RRB NTPC Graduate 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 20 Jun (in English)

FOR RRB NTPC GRADUATE EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC Graduate
2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

RRB NTPC Graduate 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English)
DATE

20 Jun

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 20/06/2025
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Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Graduate Level I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : RRB NTPC Graduate Level I
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Q.1 What was the theme for the Republic Day 2025 celebrations in India?
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Ans 1. Swarnim Bharat: Virasat Aur Vikas

2. Celebrating the Constitution

3. Unity in Diversity

4. India@75: A Nation Marching Forward

Q.2 According to the World Bank 2021 data, what was the poverty rate at $2.15 a day (2017
PPP) for India?
Ans 1. 12.92%

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2. 8.9%

3. 15%

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4. 10.5%

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Q.3
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Who is known as the 'Mother of Indian Revolution' for her pioneering role in the early
Indian independence movement and for unfurling the first version of the Indian national
flag abroad?
Ans 1. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

2. Annie Besant

3. Madam Bhikaji Cama

4. Sarojini Naidu

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Q.4 The crescent-shaped sand dunes found in the Thar Desert are called:
Ans
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1. Inselbergs

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s e 3. Barchans
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Ans 1. 154 cm2

2. 108 cm2

3. 135 cm2

4. 147 cm2

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Q.6 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. P has an exam on Wednesday.
Exactly 3 people have an exam between P and S. V has an exam immediately after T,
and Q has an exam immediately before T. Only 3 people have an exam between U and T.
How many people have an exam after Q?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 1

4. 2

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in closest integral ₹) on ₹3,000 at 8% per annum rate of interest
for the period from 14 February 2024 to 15 April 2024.
Ans 1. 39

2. 40

3. 38

4. 41

Q.8 The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 8, and the
perimeter of the park is 264 m. Find the area (in m2) of the park.
Ans 1. 3460

2. 3455

3. 3451

4. 3456

Q.9 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 190 735 494 761 781 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is subtracted from
the second digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. −1

2. 2

3. −2

4. 1

Q.10
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 2

4. 3

Q.11 Which of the following was the famous ruler of the Satavahana dynasty?
Ans 1. Gautamiputra Satakarni

2. Kanishka

3. Bhagabhadra

4. Vasumitra Satakarni

Q.12 A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 70, and
that of the rest is 62. What is the average score of the class?
Ans 1. 64.2

2. 66.2

3. 65.2

4. 63.2

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Q.13 An article is sold for ₹x. If it is sold at 25% of this price, there is a loss of 50%. What is
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the percentage profit when it is sold for ₹x?

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Ans 1. 100%
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2. 101%

3. 97%
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4. 98%

Q.14 ZRVY is related to TLPS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, WOSV is related to QIMP. To which of the given options is UMQT related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. OGNK

2. OGKN

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3. GONK

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4. GOKN

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Q.15
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Which soil is deficient in nitrogen and phosphorus but rich in iron and aluminium?
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Ans
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1. Alluvial soil
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2. Black soil

3. Desert soil

4. Laterite soil

Q.16 The sum of the lengths of the edges of a cube is equal to the sum of the lengths of the
edges of a cuboid whose length, breadth and height are in the ratio 4 : 3 : 1. Find the
volume (in cm3) of the cuboid if the volume of the cube is 512 cm3.
Ans 1. 299

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2. 340

3. 324
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4. 315
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Q.17 ag
In the Indian parliamentary system, who has the authority to dissolve the Lok Sabha
before its term expires?
Ans 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha takes the decision.

2. The Council of Ministers passes a resolution.

3. The Prime Minister advises the President to dissolve it.

4. The Chief Justice of India orders dissolution.

Q.18 In the 2024 Jharkhand Assembly elections, how many seats did the Jharkhand Mukti
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Morcha (JMM) secure out of the total constituencies?
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Ans 1. 30 out of 81

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Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘LINK’ is coded as ‘9236’ and ‘SINK’ is coded as ‘6349’. What
is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 6

3. 9

4. 4

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Q.20 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
5637482, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.21 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(29, 41, 53)
(37, 49, 61)
Ans 1. (53, 65, 77)

2. (67, 79, 101)

3. (36, 48, 50)

4. (40, 52, 74)

Q.22 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

PK23 OJ34 NI45 MH56 ?
Ans 1. LH67

2. LG68

3. LG67

4. LH68

Q.23 The famous dance form 'Kuchipudi' derives its name from the village Kuchelapuram,
which is located in _______________.
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Kerala

Q.24 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. T has an exam on Wednesday.
Exactly 4 people have exams between S and R, neither of whom has an exam on
Monday. Q has an exam immediately before and V has an exam immediately after P. U
has an exam immediately before S. Who has an exam on Sunday?
Ans 1. U

2. P

3. R

4. S

Q.25 What is the primary environmental impact of the release of freon from refrigeration
plants on the atmosphere?
Ans 1. Increased nitrogen

2. Stratospheric ozone depletion

3. Increased oxygen level

4. Reduced greenhouse gas emissions

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Q.26 As per the Goods and Services Tax (Period of Levy and Collection of Cess) Rules, 2022,
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notified by the Finance Ministry, up to which date will the GST compensation cess be

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3. 30 June 2025

4. 31 March 2026

Q.27 ASXZ is related to DVAC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MEJL is related to PHMO. To which of the following options is VNSU related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. YQVX

2. YQXV
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3. YVXQ
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4. YVQX

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Q.28 During the 1886 session of the Indian National Congress in Calcutta, a major demand
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was raised for simultaneous Indian Civil Service examinations in England and India.
Who presided over this session?
Ans 1. WC Bonnerjee

2. Surendranath Banerjee

3. Badruddin Tyabji

4. Dadabhai Naoroji

Q.29 Which of the following actions is essential for preserving changes made to an Excel
workbook under a new file name?
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Ans 1. Selecting 'Save As' and choosing a new name or location

2. Clicking 'Print' from the File tab
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3. Pressing Ctrl + P
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4. Closing the application without saving
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Q.30 Refer to the number and symbol series given below and answer the question that
follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single digit numbers only.)

(Left) @ 2 % * 4 2 & £ % 1 £ & 9 7 & 9 7 $ 9 1 $ 2 (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. 2
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2. 5

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Q.31

Ans 1. 19

2. 21

3. 18

4. 15

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Q.32 What was the rate of increase in capital expenditure by the central government on major
infrastructure sectors from 2019-20 to 2023-24?
Ans 1. 39%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 35%

Q.33 Seven friends, C, D, E, F, G, H and P, are sitting in a row facing north. Only three people
sit between F and C. P sits to the immediate left of C. No one sits to the right of E. Only
two people sit between E and P. H sits to the immediate right of D. How many people sit
between G and H?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four

Q.34 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MH - KJ

2. SV - PS

3. IL - FI

4. PS - MP

Q.35 Which of the following sessions of the INC passed a resolution opposing the Arms Act
and the Vernacular Press Act?
Ans 1. 1895 Poona

2. 1885 Bombay

3. 1888 Allahabad

4. 1887 Madras

Q.36 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 497 581 452 460 775 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(Note: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if second digit of the highest number is subtracted from the
second digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 1

2. −3

3. −1

4. −2

Q.37 The mean of a data is 43 and its median is 78. The mode (using empirical relation) of the
data is:
Ans 1. 80

2. 213

3. 148

4. 102

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Q.38 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
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relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as

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# : UEQ :: VFR : %
Ans 1. # = KUG, % = FPB
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2. # = LUG, % = FPB

3. # = KUG, % = FPU

4. # = KTG, % = FPB

Q.39 A man takes 6 hours to swim 66 km downstream. He swims 42 km upstream in the same
time. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the boat in still water?
Ans 1. 13

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2. 9
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3. 16

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4. 17

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Q.40 The folk song of Kerala, which is sung to send away the evil ghosts and spirits, is
called:
Ans 1. Bhakha

2. Bhuta

3. Baul

4. Wanawan

Q.41

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Ans 1. 39
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2. 78
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3. 52
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4. 65 a
Q.42 Why is decentralised planning considered advantageous in the Panchayati Raj system
in India?
Ans 1. It centralises power in the hands of a few state officials.

