Goa Board Class 11 Sample Paper Business Studies

Sample Paper
&
Question Paper Pattern
2022
2023

GOA BOARD

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM , GOA
Design of question paper
Academic Year from June 2022 onwards.
Std: -XI Sub: - Business Studies Subject Code: - H-4655
The Weightage of the distribution of marks over different dimensions of the Question paper shall be as
follows:

A. 1st Terminal Examination:
1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes (1st Terminal Examination-MCQ) 40 Marks.
Sr. No Learning Outcome Marks Percentage
of Marks

01 Knowledge 40 100%

02 Understanding -- --

03 Application -- --

Total 100%

2. Weightage to content (1st Terminal Examination-MCQ) 40 Marks.
Unit I to Unit V
Sr. No Unit Topic Marks Unit Percentage

01 Unit-I Nature and purpose of 08 20%
business.
02 Unit-II Forms of business organisations 08 20%

03 Unit-IIIPublic, Private and Global 06 15%
Enterprises.
04 Unit-IV Business Services 10 25%

05 Unit-V Emerging modes of business 08 20%

Total 40 100%

3. Weightage to forms of Questions (1st Terminal Examination-MCQ) 40 Marks.

Sr. No Forms of Questions Marks for No of Questions Total
each question Marks
01 Objective Type Questions 01 40 40
02 Short Answer Type 1 -- -- --
03 Short Answer Type 2 -- -- --
04 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 40 40
4. The expected time for different type of questions would be as follows:
Sr. Form of Questions App. Time for Number Approx. time for each
No each Question of form of Questions in
in Minutes.(1) Question Mins. (T x N)

01 Objective Type 2.25 40 90 Mins
Questions
02 Short Answer Type 1 -- -- --

03 Short Answer Type 2 -- -- --

04 Long Answer Type -- -- --

Total 90 Minutes 40 90 Minutes

5. Weightage to Type of Questions (1st Terminal Examination-MCQ) 40 Marks.
Sr. No Types of No of Marks Weightage Time Allotted
Questions Questions (%) (Minutes)

01 Objective Type 40 40 100% 90 Minutes
Questions
02 Short Answer -- -- --
Type 1
03 Short Answer -- -- --
Type 2
04 Long Answer -- -- --
Type
Total 40 40 100% 90 Minutes

6. Weightage to difficulty level questions (1 st Terminal examination) 40 Marks -MCQ:
Sr. No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage

01 Easy 50%

02 Average 25%

03 Difficult 25%

7. Number of Questions: - There are total 40 MCQ questions based on 5 units.

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM , GOA
Academic Year 2022 onward
FIRST TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MCQ
BLUEPRINT—MODEL QUESTION PAPER

UNIT KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING APPLICATION
VSA SA-I SA-II ET VSA SA-I SA-II ET VS SA-I SA- EA TOTAL
A II
NATURE AND 1(1) -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- 08
SIGNIFIACNCE 2(1)
OF 3(1)
MANAGEMENT 4(1)
5(1)
6(1)
7(1)
8(1)
PRINCIPLES OF 9(1) -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- 07
MANAGEMENT 10(1)
11(1)
12(1)
13(1)
14(1)
15(1)
BUSINESS 16(1) -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- 06
ENVIRONMENT 17(1)
18(1)
19(1)
20(1)
21(1)
PLANNING 22(1) -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- 05
23(1)
24(1)
25(1)
26(1)
ORGANISING 27(1) -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- 07
28(1)
29(1)
30(1)
31(1)
32(1)
33(1)
STAFFING 34(1) -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- 07
35(1)
36(1)
37(1)
38(1)
39(1)
40(1)
TOTAL 40 -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- 40
NOTE:
1. Figures inside the bracket indicate marks and outside bracket indicate question number.
2. Option is indicated by *

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION

ALTO-BETIM, GOA

MODEL QUESTION PAPER

FIRST TERMINAL EXAMINATION-2022 SUB- BUSINESS STUDIES

DURATION: 90 MINUTES MAX. MARKS: 40

Instructions:

1. This paper consists of MCQ type questions.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Every question has four choices for its answers A, B, C and D and only one of them is
correct answer.
4. On the OMR sheet, for each question number, darken with ballpoint pen. ONLY ONE
bubble correspondence to what you consider to be the most appropriate answer, from
among the four choices.
5. Please note that it is not possible to change the answer once you have filled up the
bubble with a ballpoint pen. Hence sufficient care must be taken while darkening the
bubbles.
6. For each question you will be awarded one mark if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer. In all other the cases, you will get zero marks.
There is no negative mark.
7. Only one OMR sheet will be provided.
8. Use Black or Blue point pen.

