aglasem.com
Schools Admission Mock Test Playground
ClassChoose class
StateSelect state

INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology

Download the INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology PDF for free at AglaSem. Solving this previous year question paper helps you understand the real INI CET exam pattern, question types, difficulty level and marking scheme, and reveals important repeated topics — practise it to build speed, accuracy and exam confidence. More Detail
INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology - Page 1 of 16

Finished viewing? Save it for later —

Download INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology (PDF · 16 pages)
Downloaded 47 times

About INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology

INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology is available here for free download. Published by AIIMS for Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test, this question paper can be viewed online or downloaded as a PDF (16 pages). Candidates preparing for Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test can use INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology to understand the exam pattern, the type of questions asked, and the overall difficulty level.

Frequently Asked Questions

How can I download INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology?

Open this page and click the Download button to save INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology as a PDF. It is completely free on AglaSem Docs.

Is INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology free to download?

Yes. INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology can be viewed online and downloaded as a PDF free of cost on AglaSem Docs.

How many pages does INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology have?

INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology contains 16 pages, which you can read online or download together as a single PDF.

Where can I find more Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test study material?

You can find more Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test question papers, sample papers, syllabus, and answer keys on AglaSem Docs.

INI CET 2022 Question Paper (Nov) Pathology – Text

Read the full text of this question paper below — useful to quickly search, copy and reference the content online without downloading the PDF.

📄 View text version (16 pages)

Page 1

INICET
Question
Paper

Page 2

INI CET 2022 (Nov)
Question Paper
Pathology
(Based on Memory Recall)

Q1. A man presented with fever, night sweat and weight loss for 2 months.On
examination, non tender , rubbery lymph nodes were palpable in the supraclavicular and
inguinal regions on both sides. Lymph node biopsy showed the presence of bi -
nucleated cells. Which markers will be seen in this condition?
A. CD 15
B. CD 30
C. CD 19
D. CD 3

A) A, B, D
B) B, C, D
C) B and C
D) A and B

Q2. Senile atrophy is seen in

A) Denervation
B) Decreased nutrition
C) Decreased workload
D) Reduced blood supply

Q3. Identify the given instrument shown below:

Page 3

A) Salah’s needle
B) Jamshidi bone marrow biopsy needle
C) Islam needle
D) Klima needle

Q4. Carcinogen associated with clear cell carcinoma of the female genital tract is?

A) DES
B) Alcohol
C) OCP
D) Tobacco

Q5. Which molecules help the leukocytes to roll over the endothelial cells in the vessels?

Page 4

A) Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecules - 1
B) E - selectins
C) Cadherins
D) Cd11a

Correct answer : B

Q6. Match the following:

A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B) C-1, D-2, A-3, B-4
C) D-1, A-2, D-3, C-4
D) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Q7. A 10 year old boy with elevated platelet count, Hb - 9g/dL, MCV - 60 fl and MCH - 20
pg, S.ferritin - 185 Microgram/L, Elevated lymphocytes and neutrophils, what is the type
of anemia? (values and normal range was mentioned)

A) Anemia of chronic disorder
B) Thalassemia
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Sickle cell anemia

Q8. A patient with bare lymphocytic disease, graft vs host reaction does not occur due to

A) Complement deficiency
B) MHC class 1 deficiency on lymphocytes

C) Deficiency of CD4T lymphocytes
D) MHC class 2 deficiency on lymphocytes

Page 5

Q9. Which cytokine is not secreted by Th1 cells
1. IL - 12
2. IFN gamma
3. IL 2
4. IL 4

A) 1,2,3
B) 1,3,4
C) 4 only
D) 1,4

Correct answer : C

Q10. An adult male patient presented with shortness of breath, hemoptysis and weight
loss.On examination, hilar mask was present. Histopathological image is shown below.
Histopathological revealed that the cells were positive for p40, what is the diagnosis ?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma lung
C) Small cell cancer lung
D) Large cell carcinoma

Q11. A chronic smoker with 24 packs of cigarettes presented with breathlessness and
chest pain. A lung mass is seen radiologically. On staining, cells are positive for
chromogranin. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A) Sq CC
B) Adenocarcinoma lung
C) Small cell ca lung

D) Large cell carcinoma

Page 6

Correct answer : C

Q12. Which of the following is not true regarding hemophilia A?