2. It slows down the decision-making process, hindering development.

3. It allows local communities to tailor need-based development initiatives.

4. It limits community participation in development planning.
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Q.43 If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number

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248937615, what will be the sum of all the odd digits in the new number thus formed?
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Ans 1. 20
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a 3. 26

4. 24

Q.44 On 15 April 2025, in which city of India STREE Summit 2025 on Women’s Safety and
Empowerment was held?
Ans 1. Patna

2. New Delhi

3. Ahmedabad
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4. Hyderabad
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Q.45 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

912 910 920 918 928 ? 936
Ans 1. 924

2. 930

3. 926

4. 928

Q.46 The fourth proportion to 3, 9 and 4 is the same as the third proportion to A and 12. What
is the value of A?
Ans 1. 12

2. 9

3. 15

4. 13

Q.47 A pipe can fill a tank in 12 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 14 hours. If
both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will
be filled is:
Ans 1. 86

2. 87

3. 85

4. 84

Q.48 Which city is set to host the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Summit in
November 2025?
Ans 1. Incheon

2. Seoul

3. Gyeongju

4. Busan

Q.49 L, M, N, O, P and W live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor
in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on, till the topmost
floor is numbered 6. Only three people live between M and N, where M lives below N. O
lives on an odd-numbered floor and immediately above M. W lives on one of the floors
below P and on one of the floors above L. How many people live between P and L?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Four

Q.50 What is the primary purpose of the semi-cryogenic engine of ISRO in 2025?
Ans 1. To power the main stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)

2. To power the semi-cryogenic booster stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3)

3. To power the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)

4. To power the upper stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3)

Q.51 What will be the difference in population 3 years ago and 2 years ago of a town whose
current population of 1,40,000 is increasing at a rate of 25% every year?
Ans 1. 17,170

2. 17,370

3. 18,270

4. 17,920

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Q.52 In finding the HCF of two numbers by division method, the quotients are 1, 4, and 6,
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respectively, and the last divisor is 29. What is the LCM of the two numbers?

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Ans 1. 22475
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2. 22480

3. 22470
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4. 22476

Q.53 Consider a scenario where a user interacts with a touch-sensitive display. Which of the
following best describes the functional duality of this component within a computer
system?
Ans 1. It acts solely as an output device, displaying visual feedback to the user's actions.

2. It functions exclusively as an input device, capturing the user's touch gestures and commands.

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3. It serves as both an input device, detecting touch input, and an output device, displaying information and visual responses.

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4. Its primary role is data storage, retaining user interactions for later processing.

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Q.54
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If a + b = 46 and (a − b)2 = 612, find the value of product of a and b.
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Ans 1. 460
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2. 376 ag
3. 405

4. 428

Q.55 SUZD is related to ACHL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, YAFJ is related to GINR. To which of the following options is WYDH related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. EGPL

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2. GPEL

3. EGLP
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4. GPLE
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Q.56 ag
Keshav’s salary is ₹13,000 per month. He spends ₹4,000 on house rent, ₹1,500 on bills
and the rest of the amount is his monthly savings. Find his savings (in ₹) in a year, if in
the month of his birthday, he spent his complete monthly savings for the birthday
celebration.
Ans 1. 75,000

2. 67,500

3. 82,500

4. 90,000

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Q.57
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According to the second law of reflection, all the incident ray, the normal to the mirror at
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the point of incidence and the reflected ray:

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Ans 1. lie in the same plane

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a 3. are mutually perpendicular to each other

4. are parallel to each other

Q.58 In a dicot root, which tissue(s) is/are found between the xylem and phloem?
Ans 1. Trichomes

2. Subsidiary cells

3. Guard cells

4. Conjunctive tissue
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Q.59 What is the median of the following data?

65, 67, 32, 16, 64, 27, 37, 16, 43, 85, 77
Ans 1. 44

2. 42.5

3. 43

4. 43.5

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

536, 513, 480, ?, 384, 321
Ans 1. 447

2. 437

3. 427

4. 457

Q.61 A dealer purchased a water cooler for ₹56,000. He allows a discount of 81% on its
marked price and still gains 71%. Find the marked price of the water cooler.
Ans 1. ₹5,03,937

2. ₹5,03,908

3. ₹5,04,030

4. ₹5,04,000

Q.62 Mr. Plex starts from Point A and drives 22 km towards the East. He then takes a left turn,
drives 31 km, turns left and drives 26 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 41 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 18 km to the West

2. 21 km to the West

3. 13 km to the South

4. 10 km to the North

Q.63 The Gini Coefficient is used to measure which of the following?
Ans 1. Unemployment rate

2. Consumption expenditure

3. Income inequality

4. Absolute poverty

Q.64 What happens when you apply a template to an existing MS PowerPoint presentation?
Ans 1. It only changes the background, without affecting text formatting.

2. It applies a new design while keeping the existing slide content.

3. It converts the PowerPoint presentation into a read-only format.

4. It completely replaces all slides and content.

Q.65 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7532168, what will be the difference of the digits which are third from the left and
second from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 3

4. 0

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Q.66 Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a 'page fault' error during
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typical computer operation?

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Ans 1. Accessing data stored in the CPU cache
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2. Writing data to a read-only memory location

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3. Attempting to access a memory address that has been swapped out to the hard drive

4. Executing an instruction directly from the BIOS

Q.67 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) When a transversal cuts two lines such that the pair of corresponding angles are
equal, then the lines have to be parallel.
B) When a transversal cuts two lines such that the pair of alternate interior angles are
equal, then the lines have to be parallel.
C) When a transversal cuts two lines such that the pair of interior angles on the same
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sides of the transversal are complementary, then the lines have to be parallel.

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D) When a transversal cuts two lines such that the pair of interior angles on the same

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sides of the transversal are supplementary, then the lines have to be parallel.
Ans 1. Only A
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2. Only B
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3. Only D

4. Only C

Q.68 2418.4 × 795.8 × 0.3735 is equal in value to:
Ans 1. 2.4184 × 7.958 × 373.5

2. 24.184 × 7958 × 3.735

3. 241.84 × 795.8 × 373.5

4. 2.4184 × 79.58 × 37.35
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Q.69
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As of March 2025, the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP), under the aegis of

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National Health Mission (NHM), is implemented for how many days in India?
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Ans 1. 100

2. 120
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3. 150

4. 90

Q.70 A, B, L, M, S, T and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Z sits fourth to
the right of B. Only two people sit between L and T when counted from the left of L. M
sits third to the left of S. N is an immediate neighbour of S and T. How many people are
there between Z and N when counted from the left of N?
Ans 1. 4
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2. 2

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Q.71 The average age of 4 people is 52 years. Another group has 6 people with an average
age of 58 years. When both groups are combined, what is the average age of all the
people?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.72 Ashoka appointed special officers to spread Dhamma, known as:
Ans 1. Purohits

2. Mahamatras

3. Rajukas

4. Dhamma Mahamatras

Q.73 Who among the following was appointed as the Director General of CRPF in January
2025?
Ans 1. Bahadur Singh Sagoo

2. Sanjiv Ranjan

3. Gyanendra Pratap Singh

4. Manish Singhal

Q.74 The selling price of 30 books is equal to the cost price of 36 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.75 On 7 March 2025, Govind Ballabh Pant's death anniversary, tributes were paid for his
leadership in India's early post-independence years. Which state did he serve as its first
Chief Minister?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttarakhand

Q.76 Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Supreme Court
judgement delivered in April 2025 in a case involving the use of Urdu on a municipal
signboard in Maharashtra?
The Supreme Court overturned the Bombay High Court’s decision that forbade the use
of Urdu on municipal signboards.
The Court held that language must reflect the religion of the majority in a particular
region.
The bench recognised Urdu as part of India’s Ganga-Jamuni tehzeeb and criticised
prejudice against languages.
Ans 1. Only 2 and 3

2. Only 1 and 2

3. 1, 2 and 3

4. Only 3

Q.77 According to the Charter Act of 1853, how many legislative members were there in the
Council of the Governor General?
Ans 1. 14

2. 4

3. 2

4. 12

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Q.78 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states about the formation of
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Union Public Service Commission of India?