1. Which of the following does not characterize business activity? 1
(a) Production of goods & services
(b) Presence of risk
(c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
(d) Salary and wages

2. The possibilities of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties are 1
known as ____________
(a) Business contingencies
(b) Business risks
(c) Business ventures
(d) Business objective

3. Keval is A Chartered accountant, on weekends he goes to nearby village and 1
teaches some slum children for which he does not charge any fees from them , as he
does it out of his concern and sympathy towards these children. This activity of Keval
is considered as ____________.
(a) An economic activity
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) A non-economic activity

4. Which of the following cannot be classified as an auxiliary to trade. 1
(a) Mining
(b) Insurance
(c) Warehousing
(d) Transport.

5. Tea is mainly produced in Assam; Cotton in Gujarat and Maharashtra; Jute in west 1
Bengal and Orissa; Sugar in U.P and Maharashtra. But these goods are required for
consumption in different parts of the country. For this purpose, ----is very important.
a)Banking and Finance
b)Advertising

c)Insurance
d)Transport and Communication

6. Which of the broad categories of industries covers oil refinery and sugar mills? 1
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) primary and tertiary

7. Which of the following is NOT a natural cause of business risk? 1
(a) Earthquake
(b) Famine
(c) Strike
(d) Heavy Rains

8. Which of the following is a false statement? 1
(a)The scope of commerce is narrower than business.
(b) Commerce includes trade and auxiliaries to trade.
(c) Foreign trade is purchase and sale by the traders of the same country.
(d) Traders serve as a link between producers and consumers.

9.A
9. company cannot come into existence without __________. 1
(a)Electing Director
(b) Getting certificate of incorporation
( c) Issuing prospectus
(d) Getting permission from SEBI

10. The structure in which there is separation of ownership and management as per 1
law is called
(a) Company
(b) All business organisations
(c) Partnership
(d) Sole proprietorship

11. A_____________partner is an owner who has unlimited liability and is active in 1
managing the firm:
(a) senior partner.
(b) general partner.
(c) silent partner.
(d) limited partner.

12. Which of the following commercial organisation do not share its Profits ? 1
(a) Company
(b) Sole proprietorship
(c) Joint Hindu family business
(d) Partnership

13. Ridhi and Sidhi want to start a business of cosmetics products, they approached a
chartered accountant for guidance, chartered accountant advised them to develop a
document that will specify terms and conditions in writing for this business. This
document is called as ____________. 1
(a) AOA
(b) MOA
(c) Partnership deed
(d) Prospectus

14. Which of the following statement describes the term unlimited liability? 1
(a) The personal assets of the owner can be sold when the assets of the business are
not enough .
(b) The personal assets of the owner cannot be sold at all
(c) The personal assets of the owner can be sold, according to the wish of the creditors
(d) The personal assets of the owner can be sold, only to a limited extent

15.A
15. partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called 1
(a) Active partner
(b) Nominal partner
(c) Secret partner
(d) Sleeping partner

16. Which of the following is not a feature of a Joint Stock Company? 1
(a) Artificial person
(b) Separate legal entity
(c) Formation
(d) Lack of business continuity

17. Name the partnership that works well when private sector technology and
innovation combine with public sector incentives to complete work on time and 1
within budget.
(a) limited partnership
(b) general partnership
(c) Public Private Partnership
(d) Partnership at will

18. Centralised control in MNC’s implies control exercised by_____________. 1
(a) Branches
(b) Subsidiaries
(c) Headquarters
(d) Parliament

19. The shares of a Government Company are purchased in the name of which of the
following? 1
(a) The Indian Government.
(b) The President of India.
(c) The Chief Minister of the state, where the head office of the company lies.
(d) The Managing Director of the company.

20. The funding of which of the following enterprise comes directly from the
government treasury, is under an annual appropriation from the budget of the
government and the revenue earned by it is also paid into the treasury? 1
(a) Departmental undertaking
(b) Statutory corporation
(c) Government company
(d) Cooperatives

21. Which of the following is true about statutory corporations? 1
(a) Statutory corporations are public enterprises that come into existence by a
special act of the parliament.
(b) Statutory corporations are subject to the same accounting and audit procedures
as are applicable to government departments.
(c) Statutory enterprises are funded directly by the government treasury.
(d) The employees of statutory enterprises are civil servants.

22. Maximum number of shareholders in OPC (One Person Company) is _________. 1
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Fifty
(d)Two hundred

23. DTH services are provided by________. 1
(a) Transport companies
(b) Banks
(c) Cellular companies
(d) Insurance Companies

24. 1

24. Which of the following is an allied postal service?
(a) Greeting post
(b) Media post
(c) Speed post
(d) Passport Application

25. Which insurance contract is also called as contract of assurance? 1
(a) Marine Insurance
(b) vehicle Insurance
(c) Fire Insurance
(d) Life Insurance

26. It is a type of saving bank account in which excess of a particular limit gets 1
automatically transferred to a fixed deposit account.
(a) Multiple deposit option account
(b) salary account
(c) current account
(d) Recurring deposit account