A) Factor 8 deficiency
B) X linked recessive inheritance
C) More common in males
D) Mucosal bleeding is seen commonly

Q13. True about Hereditary spherocytosis is

A) At least 25% cases as a family history of HS
B) High MCH is pathognomonic of HS
C) Gallstones develop by 4 -5 years of age
D) Splenectomy does not protect against developing gallstones

Q14. An adult female is diagnosed with a gastric tumor which on biospy shows cell
which are CD 117 positive but cytokeratin, S 100 negative. What is the most probable
diagnosis?

A) GIST
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma

Q15. A child present with multiple skin lesions over the inner thigh and genital areas. It
initially started as macules and later developed to become nodules. Some nodules have
central umbilication. The representative of the Histology of the lesion is shown below,
what would be found on biopsy?

Page 7

A) Handerson Paterson bodies
B) Donovan bodies
C) Multinucleated giant cells ( Tzanck cells)
D) Koilocytes

Q16. A patient has WBC count of 4,50000/UL with eosinophilia, basophilia, neutrophilia.
What is the diagnosis?

A) CML
B) CLL
C) AML
D) ALL

Q17. Which of the following are true regarding sirtuins?
1. Increases insulin sensitivity and thus glucose metabolism.
2. Promotes genes with increased longevity.
3. There are seven types.
4. Type of histone deacetylase.

A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 2,3
D) 2,4

Correct answer : B

Q18. Match the following stains and the tissue.

Page 8

A) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
B) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C) 1-A, 2-B, 4-D, 3-C
D) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

Correct answer : C

Q19. The given peripheral smear associated with which leukemia?

A) AML
B) CLL
C) CML
D) ALL

Correct answer : B

Q20. Which of the following is not associated with poor prognosis of B ALL?

A) t(11:14)
B) Hyperdiploidy
C) t(9:22)
D) Age < 1 year

Correct answer : B

Q21. A 19 year old female presents with a midline neck swelling that moves on
deglutition and on USG a 2cm x 2 cm nodule is found on the left lobe of thyroid

Page 9

extending into the strap muscles. Histopathology image is given below. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Picture showing many papillary projections and orphan annie nuclei

A) Medullary CA thyroid
B) Follicular CA thyroid
C) Thyroglossal cyst
D) Papillary CA thyroid

Q22. Maximum amplitude is a thromboelastography image?

A) Platelet
B) Intrinsic
C) Extrinsic
D) vWD

Correct answer : a

Q23. Which of the following are true about FAP

A) It is autosomal recessive
B) If FAP is not treated 100% of the cases progress to Adenocarcinoma colon
C) It is associated with a gene mutation in KRAS
D) It is associated with Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment

Correct answer : B,D

Q24. Which of the following is true about proto oncogenes

A) KIT decreases the expression of GIST via the Tyrosine kinase signaling pathway.

B) KRAS mutation is more commonly associated with small cell lung cancer.
C) ERBB2 is over expressed in association with breast carcinomas.
D) PDGFRB has suppressed expression in colorectal cancers.

Page 10

Correct answer : C

Q25. A child with neurological problems. Bone marrow biopsy is given below. What is the
most likely diagnosis:

A) Gaucher’s disease
B) Tay sachs disease
C) Mucopolysaccharidosis
D) Krabbe’s disease

Q26. A 35 year old woman presents with fatigue. HB - 5gm%, MCV - 24, Ferritin 10 ng/ml,
low MCV, leukocytes: 11k, Platelets:5 lakhs. The peripheral smear is given below, what is
the diagnosis?