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Ans 1. Article 315
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2. Article 318

3. Article 316
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4. Article 317

Q.79 What was the key purpose of amending the Legal Services Authorities Act in 2002?
Ans 1. To replace all regular courts with Lok Adalats

2. To establish permanent Lok Adalats for public utility service disputes

3. To allow Lok Adalats to handle criminal cases

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4. To merge Lok Adalats with High Courts

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Q.80
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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Statements:
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All chain are bracelet.
All bracelet are ring.
Some ring are tops.

Conclusions:
(I) All chain are ring.
(II) Some tops are chain.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

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3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Only conclusion (II) follows
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Q.81 A total profit of ₹25,300 is to be distributed amongst P, Q, and R such that P : Q = 9 : 7

Ans 1. 16,150
a
and Q : R = 3 : 12. The share (in ₹) of R in the profit is:

2. 16,100

3. 16,000

4. 16,050

Q.82 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
6185742, then what will the sum of the highest and lowest digits in the new number thus
formed be?
m
Ans
m
1. 9
.co
m.co 2. 8
s e m
s e 3. 7
g l a
g l a 4. 6 a
a Q.83 Which of the following urban agglomerations has the highest population in India as per
Census 2011?
Ans 1. Delhi

2. Bengaluru

3. Kolkata

4. Mumbai

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.84 In a certain code language, ‘MAZE’ is coded as ‘3647’ and ‘ZIPS’ is coded as ‘1275’.
What is the code for ‘Z’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 7

3. 1

4. 4

Q.85 In a certain code language, ‘VEST’ is coded as ‘3649’ and ‘SOAP’ is coded as ‘1295’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 9

4. 1

Q.86 The area of a rectangle increases by 7 m2 if its length is increased by 6 m and breadth is
decreased by 5 m. If the length is decreased by 6 m and breadth is increased by 7 m,
then its area increases by 31 m2. What is the perimeter of the original rectangle (in m)?
Ans 1. 217

2. 215

3. 216

4. 214

Q.87 Mahesh withdrew ₹3,200 from a bank. He received a total of 33 notes of ₹50 and ₹100
denominations. The number of ₹50 notes received by him was:
Ans 1. 10

2. 9

3. 2

4. 12

Q.88 Which of the following methods is the simplest way to rename a file or folder in
Windows?
Ans 1. Double-click the file to open it

2. Press Ctrl + R

3. Right-click the file/folder → Select Rename

4. Drag the file to the Recycle Bin

Q.89 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is E related to K if ‘E ÷ F − G x H + K’?
Ans 1. Wife's brother

2. Wife's father

3. Son's wife's father

4. Son's wife's brother

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m
.co
Q.90 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
given series to make it logically complete?

. co LOH 1, JMG 4, HKF 9, FIE 16, ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. EFD 36

2. EFG 25 ag l
3. DGD 36

4. DGD 25

Q.91 The speed of a boat in still water is 12 km/hr and the speed of the stream is 10 km/hr. A
man rows to a place at a distance of 24.2 km and comes back to the starting point. Find
the total time (in hours) taken by him.
Ans 1. 5.8

m
.co
2. 7.8
m
.co m
3. 13.2

m s e
4. 4.1

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.92

Ans 1. 28 hours

2. 16 hours

3. 22 hours

4. 33 hours

Q.93 Which major port is NOT located on the western coast of India?
Ans 1. Cochin
m
2. Mangalore

m .co
3. Visakhapatnam
s e
4. Kandla
g la
Q.94
a
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FHC

2. LNJ

3. HJE
m
.co
4. JLG
m
Q.95
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans 1. 3 sinA a
a 2. 3

3. 9 tanA

4. 9

Q.96 In which of the following locations was the PHDCCI International Week scheduled to be
held in March 2025, which is postponed now?
Ans 1. Greater Noida

2. New Delhi
m .
3. Surat
.co s e m
4. Mumbai
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.97 B starts from Point U and drives 5 km towards the South. He then takes a right
turn, drives 2 km, turns right and drives 16 km. He then takes a right turn and
drives 3 km, turns left and drives 1 km. He then takes a right turn, drives 2 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 12 km and stops at Point X. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point U
again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans 1. 3 km towards the East

2. 3 km towards the West

3. 5 km towards the South

4. 7 km towards the North

Q.98

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.99 Which of the following countries is completely landlocked and shares an open border
with India?
Ans 1. Bangladesh

2. Myanmar

3. Nepal

4. Afghanistan

Q.100 Which of the following tennis player captured the 2024 US Open Men’s Singles title,
marking his second Grand Slam win?
Ans 1. Novak Djokovic

2. Carlos Alcaraz

3. Jannik Sinner

4. Daniil Medvedev

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Test Date 20/06/2025
a
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Graduate Level I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : RRB NTPC Graduate Level I
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 According to the Global Risks Perception Survey (GRPS) 2025, what percentage of
l
ag
respondents believe the turbulence outlook over the next 2 years?
Ans 1. 55%

2. 45%

3. 52%

4. 41%

Q.2 Which of the following mountain passes is located in the Pir Panjal range?
Ans 1. Shipki La

m
.co
2. Nathu La

3. Banihal Pass

e m
4. Zoji La

las
Q.3
ag
In which year was the provision for the free legal aid to the poor added to the Directive
Principles of the State Policy of the Constitution of India?
Ans 1. 2002

2. 2011

3. 1978

4. 1976

Q.4 If 2 is added to each even digit and 2 is added to each odd digit in the number 4713562,
m
.co
what will be the sum of the last two and first two digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans
m
1. 23

m.co 2. 27
s e m
s e 3. 29
g l a
g l a 4. 25 a
a Q.5 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
PNQ : QQO
UQR : VTP
Ans 1. OHM : PKK

2. VHQ : WKN

3. QSX : RUV

m .
.co
4. UCT : VFS

e m
em l as
las ag

g
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Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 The shorter side of a rectangle is 21 cm less than the longer side. The numerical value
of its area is equal to 5 times the numerical value of its perimeter. What is the length (in
cm) of its longer side?
Ans 1. 32

2. 47

3. 35

4. 38

Q.8 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

MWC : JYA
KUR : HWP
Ans 1. PAY : MGT

2. WTH : PUR

3. JVP : GXN

4. SLV : QPS

Q.9 Who won the best actress award (critics) at the South Indian International Movie Awards
(SIIMA) 2024?
Ans 1. Alia Bhatt

2. Shraddha Kapoor

3. Aishwarya Rai Bachhan

4. Deepika Padukone

Q.10

Ans 1. 39 hours

2. 33 hours

3. 30 hours

4. 44 hours

Q.11 The Union Council of Ministers in India, as the Chief Executive Organ, implicates which
of the following?
Ans 1. The abolition of the role of the Secretary

2. Ministers leave all work operations to be done by civil servants

3. Each minister is the political head of his/her ministry

4. Centralisation of power in local bodies

Q.12 A and B complete a work in 15 days. If A alone can do it in 17 days, then B alone can do
two-third of the same work in ______________ days.
Ans 1. 85

2. 340

3. 255

4. 170

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.co
Q.13 Kalpana and Sudha got 621 and 522 marks, respectively, in the same examination. If
m
Kalpana scored 69% marks, then what is the percentage of marks scored by Sudha?