27. which principle of insurance states that the insured must take reasonable steps to
minimise the loss or damage to the insured property? 1
(a) Principle of Indemnity
(b) Principle of subrogation
(c) Principle of Mitigation of loss
(d) Principle of approximate cause

28. A saving scheme run by post offices in India in which the invested money is
doubled in eight years and seven months is________. 1
(a) Kisan Vikas patra
(b) National saving scheme
(c) National saving certificate
(d) Fixed maturity investment scheme

29. Linkages and switched services aimed at providing one way entertainment
services in a small area of operation is known as ____. 1
(a) VSAT
(b) Direct to home services
(c) Radio Paging Services
(d)Cable services

30. Postal services are offered by both the department of post and telegraph and
private sector, postal services offered by private sector is known as ______________. 1
(a) Registered post
(b) speed post
(c) courier
(d) Parcel

31. Mr.Shubhdeep a businessman, gets his stock worth ₹ 1,50,000 insured for ₹
1,75,000 under fire insurance. A fire occurs and the whole stock gets damaged. The
insurance company admits a claim of ₹ 1,50,000 only and not ₹ 1,75,000, as per the
principle of _________________. 1
(a) Principle of insurable interest
(b) Principle of subrogation
(c) Principle of Mitigation of loss
(d) Principle of Indemnity

32. Which one of the following is NOT the form of E- Banking services offered by E- 1
Banking?
(a) Cheque
(b) ATM
(c) POS

(d) EFTS

33.

33. Complaint lodged by a customer at the company’s call centre. Which of the type 1
of e-business transaction is highlighted in the above statement?
(a) C2C Commerce
(b) C2B Commerce
(c) B2C Commerce
(d) B2B Commerce

34. ____________ refers to contracting out some of its activities to a third party which
were earlier performed by the organisation. 1
(a) E-Banking
(b) E-Commerce
(c) BPO
(d) Outsourcing

35. Under what method payment is made at the time of physical delivery of goods? 1
(a) Cash on delivery
(b) Debit card payment
(c) Credit card payment
(d) Prepaid amount

36. India is the preferred destination for BPO because of ____________. 1
(a) Tax Free Zone for BPOs
(b) Cheap People
(c) Cheap Manpower
(d) Poor conditions

37. The full form of KPO is ___________. 1
(a) Knowledge Process Online
(b) Knowledge Postal Office
(c) Knowledge Process Outsourcing
(d) Knowledge Process Outgoing

38. The payment mechanism typical to e-business is_______. 1
(a) Credit and Debit Cards
(b) Cash on Delivery
(c) Cheques
(d) e-Cash

39. The type of prepaid account in which a user can store his/ her money for any future
online transaction_________. 1
The payment mechanism typical to e-business
(a) Credit card
(b) E-Wallet
(c) Debit Card
(d) RTGS

40. Vital information stored in the system can be stolen or changed to pursue some 1
selfish motive, this statement describes about
(a) Data Storage and Transaction Risks
(b) Transactional Risk
(c) The Risk of Threat Intellectual Property and Privacy.
(d)default on payment

*********************************************************************
41.

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM , GOA
MODEL ANSWER KEY

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION (MCQ)

SUB :- BUSINESS STUDIES STD:- XI SUBJECT CODE :-H-4655

TOTAL NO OF QUESTIONS: - 40 DURATION: -90 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS:- 40

1. D Salary and wages. 21. A----Statutory corporations are public
enterprises that come into existence by a
special act of the parliament.
2. B Business risks. 22. A---One.

3. D A non-economic activity. 23. C---Cellular companies.

4. A ---Mining. 24. C---Speed post.

5. D ---Transport and communication. 25. D---Life insurance.

6. B ---Secondary. 26. A---Multiple deposit option account.

7. C--- Strike. 27. C---Principle of mitigation of loss.

8. C ---Foreign trade is purchase and sale by the traders

of the same country. 28.--- A Kisan Vikas Patra.

9. B ---Getting certificate of incorporation. 29. D---Cable services.

10. A--- Company 30. C---Courier.

11. B ---General partner. 31. D---Principle of Indemnity.

12. B --- Sole proprietorship. 32. A---Cheque.

13. C--- Partnership deed. 33. B---C2B commerce.

14. A --- The personal assets. 34. C---BPO.

15. C--- Secret partner. 35. A---Cash on delivery.

16. D --- Lack of business continuity 36. C---Cheap manpower.

17. C--- Public private partnership 37. C---Knowledge process outsourcing.

18. C --- Headquarters. 38. A---Credit card and debit card.

19. B ---The president of India. 39. B---E-wallet.

20. A ---Departmental undertaking. 40. A---Data storage and transaction risks.

B. 2ND TERMINAL EXAMINATION- SUBJECTIVE (40 MARKS)

The Weightage of the distribution of marks over different dimensions of the Question paper
shall be as follows:
1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes (2nd Terminal Examination-Subjective) 40 Marks.
Sr. No Learning Outcome Marks Percentage
of Marks

