A) Start with or after contractions but always end after contraction
B) Symmetrical and wide
C) > 10 - 20 bpm from baseline
D) Variable and short

Correct answer : D

Q35. Part of HPV virus is used to make the vaccine

A) E6
B) E7
C) L1
D) E1

Q36. Image of an NST graph ( with no trace of uterine constructions )

A) Beat to beat at abnormality is abnormal here
B) Basal fetal heart rate here is tachycardic
C) It is a ctg
D) It is a non stress test

Correct answer : D

Q37. All are additional benefits of oral contraceptive except

A) HIV and std
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Ovarian cancer
D) Ectopic pregnancy

Q38. Non immune hydrops seen in all except

A) Syphilis
B) Rubella
C) Herpes simplex
D) HIV

Correct answer : D

Q39. Arrange in sequence for third stage management

A) Check for 2nd baby
B) Oxytocin 10 units
C) Controlled cord traction
D) Massage

Correct answer : A,B,C,D

Q40. Identify type of ovarian tumour

A) Immature teratoma
B) Mature teratoma
C) Serous cystadenoma
D) Mucionpus cystadenoma

Correct answer : B

Q41. Which statements is not true about the image should below

A) Bilateral in 80 %
B) Low risk of malignancy
C) Highest risk of torsion
D) None of the above

Q42. When is the following procedure done:

Answer : >= 15 weeks

Q43. Your next patient is a 55 year old G2P2 new patient who has been referred from one
primary care provider for the current yeast vaginitis. Review of her outside medical
record reveals 5 episodes of vulvar pruritus that are treated with oral and vaginal
antifungal meditation. The patient says these helped persist but her intense pruritus has
persisted for more than a year. Her Wet prep shows a pH of 5.5, rare pseudohyphae, no
lactobellis, no WBC or RBC and rare clue cells. What is the diagnosis

A) Angioma of vulva
B) Lichen planus
C) Lichen sclerosus
D) None of the above

Q44. Which hormone do no influence fetal growth

A) TSH
B) IGF
C) Steroid
D) Growth hormone

Q45. Name the sign in which you see gas in bio vessels and heart

Correct answer : Robert sign

Q46. Match the following:

A) Thalidomide - phocomelia
B) Isotretinoin - microtia
C) Chloramphenicol - gray baby
D) Warfarin - depressed nasal bridge

Correct answer : As matched above

Q47. SSRI in pregnancy causes (multiple correct)

A) ADHD
B) Low apgar
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Delayed motor development

Correct answer : B,C,D

Q48. An NCCT scan was suggested for a lady of reproductive age. She presented with a
history of recent and Rapid onset headache.Which of the following enquiry ought to be
made by the radiology technician prior to the scan?

A) H/o fall
B) LMP
C) H/o hypertension
D) Cochlear implant

Correct answer : B

Q49. Arrange the sequence of events in D and C?
1. Uterine sound
2. Serial dilatations
3. Curetting
4. Determine the size of the uterus

A) 4,1,2,3
B) 4,2,3,1
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 4,3,2,1

Q50. Which of the following arteries are branches of posterior division of the internal iliac

arteries?
A. ILiolumbar artery

B. Lateral sacral
C. Superior gluteal
D. Inferior epigastric

A) A,B,C
B) A,B,D
C) B,C
D) A,C,D

Q51. Which of the following methods of contraception is Irreversible? (All are LARC
except?)

A) Injectable contraceptive drugs
B) Implants
C) Sterilization
D) IUCD