. co
Ans 1. 58%
s e m
m a
se l
2. 59%

3. 60%
ag
4. 55%

Q.14 Where is the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board, which was established in
2025?
Ans 1. Kolkata

2. Kochi

3. Guntur
m
4. Nizamabad
m .co
Q.15
m .co
Which body took suo motu cognisance of the news titled 'Experts are alarmed as 350
s em
s e
turtles was ashore dead till January 15', published on 16 January 2025?
l a
Ans
l a
1. High Court of Tamil Nadu
ag
ag
2. National Green Tribunal

3. Supreme Court of India

4. High Court of Odisha

Q.16 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 81?
Ans 1. 5265

2. 5854

m
.co
3. 4678

4. 5232

e m
Q.17
las
Which of the following statements about the Supreme Court’s writ jurisdiction is

Ans
correct?
ag
1. It can only be invoked for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

2. It allows the Court to issue writs only against the Central Government.

3. It is exclusive and cannot be exercised by the High Courts.

4. It extends to both Fundamental Rights and other legal rights.

Q.18 What role did the ‘Dikus’ play in igniting early tribal revolts of India?
Ans 1. They were outsiders like landlords, moneylenders and officials exploiting tribal community.

m
.co
2. They were perceived Gods of the forests.
m
.co m
3. They were tribal priests encouraging the tribal rebellion.

m s e
s e
4. They were British officials stationed in tribal areas.

g l a
g l a Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? a
a 8 13 20 29 40 ?
Ans 1. 65

2. 61

3. 53

4. 57

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.20 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 & 9 ^ # 1 * 5 ≺ 2 6 ≡ 4 ∆ 3 $ @ 8 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. More than three

4. Two

Q.21 The selling price of 20 books is equal to the cost price of 6 books. Find the loss or gain
percentage.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 Which of the following input devices primarily translates physical, real-world
movements into digital signals that can be interpreted by a computer system for tasks
such as navigation and object manipulation in a graphical environment?
Ans 1. Keyboard

2. Microphone

3. Mouse

4. Scanner

Q.23 Five solid cubes, each of volume 1,09,41,048 cm3, are joined end to end to form a
cuboid. What is the lateral surface area (in cm2) of the cuboid?
Ans 1. 5,91,408

2. 5,91,310

3. 5,91,663

4. 5,91,312

Q.24
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 Where did ISRO conduct the hot test of the semi-cryogenic engine in 2025?
Ans 1. ISRO Propulsion Complex, Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu

2. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh

3. Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu

4. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala

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.co
Q.26 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
m
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as

. co that on the right side of :: ?

s e m
m a
se l
# : UEQ :: QAM : %
Ans 1. # = FMY, % = ISE
ag
2. # = CMY, % = ISO

3. # = CMY, % = ISE

4. # = CMY, % = IUE

Q.27

Ans 1. 6

m
.co
2.

m
.co m
3.

4. 2
m s e
s e l a
Q.28
l a
What is the title of Sarojini Naidu’s first collection of poems, published in 1905?
ag
Ans
ag
1. The Captive Lady

2. The Golden Threshold

3. Songs of the Dawn

4. Urvasie

Q.29 The Green Revolution was introduced to counter food shortages. Which region(s)
was/were the initial focus of the Green Revolution?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu
m
.co
2. Punjab and Haryana

3. Bihar
e m
4. Odisha and Assam
las
Q.30 ag
With reference to computer systems, what does CPU stand for?
Ans 1. Computer Processing Utility

2. Central Programming Unit

3. Central Processing Unit

4. Control Processing Unit

Q.31 A man sold an article at a gain of 57%. If he had sold it for ₹238 more, he would have
m
.co
gained 82%. The cost price (in ₹) of the article is:
Ans
m
1. 955

m.co 2. 952
s e m
s e 3. 949
g l a
g l a 4. 950 a
a Q.32 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

YRU WPS UNQ SLO ?
Ans 1. QIM

2. QJN

3. QJM

m .
.co
4. QIN

e m
em l as
las ag

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Q.33 What is the total approximate latitudinal extent of India?
Ans 1. 35°

2. 40°

3. 30°

4. 25°

Q.34 Which of the following was formed in 1600 through a charter that granted it the
exclusive privilege of trading with the area east of the Cape of Good Hope for 15 years?
Ans 1. Austrian East India Company

2. Spanish East India Company

3. English East India Company

4. Danish East India Company

Q.35 In January 2025, Wing Commander Akshay Saxena received the Vayu Sena Medal for
his role in anti-piracy operations conducted in which of the following regions?
Ans 1. Bay of Bengal

2. Andaman Sea

3. Arabian Sea

4. Gulf of Thailand

Q.36 Which of the following is NOT a part of Carnatic style composition?
Ans 1. Varnam

2. Chaturang

3. Pallavi

4. Ragmalika

Q.37 Evaluate: 81 × 112
Ans 1. 9072

2. 9062

3. 9082

4. 9172

Q.38 ______ was crowned the Ranji Trophy champion for the 2024-25 season.
Ans 1. Vidarbha

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Kerala

4. Mumbai

Q.39 Mahesh withdrew ₹3,100 from a bank. He received a total of 34 notes of ₹50 and ₹100
denominations. The number of ₹50 notes received by him was:
Ans 1. 6

2. 16

3. 13

4. 4

Q.40 Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions the Fundamental Duty of
safeguarding public property and abjuring violence?
Ans 1. Article 51A (j)

2. Article 51A (k)

3. Article 51A (h)

4. Article 51A (i)

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m
.co
Q.41 The mean of a data is 42 and its median is 53. The mode (using empirical relation) of the
m
data is:

. co
Ans 1. 169
s e m
m a
se l
2. 75

3. 24
ag
4. 100

Q.42 What is the median of the following data?

19, 98, 77, 24, 99, 71, 70, 56, 80, 12, 88
Ans 1. 71

2. 70.5

m
.co
3. 72

m
.co m
4. 71.5

m s e
Q.43
s e
What makes DNA the most abundant genetic material?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Its high mutation rate
ag
ag
2. Its stable double-helical structure

3. Its enzymatic roles

4. Its interaction with proteins

Q.44 What is the function of the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + F in Windows OS?
Ans 1. It forwards an email message to another recipient.

2. It checks and corrects spelling errors in text.

m
.co
3. It formats content in a document or application.

4. It opens a search or find feature to locate text or items in files, webpages or applications.

e m
Q.45
las
Ans 1. 675
ag
2. 586

3. 854

4. 759

Q.46 A boat takes 39 minutes to go 27.9 km upstream. The ratio of the speed of the boat in
still water to that of the stream is 9 : 4. How much total time (in hours) will the boat take
to go 18.9 km upstream and 51.3 km downstream?
Ans 1. 4.3
m
m
2. 0.9
.co
m.co 3. 2.6
s e m
s e 4. 1.9
g l a
g l a a
a Q.47 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RV – XE

2. DH – IQ

3. NR – TA

4. XB – DK
m .
.co s e m
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g la ag
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Q.48 A group of numbers and symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given
below and the conditions that follow. Study the given codes and conditions and answer
the question that follows.

Note: If none of the conditions apply, then codes for the respective number/symbol are
to be followed directly as given in the table.
Numb $ % & * 2 4 6 @ # 3 + 8 9 7
er/sym
bol
Code T U P S D F J K Z C V B N M

Conditions:
If the first element is a symbol and the last a number, the codes for these two (the first
and the last elements) are to be interchanged.
If the first element is an odd number and the last an even number, the first and last
elements are to be coded as ©.
If both second and third elements are perfect cubes, the third element is to be coded as
the code for the second element.
What will be the code for the following group?

398*
Ans 1. CNNS

2. CNBS

3. SNBC

4. CBBS

Q.49 The McMahon Line separates India from which country?
Ans 1. China

2. Nepal

3. Pakistan

4. Bhutan

Q.50 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(19, 39, 44)
(13, 27, 32)
Ans 1. (29, 49, 54)

2. (24, 45, 50)

3. (11, 23, 28)

4. (35, 61, 66)

Q.51 A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor
in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on, till the topmost
floor is numbered 6. D lives on an odd numbered floor but not 5. The sum of floors on
which D and A live is 5. Only 3 people live between A and F. B lives immediately above
E. How many people live above B?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 1

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Q.52 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All curtain are screen.
ag l
All curtain are blinder.
Some blinder are drape.