01 Knowledge 11 27.5%

02 Understanding 20 50%

03 Application 09 22.5%

Total 40 100%

2. Weightage to content (2nd Terminal Examination-Subjective) 40 Marks.
Unit I to Unit VI
Sr. No Unit Topic Marks Unit
Percentage

01 Unit-VI Corporate Social 06 15%
Responsibilities and Business
Ethics.
02 Unit-VII Sources of Business Finance 10 25%

03 Unit-VIII Small Business 06 15%

04 Unit-IX Internal Trade 12 30%

05 Unit-X International Trade 06 15%

Total 40 100%

3. Weightage to forms of Questions (2nd Terminal Examination-Subjective) 40 Marks.

Sr. No Form of Questions Marks for No of Questions Total
each question Marks
01 Objective Type Questions 01 04 04
02 Short Answer Type 1 02 04 04
03 Short Answer Type 2 03 04 04
04 Long Answer Type 04 04 04
Total 16 40
4. The expected time for different type of questions would be as follows:
Sr. No Forma of Questions Approx. Time Number Approx. time
for each of for each form of
Question in Question Questions in
Minutes (1) Mins. (T x N)

01 Objective Type Questions 2.25 Min 04 09

02 Short Answer Type 1 04 Min 04 16

03 Short Answer Type 2 06 Min 04 24

04 Long Answer Type 10.25 04 41

Total 16 90 Minutes

5. Weightage to Type of Questions (2nd Terminal Examination-Subjective) 40 Marks.
Sr. No Types of No of Marks Weightage Time Allotted
Questions Questions (%) (Minutes)

01 Objective Type 04 04 06.67% 06 minutes
Questions
02 Short Answer 04 08 22.22% 20 Minutes
Type 1
03 Short Answer 04 12 31.11% 28 Minutes
Type 2
04 Long Answer 04 16 40% 36 Minutes
Type
Total 16 40 100% 90 Minutes

6. Scheme of option.
There is an internal choice in Question No -12 for 3 marks and Question No -14 for 4 marks.

7. Weightage to difficulty level questions (2nd Terminal examination- subjective) 40 Marks -
MCQ:
Sr. No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage

01 Easy 30%

02 Average 60%

03 Difficult 10%

Total 100%

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM , GOA
Academic year June 2022 onward

SECOND TERMINAL EXAMINATION- SUBJECTIVE (40 MARKS)

BLUE PRINT

SUB:- BUSINESS STUDIES -XII Subject Code:-H-4655

Total No of questions: - 16 Duration: - 90 Minutes.

UNIT KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING APPLICATION TOTAL
VSA SA-I SA- ET VSA SA-I SA-II ET VSA SA-I SA-II ET
II
UNIT- 1(1) 13(4) 5(2) 08
07 2(1)
UNIT- 9(3) 03
08
UNIT- 3(1) *14(4) 05
09
UNIT- 6(2) 11(3) 05
10
UNIT- 8(2) 7(2) 4(1) 10(3) 15(4) 12
11
UNIT- *12(3) 16(4) 07
12
TOTAL 11 20 09 40

NOTE:

1. Figures inside the bracket indicate marks and outside bracket indicate question number.
2. Option is indicated by *

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM , GOA
2nd Terminal Examination 2022 onward

Model question Paper

Subject: - Business Studies XI Subject Code: - H-4655
Total No Questions: -16 Duration: - 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: - 40
__________________________________________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper consists of 16 questions divided into 4 parts A, B, C, D.
3. Part A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each, which is very short answer type question.
4. Part B contains 4 questions of 2 marks.
5. Part C contains 4 questions of 3 marks.
6. Part D contains 4 questions of 4 marks.
7. There is no overall choice however, internal choice is provided in question No 12 and 14.

PART-A
1. Who regulate the acceptance of public deposit?

2. In which year MSMED Act was passed?

3. Name the trader who purchase goods and services in large quantities for the purpose of resale to other
trader.

4. ROYAL LTD issued a document to a Mahalakshmi trader which specifies price, mode of payment and
terms and conditions of purchase. Identify the documents used in retail trading.

PART-B
5. “Ethical business behaviour is good for both the business enterprises and society” With reference to
this statement explains following elements of business ethics
(a) Top management commitment.
(b) Publication of ‘code’

6. What preferential rights are enjoyed by preference shareholders over equity shareholders. (Two rights)

7. State four functions of National Small Industries Corporation as an institutional support for a small
business.

8. Mention four major functions of World Trade Organisation.
PART-C
9. “Equity shares is the most important source of raising long term capital for a company”. With reference
to the above statement describe three merits of equity shares.