A) Image - microcytic hypochromic
B) Normal values of MCV and ferritin were given for reference
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Thal, major

E) Megaloblastic anemia
F) Essential thrombocytosis

Page 11

Correct answer : C

Q27. Hb - 5g%, absolute reticulocyte count - 9%, calculate corrected reticulocyte

A) 5
B) 4
C) 4.5
D) 3

Q28. Metastatic calcification can be seen in all these conditions except:

A) Renal failure
B) Vit D disorder
C) Metastatic lymph node
D) Hyperparathyroidism

Correct answer : C

Q29. A chronic smoker presents with SOB…..A mass is noted at the lower lobe periphery
of the lung. A diagnosis of lung adenocarcinoma is made. The biopsy will be positive for:

A) TTF - 1
B) P40
C) Napsin A
D) Chromogranin

Correct answer : A,C

Q30. Match the following:

A) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, D-4
B) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
C) 1-B, 2-C, 3-d, 4-A

Page 12

D) None of the above

Q31. Iron in the tissues is stained by

A) Masson’s trichrome
B) Prussian blue
C) Fite faraco
D) PAS

Correct answer : B

Q32. Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to deficiency of :

A) C 5 convertase
B) C 1q inhibitor
C) CD 59
D) C2

Correct answer : B

Q33. A man/woman presents with lesions on inner thighs and peri-anal region. They are
nodular, size 4-6 mm, and appear pale. The histopath appearance is shown in the image
below. It shows intranuclear inclusion bodies consistent with Handerson-Patterson
bodies. The diagnosis is:

A) Trichodysplasia Spinulosa
B) Condyloma acuminata
C) Donovanosis

D) Molluscum contagiosum

Page 13

Q34. Match the following histological grinding with the tumor:

A) Popcorn cell - NLPHL, faggot cell - AML M3, Sezary cell - Cerebriform niclei/mycosis
fungoides, Starry sky - Burkitts lymphoma
B) Popcorn cell - NLPHL, faggot cell - AML M3, Burkiits lymphoma, Starry sky - Cerebriform
niclei/mycosis
C) Popcorn cell -AML M3, faggot cell - NLPHL, Sezary cell - Cerebriform niclei/mycosis
fungoides, Starry sky - Burkitts lymphoma
D) None of the above

Q35. What is the principle of the instrument shown below:

A) Acid hematin
B) Alkali hematin
C) Oxyhemoglobin
D) Deoxyhemoglobin

Q36. A 7 year old child with fever, Erythematous rash, Bone pain, X ray skull shows

multiple lytic lesion, Skin Biopsy shows Prominent Nuclear grooves with eosinophils,
Image shows Immunohistochemistry of S 100, CD 1a, what would be the most likely
diagnosis?

Page 14

A) Rosai dorfman disease
B) Kimura disease
C) Juvenile Xanthogranuloma
D) Langerhan cell histiocytosis

Q37. A child with hemolytic facies, splenomegaly and history of recurrent blood
transfusions. What all investigations would be considered in this patient?
A. Peripheral smear
B. HPLC
C. BM
D. PT, Aptt:

A) A,B
B) B,C
C) C,D
D) A,B,C

Q38. Identify the thyroid pathology, biopsy finding given

A) Medullary carcinoma thyroid
B) Papillary ca thyroid
C) Follicular ca thyroid
D) Anaplastic thyroid ca

Q39. 49 year old female, presents with Breast lump, which of the following fining is in

accordance with Basal like breast cancer
A. ER +, PR +, HER2-

Page 15

B. ER +, Pr-, HER2-
C. ER-, PR-, HER2+
D. ER-, PR-, HER2-

A) A,B,C
B) A,B
C) A,B,C,D
D) D only

Q40. Which of the following are associated with MEN 2 A syndrome

A) Parathyroid hyperplasia
B) MTC
C) Cafe au lait spots
D) Optic nerve glioma

Correct answer : A,B

Q41. Which of the following are USED FOR Vaccination?

A) L1
B) E6,E7
C) E5
D) E4

Q42. Which of the following is involved as protooncogenes/carcinogensis?

Page 16

A) E1, E2
B) E6, E7
C) E5
D) E4

Correct answer : B

Q43. Which of the following is the receptor for EBV?

A) CD19
B) CD21
C) CD22
D) CD20

Correct answer : B

Document Details

Board / OrgAIIMS
ExamInstitute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages16
Updated22 Jul 2026