Conclusions:
(I) Some drape are curtain.
(II) Some blinder are screen.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (I) follows
m
m .co
.co
4. Only conclusion (II) follows

em
Q.53
e m
If the average of 6 consecutive odd numbers is 30, the difference between the largest
l as
s
and the smallest numbers is:

l a ag
ag
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.54 A bag contains 50 Paisa, 25 Paisa and 10 Paisa coins in the ratio 16 : 8 : 20, amounting
to ₹384. Find the number of 10 Paisa coins.
Ans 1. 660

2. 668
m
3. 640

m .co
4. 696
s e
g la
Q.55
a
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1012 1010 1000 998 988 ? 976
Ans 1. 985

2. 988

3. 987

4. 986

Q.56 Which of the following tribal uprisings did NOT take place in the 20th century?
m
Ans
m
1. Lushai Uprising
.co
m.co 2. Naga Revolt
s e m
s e 3. Kuki Uprising
g l a
g l a 4. Bastar Rebellion a
a Q.57 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 983 986 481 941 167 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is subtracted from the
first digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. −4

m .
.co m
2. −2

s e
em
3. −5

s l a
la ag
4. −3


g
a Click To Join Telegram RankiqSSC
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Q.58

Ans 1. 623 : 199

2. 385 : 144

3. 390 : 413

4. 144 : 385

Q.59 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 951 474 717 497 127 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the first digit of the highest number is subtracted from the
third digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. −4

2. −3

3. −2

4. −1

Q.60 If a sum of ₹6,70,000 is invested for a year at 2% per annum compounded half yearly,
then find the compound interest.
Ans 1. ₹12,805

2. ₹13,467

3. ₹11,545

4. ₹13,630

Q.61 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
9368547, what will be the sum of the digits which are third from the left and third from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 8

2. 10

3. 14

4. 12

Q.62 In a certain code language, ‘FIGS’ is coded as ‘3648’ and ‘ICED’ is coded as ‘1285’. What
is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 8

3. 6

4. 5

Q.63 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states about the establishment
of Election Commission in India?
Ans 1. Article 325

2. Article 324

3. Article 327

4. Article 326

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Q.64 Mr. KLM starts from Point A and drives 21 km towards the south. He then takes a left
m
turn, drives 7 km, turns left and drives 26 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 11 km.

. co He takes a final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-
s e m
m a
se l
degree turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 4 km to the east
ag
2. 3 km to the west

3. 7 km to the east

4. 5 km to the west

Q.65 What is the primary advantage of using 'Section Breaks' in an MS Word document
compared to simply using 'Page Breaks'?
Ans 1. Section breaks automatically create a table of contents based on the headings within each section, a feature not available
with standard page breaks.
m
m
2. Section breaks allow for different page numbering schemes, headers, and footers within the same document, while page
.co
.co m
breaks only force content to the next page.

m s e
a
3. Section breaks are primarily used to optimise the document for printing on different paper sizes, which is not possible with
page breaks.
s e l
l a ag
4. Section breaks improve the document's file size and performance, especially in long documents with numerous formatting
changes.
ag
Q.66 Which country reported its first-ever presumptive human case of H5 bird flu in
November 2024?
Ans 1. Australia

2. United Kingdom

3. United States

4. Canada

m
Q.67
.co
The average of 10 observations is 40. It was realised later that an observation was
misread as 32 in place of 43. Find the correct average.
m
Ans 1. 44.1
s e
2. 41.1
g la
3. 42.1 a
4. 40.1

Q.68 As per the Union Budget 2025-26, a Maritime Development Fund with corpus of how
much will be established?
Ans 1. ₹10,000 crore

2. ₹15,000 crore

3. ₹25,000 crore
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4. ₹20,000 crore

e m
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Q.69 mIf a + b = 24 and (a − b)2 = 268, find the value of product of a and b.
l as
l asAns 1. 77
ag
ag 2. 110

3. 68

4. 140

m .
.co s e m
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g la ag
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Q.70 Consider the following statements regarding the MEDEVAC operation conducted by
Indian maritime forces in March 2025.

1. The Indian Navy evacuated injured crew members from MV Heilan Star, located in
west of Goa.
2. A Sea King helicopter from INS Vikrant airlifted three injured crew members,
including two Chinese and one Indonesian national.
3. The Indian Navy and Indian Air Force jointly coordinated the operation.
4. The rescued crew were flown to INS Hansa, Goa, for onward transfer to a civil
hospital.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans 1. Only 2 and 4

2. Only 1, 2 and 3

3. Only 1, 2 and 4

4. Only 1 and 3

Q.71 If a : b :: b : c; c = 4a and b = 18, find the positive value of c.
Ans 1. 36

2. 34

3. 38

4. 31

Q.72 Which of the following operating systems is most suitable for ethical hacking and
cybersecurity tasks on laptops and desktops due to its pre-installed penetration testing
tools?
Ans 1. Kali Linux

2. Ubuntu LTS

3. Windows 10

4. macOS Ventura

Q.73 Find the simple interest (in closest integral ₹) on ₹3,000 at 6% per annum rate of interest
for the period from 9 February 2024 to 10 April 2024.
Ans 1. 29

2. 28

3. 30

4. 31

Q.74 The present cost of a house is ₹1,23,016. After a year, its cost will increase to ₹1,40,203.
The percentage increase (rounded off to the nearest integer) in the cost of the house is:
Ans 1. 10%

2. 14%

3. 8%

4. 17%

Q.75 What percentage of households were classified as the poorest of the poor, as per
SECC-2011?
Ans 1. 0.89%

2. 0.79%

3. 0.59%

4. 1%

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Q.76 In February 2025, the Indian government announced a six-year program to boost the
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production of which agricultural commodity to reduce import dependence?

. co
Ans 1. Rice
s e m
m a
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2. Wheat

3. Pulses
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4. Sugar

Q.77 What was a unique feature of Harappan town planning?
Ans 1. Underground temples

2. Circular forts

3. Irregular housing layout

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4. Grid pattern streets

m
Q.78
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B is the father of C. Q is the sister of C. T is the only sister of Q. T is the child of S. M is
the son of S's only son.
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s e l a
a ag
How is S related to B?
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ag
Ans 1. Father's sister

2. Wife

3. Father's brother

4. Wife's mother

Q.79 Mr. I starts from Point M and drives 1 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 3 km, turns left and drives 3 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 4 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point N. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point M again? (All turns are
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90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 1 km towards the west

e m
s
2. 2 km towards the south

3. 4 km towards the east
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4. 4 km towards the north a
Q.80 Seven boxes D, E, F, G, S, T and U are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only four boxes are kept between E and D. Only F is kept above E. Only two
boxes are kept between T and U. G is kept immediately above S. U is not kept
immediately above G. Which box is kept fourth from the top?
Ans 1. F

2. G

3. D
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4. T

e m
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Q.81
mVinod ranked 36th from the top and 18th from the bottom in his class. How many
l as
l as students are there in his class?
ag
ag Ans 1. 54

2. 53

3. 51

4. 52

Q.82 Seven people, D, E, F, G, L, M and N, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only M sits to the
left of N. Only four people sit between M and L. Only F sits between G and D, and G is
not an immediate neighbour of L. Who sits at the extreme right of the line?
Ans 1. N
m .
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2. D

s e
3. E
s em l a
4. G

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Q.83 Dholavira is unique for which of the following?
Ans 1. Scripted seals

2. Water conservation systems

3. Use of palm leaves

4. Rock-cut architecture

Q.84 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.
ENU FLS GJQ ? IFM
Ans 1. HHO

2. HOP

3. HIO

4. HIP

Q.85 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. WQNJ

2. KEBW

3. QKHC

4. FZWR

Q.86 Which of the following countries DOES NOT share a land boundary with India?
Ans 1. Bhutan

2. Afghanistan

3. Sri Lanka

4. Myanmar

Q.87 Seven friends, I, J, K, L, M, N and R, are sitting in a row facing north. No one sits to the
right of M. Only three people sit between M and R. Only two people sit between R and L.
K sits third to the left of I. J sits to the immediate right of I. How many people sit
between N and L?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Four

4. Three

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Q.88 A group of numbers and symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given
m
below and the conditions that follow. Study the given codes and conditions and answer

. co the question that follows.