10. Describe three points which bring out role of a small business in rural India.

11. Explain the following fixed shop small retailers:
(a) General stores
(b) Second hand goods shop
(c) Speciality shop

12. Explain four merits of Departmental Stores.
OR
12. Explain four merits of Multiple stores.

PART-D

13. State and explain four types of pollutions cause due to business enterprises.

14. What is Trade Credit? State three merits and three demerits of trade credit.
OR

14. What is Debentures? State three merits and three demerits Of debentures.

15. Identify and explain the type of retail trade involved in the following cases:

(a) Itinerant retailer who sell product, by carrying on their own head or by using bicycle.
(b) Itinerant retailer who hire place on temporary period in a business locality.

(c) Large retail store which sell daily needed product by using Coin/Currency operated machine.

(d) Type of Itinerant retailer who sells goods on a particular market day.

16. Describe following documents needed in connection with Export trade:
(a) Certificate of origin.
(b) Bill of lading.
(c) Export invoice.
(d) Cart ticket.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM , GOA
2nd Terminal Examination 2022 onward

Model Answer Key

Subject: - Business Studies XI Subject Code: - H-4655
Total No Questions: -16 Duration: - 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: - 40
_____________________________________________________________________________________

PART-A

1. Reserve Bank of India. 1 Mark

2. 2006. 1 Mark

3. Wholesaler. 1 mark

4. Proforma Invoice. 1 Mark

PART-B
5. (i) Top management commitment.
(ii) Publication of code.
(Consider both Points with explanation, 1 mark each)

6. The following are main rights of the preferential shareholders over equity shareholders.
(I) They receive fixed rate of dividend.
(II) They are paid before equity shareholders during the time of liquidation of the company.
(1 mark for each point)

7. The following important functions are carried out by the NSIC.
(i) Supply indigenous and imported machines on easy hire-purchase terms.
(ii) Procure, supply and distribute indigenous and imported raw materials.
(iii) Export the products of small business units.
(iv) To provide mentoring and advisory services.
(v) Creating awareness on technological upgradation.
(vi) Developing software technology parks and technology transfer centres.
(Consider any four points ½ mark each)

8. The following important functions are carried out by the WTO.
(i) Promoting environment.
(ii) Laying down a commonly accepted code of conduct to reduce trade barriers.
(iii) Acting as a dispute settlement body.
(iv) Ensure ring about that all rules and regulations prescribe by the act are duly followed by
the members countries for the settlement of disputes.
(v) Holding consultations with IMF and IBRD and affiliated agencies to bring understanding
and cooperation in global economic policy making.

PART-C
9. Following points bring out importance of the equity shares.
(I) Fluctuating Dividend.
(II) Voting rights.
(III) Right of bonus issue.
(IV) Permanent source of capital.

(V) No charge on assets.
(VI) Democratic control over management.
(Consider three correct points with explanation 1 mark)

10.Following points bring out important role of the small business in rural India.

(i) Generate G.D.P.
(ii) Employment Opportunities.
(iii) Provides variety of products.
(iv) Balance regional development.
(v) Opportunities for entrepreneurship.
(Consider three points with explanation)

11. (a) General Stores: - general stores are mostly found in the residential areas. They sell variety of
products of day-to-day needs. Such stores remain open for long hours at convenient timing
to its customers. They also provide credit facilities for the regular customers.
(b) Second hand goods shop: - these shop deals in used goods like books, cloths, automobiles,
furniture and others household goods. The goods are sold at lower prices. Such shops also
stock rare objects of historical values and antique items.
(c) Speciality shops: - Instead of selling variety of products these retail stores specialised in the
sale of a specific line of products. Examples Toys, Gifts, Children’s Garments, Men ware’s,
Ladies shoes, Electronics goods etc.
(Consider all points with explanations 1 mark each)

12. Merits of departmental stores:
(i) Attract large number of customers.
(ii) Convenience in buying.
(iii) Attractive services.
(iv) Economy of large -scale operations.
(v) Promotion of sales.
(Consider four points with explanations 1 mark each)
OR
12. merits of Multiple Store.
(i) economies of scale.
(ii) Elimination of middlemen.
(iii) No bad debts
(iv) transfer of goods.
(v) Diffusion of risks
(vi) Low cost
(Consider four points with explanations 1 mark each)

PART-D
13. Types of pollutions:
(i) Air pollution
(ii) Water pollution
(iii) land pollution
(iv) Noise pollution

(Consider four types of pollution with explanation 1 mark each)

14. Trade Credit- It is the credit extended by one trader to another for the purchase e of goods and
services. Trade credit facilities the purchase of supplies without immediate payment.
Merits: - (1) Is a convenient and continuous source of funds.
(2) It promotes sales of an organisation.
(3) Does not create any charge on the assets of the firm.
Demerits (1) Firms may indulge in overtrading.
(2) Only limited amount of funds can be generated.

(3) It is generally costly source of fund.

(1 mark for meaning and ½ marks for each merit and demerits)

OR.
14. Debentures are an important instrument for raising long-term debt capital. Debentures is issued
by a company is an acknowledgement that company has borrowed a certain amount of money
which it promises to repay at a future date.
Merits: -
1) It is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk.
2) The issue of debentures is suitable in the situation when the sales and earnings are relatively
stable.
3) Financing through debentures is less costly as compared to issue of shares.
Demerits:
1) As fixed charge instruments, debentures put a permanent burden on the earnings of a
company.
2) In case of redeemable debentures, the company has to make provisions for repayment on
the specified date.
3) Each company has certain borrowing capacity. With the issue of debentures, the capacity of a
company to further borrow funds reduces.

15. (a) Peddlers and Hawkers: - Oldest type of retailers who does not have fixed place of business.
They provide door to door services toits customers.
(b) Cheap Jacks: - They are also known as Petty retailers. They go on changing their business
locality. They deal in consumer goods.
(c) Vending Machines: - They are useful in selling several products without salesman or
salesgirls. They provide services in product like Milk, Chocolates, Newspaper, Soft drinks etc.
(d) Market Traders: - They sell products on particular market day. Generally, they deals in one
particular line of merchandise.

16. (a) Certificate of origin: - This certificate specifies the country in which the goods are being
produced. This certificate entitles the importer to claim tariff concessions or other exemptions
such as non-applicability of quota restrictions on goods.

(b) Bill of lading: - is a document wherein a shipping company gives its official receipt of the goods
put on the board its vessel and the same time gives an undertaking to carry them to the port
of destination.

(c) Export invoice: - Export invoice is the sellers bill for the merchandise and contains information
about goods such as quantity, total value, number of packings, port of destination, name of
ship, terms of delivery and payments etc.

(d) Cart ticket. A cart ticket is also known as a chat chit, vehicle or gate pass. It is prepared by the
exporter and includes details of the export cargo in terms of the shipper’s name, number of
packages, shipping bill number, port of destination and number of vehicles carrying the cargo.

__________________________________________________________________________________

C. 1 ST INTERNAL TEST (20 MARKS)
1. Weightage to learning outcomes 1 ST INTERNAL TEST -20 Marks
Sr. No Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of Marks

01 Knowledge 05 25%

02 Understanding 10 50%

03 Application 05 25%

2.Weightage to content 1 ST INTERNAL TEST-20 Marks.

Unit I to Unit IV
Sr. No Unit Topic Marks Unit
Percentage

01 Unit-I Nature and purpose of business 10 50%

02 Unit-II Forms of commercial 10 50%
organisations
Total 20 100%

3.Weightage to forms of Questions (1 ST INTERNAL TEST) 20 Marks.

Sr. No Form of Questions Marks for No of Questions Total
each question Marks
01 Objective Type Questions 01 02 02
02 Short Answer Type 1 02 02 04
03 Short Answer Type 2 03 02 06
04 Long Answer Type 04 02 08
Total 08 20

4.The expected time for different type of questions would be as follows:

Sr. No Forms of Questions Approx. Time Number Approx. time for
for each of each form of
Question in Question Questions in
Minutes(1) Mins.(T x N)

01 Objective Type Questions 3 02 06

02 Short Answer Type 1 06 02 12

03 Short Answer Type 2 09 02 18

04 Long Answer Type 12 02 24

Total 08 60 Minutes

5.Weightage to Type of Questions (1 ST INTERNAL TEST) 20 Marks.

Sr. No Types of No of Marks Weightage Time Allotted
Questions Questions (%) (Minutes)

01 Objective Type 02 02 10 06
Questions
02 Short Answer 02 04 20 12
Type 1
03 Short Answer 02 06 30 18
Type 2
04 Long Answer 02 08 40 24
Type
Total 08 20 100% 60Minutes

6.Weightage to difficulty level questions (1 ST INTERNAL TEST) 20 Marks

Sr. No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage

01 Easy 30%

02 Average 60%

03 Difficult 10%

7. Scheme of options:
There is an internal choice in Question No:- 05.

Blue Print Of Model Question Paper

First Internal Test Exam 2022-23

Sub: Business Studies

Std: XI

Marks: 20

UNITS KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING APPLICATION TOTAL
MARKS
VSA SA1 SA2 ET VSA SA1 SA2 ET VSA SA1 SA2 ET

1-Nature and 1(1) 5(3)* 7(4) 3(2) 10
the purpose of
business

2-Forms of 2(1) 4(2) 8(4) 6(3) 10
business
organisation

Total marks 02 03 02 08 02 03

05 (25%) 10 (50%) 05 (25%) 20

- Inside Backet indicates ‘Marks’
- Outside Bracket indicates ‘Questions’
- Optional questions indicated ‘Star *’

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM
Model Question paper
First Internal Test 2022-23
Subject code: H4655
_________________________________________________________
Sub: Business Studies Max marks: 20
STD: XI Duration: 1Hr
_________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all questions.
2. Question numbers 1 & 2 are Multiple choice questions.
3. Question numbers 3 & 4 are to be answered for 2 marks each,
4. Question numbers 5 & 6 are to be answered for 3 marks each.
5. Question numbers 7 & 8 are to be answered for 4 marks each.
6. Internal choice is allotted in question number 5.
_________________________________________________________

Q1) The main aim of a business is —----------.
a) Sale of goods
b) Sale of services
c) Earning profit
d) Only production

Q2) A written agreement between partners on a stamp paper is known as —----------- .
a) Partnership contact
b) Partnership agreement
c) Partnership
d) Partnership deed

Q3) Rajesh makes fancy items for sale whereas Sailee makes them for personal use. Identify
and explain the types of activities in which Rajesh and Sailee are involved.