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m a
se l
Note: If none of the conditions apply, then codes for the respective number/symbol are
to be followed directly as given in the table.
Number/symbol 5 $ 7 2 % * 3 a
^
g # 9 +
Code A F L B G M C H N D J

Conditions:

i) If the first element is a number and the last a symbol, then the codes for these two
(the first and the last elements) are to be interchanged.
ii) If the first and the last elements are odd numbers, then the first and last elements are
to be coded as @.
iii) If both the second and third elements are perfect square roots, then the third
element is to be coded as the code for the second element.
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m .co
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What will be the code for 5#64%?

em
s
Ans 1. ANPKG

e m l a
2. AKPNG

l as ag
ag
3. GNPKA

4. GKPNA

Q.89 Which is the largest saline wetland in India?
Ans 1. Chilika Lake

2. Pulicat Lake

3. Sambhar Lake

4. Wular Lake

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Q.90
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The successive discounts of 28%, 20% and 10% are equivalent to a single discount of:

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Ans 1. 50.59%
s e
2. 48.16%
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3. 46.1%
a
4. 46.69%

Q.91 What is the IMF's projected US GDP growth rate for 2025, as per the April 2025 forecast?
Ans 1. 3.7%

2. 2.5%

3. 3.4%

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4. 1.8%

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Q.92

m.co
According to the Economic survey 2024-25, what is the value of India’s foreign
exchange reserves, as of the end of December 2024?
s e m
s e
Ans 1. $330.3 billion
g l a
g l a 2. $520.5 billion a
a 3. $440.8 billion

4. $640.3 billion

Q.93 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
1865374, which of the following digits will be third from the left in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. 7

2. 3
m .
3. 5
.co s e m
4. 2
s em l a
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Q.94 Which of the given letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as
that on the right side of ::?
# : DZT :: QMG : %
Ans 1. # = OYV, % = PYT

2. # = YUO, % = VRL

3. # = YPG, % = KUL

4. # = ZTY, % = VMH

Q.95 Which of the following statements is NOT correct with reference to the modern periodic
table?
Ans 1. The first period contains 8 elements.

2. Groups are the vertical columns, and periods are horizontal rows.

3. Lanthanoids and actinoids are placed in separate panels at the bottom.

4. The second and third periods each contain 8 elements.

Q.96 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
1862547, then what will the difference between the highest and lowest digits in the new
number thus formed be?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 9

4. 6

Q.97 A woman travelled at a speed of 20 m/min for 80 min, and at a speed of 65 m/min for 64
min. Her average speed (in m/min) is:
Ans 1. 40

2. 44

3. 46

4. 33

Q.98 The diagonals of a quadrilateral are perpendicular bisectors of each other. If the length
of one diagonal is 3 cm and the area of the quadrilateral is 180 cm2, find the length (in
cm) of the other diagonal.
Ans 1. 128

2. 120

3. 115

4. 112

Q.99 In finding the HCF of two numbers by division method, the quotients are 4, 5, and 9,
respectively, and the last divisor is 18. What is the LCM of the two numbers?
Ans 1. 159806

2. 159807

3. 159804

4. 159803

Q.100 Who discovered the antibacterial properties of a Penicillium fungus in 1929?
Ans 1. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

2. Paul Ehrlich

3. Marie Curie

4. Alexander Fleming

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Test Date 20/06/2025
a
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Graduate Level I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : RRB NTPC Graduate Level I
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 In January 2025, which veteran filmmaker received the Padmapani Lifetime
l
ag
Achievement Award for Indian cinema?
Ans 1. Shyam Benegal

2. Sai Paranjpye

3. Vishal Bhardwaj

4. Mira Nair

Q.2 Anand purchased an item and incurred ₹169 in repair expenses. Subsequently, he sold
it to Bharath with a 25% profit. Eventually, Bharath sold the item for ₹4,480, making a
44% loss. What was the original cost (in ₹) of the item for Anand?

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Ans 1. 6,397

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2. 6,231

3. 6,400
s e
4. 6,403
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a
Q.3 In which year was English education formally introduced in India by the British?
Ans 1. 1813

2. 1835

3. 1854

4. 1829

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Q.4 Who won the Album of the Year at the 67th Annual Grammy Awards in 2025?

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Ans 1. Billie Eilish – Hit Me Hard and Soft

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2. Beyoncé – Cowboy Carter

l as
l as 3. Taylor Swift – The Tortured Poets Department
ag
ag 4. Sabrina Carpenter – Short n' Sweet

Q.5 The average of five numbers is 56. Four of the numbers are 35, 42, 32, and 26. What is
the fifth number?
Ans 1. 145

2. 135

3. 68

4. 55

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Q.6 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
AJK : BEG
JIL : KDH
Ans 1. RLO : SIK

2. BKK : CFH

3. OHF : PCC

4. KKQ : LFM

Q.7 Privatisation involves transferring the ownership of enterprises from the public to the
private sector. What is the primary goal of privatisation?
Ans 1. Increase monopoly power

2. Improve efficiency and reduce government burden

3. Increase fiscal deficit

4. Enhance public employment

Q.8 Which body was established to control all matters of civil and military government of
British territories in India?
Ans 1. Board of Legislature

2. Board of Control

3. Board of Executives

4. Board of Directors

Q.9 If the median of a data is 20.8 less than its mode, then the median of the data exceeds
its mean by _____. (Use the empirical formula)
Ans 1. 6.32

2. 13.72

3. 12.43

4. 10.4

Q.10 Refer to the number and symbol series given below and answer the question that
follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single digit numbers only.)

(Left) £ € # 9 4 9 $ € * 9 @ * 6 6 5 © 5 6 3 8 7 6 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 8

4. 6

Q.11 The length and breadth of a cuboid are 70 cm and 96 cm, respectively. If its surface area
is 1488 cm2, then what is the length (in cm) of its diagonal?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.12 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
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26347591, what will be the sum of the second digit from left and third digit from right in

. co the new number thus formed?

s e m
m Ans 1. 14
a
se 2. 10
ag l
3. 8

4. 12

Q.13 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
1847653, what will be the sum of the highest and lowest digits in the number thus
formed?
Ans 1. 11

2. 14
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3. 12
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4. 10

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.14 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
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(Left) 657 435 578 659 619 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 10

2. 11

3. 12

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4. 9

Q.15
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An article is sold for ₹x. If it is sold at 40% of this price, there is a loss of 50%. What is
the percentage profit when it is sold for ₹x?
las
Ans 1. 25%

2. 22% ag
3. 28%

4. 27%

Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans
m
1. SXBE
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m.co 2. BGKN
s e m
s e 3. FYUB
g l a
g l a 4. FKOR a
a Q.17 If a + b = 32 and (a − b)2 = 372, find the value of product of a and b.
Ans 1. 145

2. 163

3. 161

4. 261

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.co s e m
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Q.18 P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 94 cm, PB = 61 cm and PC = 67 cm,
then the length of PD (in cm) is:
Ans 1. 95

2. 96

3. 98

4. 102

Q.19 At what rate (in percentage) per annum simple interest will a sum of money triple itself
in 8 years?
Ans 1. 24

2. 37.5

3. 25

4. 36.5

Q.20 Reena, Naveen and Arpita started a business in partnership, investing in the ratio of 5 :
6 : 13, respectively. At the end of the year, they earned a profit of ₹36,400, which is 14%
of their total investment. How much did Naveen invest (in ₹)?
Ans 1. ₹65,000

2. ₹65,105

3. ₹64,769

4. ₹64,818

Q.21 The population of a town in the year 1956 was 2,07,300. If its population increased in
two successive decades by 20% in each decade, the population of the town in the year
1976 was:
Ans 1. 2,98,513

2. 2,98,512

3. 2,98,511

4. 2,98,507

Q.22 Which component of Windows OS allows users to modify system settings such as
display resolution, sound preferences and user accounts?
Ans 1. Command Prompt

2. Task Manager

3. Control Panel

4. File Explorer

Q.23 Nagara Uprising, a significant peasant rebellion that occurred in the Nagar province
(present-day Shivamogga district) of the Mysore Kingdom, took place in:
Ans 1. 1710-11

2. 1798-99

3. 1856-57

4. 1830-31

Q.24 Which keyboard shortcut is used to save an MS PowerPoint presenta on quickly?
Ans 1. Ctrl + S

2. Ctrl + N

3. Ctrl + O

4. Ctrl + P

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Q.25 Seven friends, E, F, G, H, I, J and Q, are sitting in a row facing north. Only three people
m
sit to the left of Q. Only H sits to the right of E. Only three people sit between E and J. I

. co sits at some place to the left of F but at some place to the right of G. How many people
sit between G and F?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. Two

2. Three ag l
3. Four

4. One

Q.26 The simplified value of 285 - 6 × (23 + 19) + 83 is:
Ans 1. 110

2. 106

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3. 107

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.co m
4. 116

m s e
Q.27
s e
In November 2024, which Indian state conducted an Olympic-style school sports event
l a
a ag
with participation from Gulf-based Indian schools?
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Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Delhi

3. Maharashtra

4. Kerala

Q.28 What is one of the key advantages of the parliamentary system in ensuring smooth
governance?
Ans 1. The executive has absolute power over the legislature.