Q4) Explain the following types of partners.
a) Active partner
b) Secret partner

Q5) What are the different causes of business risk? (Explain three points)

OR

Q5) What are the economic objectives of a business? (Explain three points).

Q6) Antony intends to start a pharmacy in his Village. Suggest him which form of
business organisation is suitable and why? (give two reasons)

Q7) Explain four merits of a Joint stock company.

Q8) How do the following auxiliaries to trade help in overcoming various difficulties of trade?
a) Transport
b) Finance and banking
c) Warehousing
d) Insurance

\THE END/

GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO-BETIM
Model paper Answer Key

First Formative Exam 2022-23

Sub: Business Studies

Std: XI

Marks: 20

____________________________________________________________________________________

Q1) c) Earning profit 1mk

Q2) d) Partnership deed 1mk

Q3) Rajesh is involved in an economic activity whereas Sailee is involved in a non economic

activity.Economic activity means performing the activities in order to earn money.Whereas

non-economic activities mean the activities performed not to earn money.

( ½ ,½ mark for each identification and ½ ,½ mark for the explanation. Total 2 marks)

Q4) Types of partners

a) Active partner
Active partner is a type of partner who takes an active part in a day today's activities of
the business. He contributes capital to the firm and his liabilities are unlimited. He
shares the profit or loss of the firm. ( 1 mark for the explanation)

b) Secret partner
Secret partner is one whose association or relation with the firm is not known to
outsiders. He contributes capital, participates actively in the management of the firm,
his liabilities are unlimited.

( 1 mark for the explanation) Total 2 marks.

Q5) The causes of business risk are

1. Natural causes
2. Human causes
3. Economic causes
4. Physical causes/ Other causes
(Consider any three points with explanation. 1 mark each . Total 3 marks)

OR

Economic objectives of business are

1) Survival
2) Profit
3) Growth
(1 mark for each explained point. Total 3 marks)

Q6. Antony should start a pharmacy under Sole proprietorship form of business organisation due
to the following reasons:
1)Easy formation
2)Limited capital
3)Quick decision
4) Maintain secrecy
5)Flexibility
6) Direct incentive
7) Sole Beneficiary of profit .
(Consider any 3 points with an explanation for 1 mark each)

Q7) MERITS OF JOINT STOCK COMPANY

1. Huge capital
2. Limited liability
3. Continuity
4. Efficient management
5. Growth and expansion
6. Easy transferability of shares
7. Public confidence
8. Demographic management
(Consider any four points with an explanation for 1 mark each)

Q8) Different auxiliaries to trade

1. Transport
Transport refers to the movement of goods from one place to another. The production of the
goods takes place at one place whereas these are demanded in different parts of the world.The
difficulty of place is removed by transport by moving the goods at the place of demand.

2. FINANCE AND BANKING
Banks and financial institutions provide credit as well as loan for a smooth flow of business
activities. Bank help the businessmen to overcome the problem of funds.

3. Warehousing
Usually there is a time gap between the production and consumption of goods. Goods are not
consumed immediately when these are produced. For eg Rice, wheat etc. are produced in a
particular season only but are consumed throughout the year. The warehousing enables
businessmen to store these goods and make them available on time

4. Insurance
Businessmen has to bear various types of risks. Insurance provides protection from some kind of
risk such as risk of fire, theft, accident etc. The insurance company also provides protection to
the employees against the risk of accident while working. This is how insurance helps to
overcome the problem of risks.

D. 2ND INTERNAL TEST (20 MARKS)
2. Weightage to learning outcomes 2ND FORMATIVE TEST -20 Marks
Sr. No Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of Marks

01 Knowledge 05 25%

02 Understanding 10 50%

03 Application 05 25%

2.Weightage to content 2ND INTERNAL TEST-20 Marks.

Unit I to Unit IV
Sr. No Unit Topic Marks Unit
Percentage

01 Unit-VI Corporate Social 05 12.5%
Responsibilities and Business
Ethics
02 Unit- Sources of Business Finance 09 22.5%
VII
03 Unit- Small Business 06 15%
VIII
Total 20 100%

3.Weightage to forms of Questions (2ND INTERNAL TEST) 20 Marks.