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2. The judiciary controls both the legislature and the executive.

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3. The Prime Minister can dissolve the legislature at will.

s e
4. It ensures harmony and cooperation between the legislature and the executive.

g la
Q.29
a
Find the greatest number by which when the numbers 247 and 189 are divided, it leaves
remainders 3 and 6, respectively.
Ans 1. 62

2. 63

3. 61

4. 64

Q.30 Two taps can fill a cistern in 3 hours and 36 hours, respectively. A third tap can empty it
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.co
in 4 hours. How long (in hours) will it take to fill two-third of the empty cistern, if all of

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them are opened together?
Ans

m.co 1. 24

s e m
s e 2. 18

g l a
g l a 3. 6
a
a 4. 12

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.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.31 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
78, 91
94, 107
Ans 1. 82, 105

2. 86, 99

3. 71, 74

4. 99, 114

Q.32 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as
that on the right side of :: ?

# : OWF :: VDM : %
Ans 1. # = TBK, % = QYU

2. # = TBM, % = QYH

3. # = TBK, % = QYH

4. # = TYK, % = QYH

Q.33 A right circular cone is 6.7 cm high, and the radius of its base is 17.6 cm. It is melted
and recast into a new right circular cone with a base radius of 8.8 cm. Find the height
(in cm) of the new cone.
Ans 1. 34.5

2. 25.5

3. 37.5

4. 26.8

Q.34 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
1385724, then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

Q.35 The Planning Commission used a technique called 'perspective planning' for
formulating five year plans in India. Which of the following best describes 'perspective
planning'?
Ans 1. Long-term strategic planning

2. Tactical planning for one year

3. Planning without time limits

4. Crisis management planning

Q.36 Where was the ISSF World Cup 2025 held, where Rudrankksh Patil and Arya Borse won
silver in the 10 m Air Rifle Mixed Team event?
Ans 1. New Delhi, India

2. Lima, Peru

3. Cairo, Egypt

4. Munich, Germany

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Q.37 The coordination number of atoms in a body-centered cubic (BCC) lattice is:
m
co
Ans 1. 8

. e m
m 2. 6
as
se 3. 4
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4. 12

Q.38 N is the brother of E. E is the husband of P. L and G are sons of P. How is N related to
G?
Ans 1. Husband's brother

2. Father

3. Father's brother

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4. Father's father

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Q.39
.co
Which of the following statements regarding the 2024 Jharkhand Assembly elections
is/are INCORRECT?
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1. The Indian National Congress won more than 15 seats.
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2. The Jharkhand Mukti Morcha won the highest vote share.
3. Rashtriya Janata Dal won 4 seats in the Assembly.
Ans 1. Only 3

2. Only 1 and 2

3. 1, 2 and 3

4. Only 2

Q.40 One-third of a journey is covered at a speed of 67 km/hr, the next one-third of the
journey is covered at a speed of 66 km/hr, and the remaining journey is covered at a
m
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speed of 17 km/hr. The average speed (in km/hr, rounded off to one decimal place) for
the entire journey is:
Ans 1. 43.7
e m
2. 28.6
las
3. 33.7
ag
4. 29.6

Q.41 'Reward for loyalty' as a factor for ministerial selection in India refers to:
Ans 1. ensuring each geographic region gets equal representation

2. verifying the educational background of candidates

3. granting monetary rewards to ministers

4. recognising and rewarding longstanding support
m
m .co
.co m
Q.42 Which state has the longest coastline in India, excluding islands?
Ans
m 1. Tamil Nadu
s e
s e g l a
g l a 2. Gujarat
a
a
3. Maharashtra

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.43 Find the area of the sector of a circle with diameter 14 cm, if the arc of the sector makes

an angle of 120° at the centre of the circle. (Use π = )

Ans
1.

m .
.co m
2.

s e
3.
s em l a
4.

g la ag
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Q.44 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

413, 390, 357, ?, 261, 198
Ans 1. 344

2. 324

3. 334

4. 314

Q.45 Which Union Territory of India has the longest coastline as per the 2022-23 Annual
Report of the Ministry of Home Affairs?
Ans 1. Daman and Diu

2. Puducherry

3. Lakshadweep

4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q.46 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

KO29 JN41 IM53 HL65 ?
Ans 1. GK77

2. GL78

3. GK78

4. GL77

Q.47 The 9th Amendment Act, 1960, was enacted to give effect to which of the following
agreements?
Ans 1. Indo-Pak Agreement, 1958

2. Shimla Agreement, 1972

3. Tashkent Agreement, 1966

4. Lahore Declaration, 1999

Q.48 What is the theme of the 2025 G20 Johannesburg Summit?
Ans 1. Climate Action Now

2. Solidarity, Equality, Sustainability

3. Digital Transformation

4. Global Economic Recovery

Q.49 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. WE – CJ

2. FN – LS

3. CK – JP

4. JR – PW

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Q.50 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
m
Counting to be done from left to right only.

. co (Left) 1 5 & 3 * $ 4 @ % 2 7 # 9 ^ # ⋟ 6 8 (Right)
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se How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number? ag l
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. None

4. Three

Q.51 The Harsha inscription of 554 CE mentions the rise of Yajnavarman from which place?
Ans 1. Kannouj
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2. Magadha

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3. Gaya

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4. Thanesar

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Q.52
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If a sum of ₹9,10,000 is invested for a year at 2% per annum compounded half yearly,
then find the compound interest.
Ans 1. ₹18,291

2. ₹20,081

3. ₹17,125

4. ₹18,828

Q.53 Which type of cell reference in MS Excel modifies both, the column letter and row
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number automatically when a formula is copied to another location?
Ans 1. Mixed Reference

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2. Static Reference

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3. Absolute Reference

4. Relative Reference a
Q.54 Which prominent Indian leader led the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, a major civil
disobedience movement against increased land taxes?
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

4. Vallabhbhai Patel
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Q.55 The Indian government is set to implement the 'One State, One RRB' (Regional Rural

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Bank) policy to improve operational efficiency, reduce competition and consolidate the
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s e existing 43 RRBs into _______.

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g l a Ans 1. 26
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a 2. 29

3. 28

4. 27

Q.56 What is the unit of measurement for frequency?
Ans 1. Hertz (Hz)

2. Joule

3. Pascal
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4. Millisecond
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Q.57 What specific provision concerning the President of India is outlined in Article 59(3) of
the Constitution of India?
Ans 1. Powers of the President

2. Election of the President

3. Impeachment of the President

4. Salary and privileges of the President

Q.58 The mode of the observations 21, 27, 25, 31, 21, 35, 23, 25, 32, 27, 21, 29, 32, 29 and 31
is:
Ans 1. 27

2. 31

3. 25

4. 21

Q.59 In February 2025, India's External Affairs Minister and envoys from 61 countries visited
which national park to experience its rich biodiversity and the iconic one-horned
rhinos?
Ans 1. Periyar National Park

2. Jim Corbett National Park

3. Sundarbans National Park

4. Kaziranga National Park

Q.60 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?
Ans 1. 2118

2. 1440

3. 2652

4. 1749

Q.61

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.62 Mr. OPQ starts from Point A and drives 31 km towards the north. He then takes a left
turn, drives 11 km, turns left and drives 51 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 16
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 20 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All
turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 5 km to the west

2. 3 km to the south

3. 9 km to the east

4. 4 km to the north

Q.63 There are two sections A and B of a class, consisting of 22 and 44 students,
respectively. If the average weight of section A is 40 kg and that of section B is 37 kg,
find the average weight of the whole class (in kg).
Ans 1. 37.5

2. 38

3. 38.5

4. 39

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Q.64 SGUL is related to XLZQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
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same way, MAOF is related to RFTK. To which of the following options is BPDU related,

. co following the same logic?

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3. GUIZ

4. GUZI

Q.65 Which Indian state was named the "Go-To Global Destination for 2025" by the Wall
Street Journal, highlighting its rich heritage and diverse wildlife?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Madhya Pradesh

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3. Kerala

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4. Odisha

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Q.66
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A woman travelled at a speed of 20 m/min for 80 min, and at a speed of 65 m/min for 70
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min. Her average speed (in m/min) is:
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Ans 1. 47

2. 45

3. 41

4. 34

Q.67 What was the Revised Estimate (RE) for the Department of Rural Development for the
financial year 2024-25, as per the Annual Report 2024-25, published by Ministry of Rural
Development, Government of India?

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Ans 1. ₹173,912.11 crore

2. ₹180,878.11 crore

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3. ₹160,069.46 crore
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4. ₹155,964.23 crore
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Q.68
a
Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.
P has the exam on Tuesday. Only two people have exams after R. S has the exam
immediately before Q but after R. U has the exam immediately after V.

How many people have exams between T and S?

Ans 1. One

2. Three
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3. Four
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Q.69 The successive discounts of 24%, 18% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of:
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g l a (Rounded up to two decimal places.)
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a Ans 1. 51.51%

2. 52.84%

3. 49.27%

4. 50.14%

Q.70 Which of the following soils is most suitable for rice cultivation in India?
Ans 1. Saline soil

2. Alluvial soil
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3. Desert soil
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4. Red soil
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Q.71 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

911 910 920 919 929 ? 938
Ans 1. 926

2. 924

3. 928

4. 929

Q.72 A group of numbers and symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given
below and the conditions that follow. Study the given codes and conditions and answer
the question that follows.

Note: If none of the conditions apply, then codes for the respective number/symbol are
to be followed directly as given in the table.

Conditions:
i) If the first element is a symbol and the last a number, the codes for these two (the first
and the last elements) are to be interchanged.
ii) If the first element is an odd number and the last element is an even number, then the
first and last elements are to be coded as @.
iii) If both the second and third elements are divisible by 2, the third element is to be
coded as the code for the second element.

What will be the code for 768*%?
Ans 1. EPPBG

2. GPKBE

3. EPKBG

4. EKKBG

Q.73 RUYQ is related to KNRJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, ORVN is related to HKOG. To which of the given options is LOSK related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. HELD

2. HEDL

3. EHLD

4. EHDL

Q.74 Alluvial soil is mainly found in which region of India?
Ans 1. Peninsular Plateau

2. Indo-Gangetic Plain

3. Eastern Ghats

4. Western Ghats

Q.75 A booster pump can be used for filling as well as for emptying a tank. The capacity of
the tank is 1800 m3. The emptying capacity of the tank is 10 m3/min higher than its
filling capacity, and the pump needs 6 minutes lesser to empty the tank than it needs to
fill it. What is the filling capacity of the pump in m3/min?
Ans 1. 65

2. 27

3. 50

4. 18

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Q.76 Which of the following conditions will prevent a file from being renamed in a Windows-
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based operating system?

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Ans 1. The file is currently opened in another application.
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2. The file is located in the Recycle Bin.

3. The file has a long name exceeding 255 characters.
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4. The file has the 'Read-only' attribute enabled.

Q.77 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
4568712, what will be the difference between the highest and lowest digits in the
number thus formed?
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

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3. 9

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4. 8

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Q.78
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Which part of a Hindu temple serves as the innermost chamber for the primary deity?
l a
Ans
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1. Garbhagriha
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2. Shikhara

3. Jagati

4. Kalasha

Q.79 Mr. Y starts from Point B and drives 1 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 9 km, turns right and drives 2 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point A. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point B again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
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Ans 1. 18 km towards the east

2. 9 km towards the south
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3. 1 km towards the north
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4. 22 km towards the west
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Q.80 In a certain code language, ‘can you knock’ is coded as ‘mo nv sb’ and ‘knock the door’
is coded as ‘kx rg nv’. How is ‘knock’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. rg

2. nv

3. sb

4. kx

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Q.81
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The population of a village was 1,10,000. It increased by 5% in the first year and
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increased by 30% in the second year. Its population after two years is _______.
Ans
m 1. 1,50,150
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g l a 2. 1,15,500
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3. 1,48,500

4. 1,43,000

Q.82 Kavita buys 2 apples and 5 mangoes for ₹239. When the cost of an apple is decreased
by 50% and that of a mango remains the same, then the cost of 2 apples and 4 mangoes
is ₹184. What is the original cost of 8 apples and 8 mangoes?
Ans 1. ₹438

2. ₹440

3. ₹436
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4. ₹441
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Q.83

Ans 1. 506

2. 505

3. 503

4. 504

Q.84 In March 2025, how many Light Combat Helicopters, Prachand, were ordered by the
Ministry of Defence?
Ans 1. 156

2. 126

3. 196

4. 136

Q.85 Which of the following best describes the nature of the Northern Plain?
Ans 1. Rocky and elevated

2. Arid and barren

3. Alluvial and fertile

4. Hilly and forested

Q.86 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the
question mark (?) in the following series.

PTM NSJ LRG ? HPA
Ans 1. JQD

2. JQE

3. JPD

4. HPD

Q.87 A, B, L, M, S, T and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. M sits to the
immediate right of T. Only three people sit between M and A when counted from the left
of M. Only three people sit between T and Z. L sits to the immediate right of S. How
many people sit between B and S when counted from the left of S?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

Q.88 What is the purpose of the 'AutoFill' feature in MS Excel 365?
Ans 1. To validate cell data

2. To split text into multiple cells

3. To copy cell content or continue a pattern

4. To automatically sum a range of values

Q.89 The Great Bath is located at:
Ans 1. Dholavira

2. Rakhigarhi

3. Harappa

4. Mohenjo-daro

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Q.90 What was the total financial allocation for the Department of Rural Development for FY
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2024-25, as per the Demand of Grants 2024-25 Analysis?

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Ans 1. ₹1.26 lakh crore
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2. ₹1.50 lakh crore

3. ₹2.58 lakh crore
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4. ₹1.77 lakh crore

Q.91 Which of the following ratios is greatest?
Ans 1. 18 : 37

2. 23 : 25

3. 25 : 26

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4. 13 : 32

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Q.92
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Seven boxes, F, G, H, I, L,M and N, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the

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same order. Only three boxes are kept below I. Only two boxes are kept between I and F.
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Only H is kept above L. M is kept at some place below G and at some place above N.
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Which box is kept at second position from the bottom?
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Ans 1. H

2. N

3. F

4. L

Q.93

Ans 1. 2968 cm3

2. 2178 cm3
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3. 1756 cm3
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4. 3925 cm3
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Q.94
a
Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Q has an exam on Tuesday. Exactly 2
people have exams between Q and R. P has an exam immediately before T, and S has an
exam immediately after V. Only 1 person has an exam between T and V. Who has an
exam on Monday?
Ans 1. S

2. U

3. V

4. T
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Q.95 The musical narration of the 'Battle of Khongjom' is a popular folk music of which
State?
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Ans
m 1. Manipur
l as
l as 2. Nagaland
ag
ag 3. Kerala

4. Arunachal Pradesh

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Q.96 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All burger are pizza.
All burger are fries.
All burger are taco.

Conclusions:
(I) All pizza are taco.
(II) Some taco are fries.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.97 The complete sequencing of the human genome has marked the beginning of:
Ans 1. cytogenetics

2. immunology

3. genomics

4. structural biology

Q.98

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.99 A group of numbers and symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given
below and the conditions that follow. Study the given codes and conditions and answer
the question that follows.

Note: If none of the conditions apply, then codes for the respective number/symbol are
to be followed directly as given in the table.

Conditions:
i) If the first element is a number and the last a symbol, the codes for these two (the first
and the last elements) are to be interchanged.
ii) If the first and last elements are odd numbers, then the first and last elements are to
be coded as @.
iii) If both the second and third elements are perfect square roots, then the third
element is to be coded as the code for the second element.

What will be the code for $94^8?
Ans 1. FDKHE

2. EDKHF

3. FDDHE

4. FKKHE

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Q.100 In January 2025, which major tribute was part of the Armed Forces Veterans’ Day
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celebration held at Akhnoor, Jammu?

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Ans 1. Launch of One Rank One Pension Phase II Benefits
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2. Award ceremony for Gallantry Medals to ex-servicemen families

3. Hoisting of a 108-feet National Flag and opening of a heritage museum
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4. Inauguration of a National Veterans Memorial Park

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m.co s e m
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