Sr. No Form of Questions Marks for No of Questions Total
each question Marks
01 Objective Type Questions 01 02 02
02 Short Answer Type 1 02 02 04
03 Short Answer Type 2 03 02 06
04 Long Answer Type 04 02 08
Total 08 20

4.The expected time for different type of questions would be as follows:

Sr. No Forms of Questions Approx. Time Number Approx. time for
for each of each form of
Question in Question Questions in
Minutes(1) Mins.(T x N)

01 Objective Type Questions 3 02 06

02 Short Answer Type 1 06 02 12

03 Short Answer Type 2 09 02 18

04 Long Answer Type 12 02 24

Total 08 61 Minutes

5.Weightage to Type of Questions (2ND INTERNAL TEST) 20 Marks.

Sr. No Types of No of Marks Weightage Time Allotted
Questions Questions (%) (Minutes)

01 Objective Type 02 02 10 06
Questions
02 Short Answer 02 04 20 12
Type 1
03 Short Answer 02 06 30 18
Type 2
04 Long Answer 02 08 40 24
Type
Total 08 20 100% 60Minutes

6.Weightage to difficulty level questions (2ND INTERNAL TEST) 20 Marks

Sr. No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage

01 Easy 30%

02 Average 60%

03 Difficult 10%

8. Scheme of options:
There is an internal choice in Question No:-08.

Goa Board Secondary & Higher Secondary Education – Alto Porvorim
Blue Print

Second Quarterly Test

Business Studies Std- XI Model Question Paper 2022-23

UNIT KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING APPLICATION TOTAL
MARKS
MCQ VSA SAI SAII MCQ VSA SAI SAII MCQ VSA SAI SAII
UNIT 6 2(1) 8(4)* 5
UNIT 7 3(2) 5(3) 7(4) 9
UNIT 8 1(1) 6(3) 4(2) 6
6 10 4 20
30% 50% 20%

NOTE:

1) Figures inside the bracket indicate marks and figures outside the bracket indicate question
number.
2) Option is indicated by *

Goa Board Secondary & Higher Secondary Education – Alto Porvorim
Sub-Business Studies Std- XI
Second Quarterly test
Model Question Paper – 2022-23
INSTRUCTIONS:
8. All questions are compulsory.
9. This question paper consists of 8 questions divided into 4 parts A, B, C, D.
10. Part A contains 2 questions of 1 mark each, which is a multiple choice or very short answer type
question.
11. Part B contains 2 questions of 2 marks.
12. Part C contains 2 questions of 3 marks.
13. Part D contains 2 questions of 4 marks.
14. There is no overall choice however, internal choice is provided in question no 8.

PART A
Q. 1. When business firms use eco- friendly method of production than they are performing social
responsibilities towards which group?

Q. 2. Name the Apex institution set up to provide direct and indirect financial assistance to Small Scale
sector.
PART B

Q. 3. State two advantages of Retained Earnings as a Source of Finance.

Q. 4. How do Small Scale Industries contribute to the Socio-economic development of India? (Two
points)
PART C

Q. 5. “Debentures are the important long-term source of finance”. Describe above statement with the
help of three points.

Q. 6. What are the Incentives provided by Government of India for the development of backward, tribal?
and hilly areas. (Three points)
PART D

Q. 7. ABC LTD. Is planning to modernize its plant with latest technology. The company is lacking in
sufficient funds. The finance manager plans to arrange money for three years as after three years,
the company is expected good return from their previous investment. The finance manager does
not want to spend floatation cost and do not want to approach stock exchange
a) Suggest and explain the suitable source of finance in the above case.
b) How can company approach public without spending on floatation cost?
c) State two benefits of this source of finance.

Q.8. Explain in brief the following types of pollution.

a) Land pollution

b) Water pollution

c) Noise pollution

d) Air pollution

OR

Q. 8. Why do the enterprises need to adopt pollution control measures?

Goa Board Secondary & Higher Secondary Education – Alto Porvorim
Sub-Business Studies Std- XI
Second Quarterly test
MODEL ANSWER KEY

Ans 1. Community 1 mark

Ans 2. Small Industries Development Bank of India 1 Mark

Ans 3. Advantages of Retained Earning

1. Retained earnings is a permanent source of funds available to an organization.
2. It does not involve any explicit cost in the form of interest, dividend or flotation
cost.
(One mark for one point)

Ans 4. Small scale industries contribute to the socio-economic development of India in different ways.

1. Small scale industries are labour intensive units thus generate larger employment opportunities.
2. They offer wide range of non-agricultural activities thus provide multiple sources of income.
3. They use locally available resources thus they promote regional development. Etc.
(Consider two points 1 mark each)

Ans 5. Following are the advantages of Debentures: -

1. Low cost- The cost of raising debentures is less than the cost of raising preference shares or
equity shares. It is cheaper source of finance.
2. No dilution of control- debenture holders do not get any voting rights. They are not allowed to
participate in decision making so debenture financing does not result in dilution of control of
equity shareholders.
3. Attract large number of Investors- The Company offers a fixed rate of interest on debentures.
This fixed return appeals and attracts many investors to invest in debentures. Hence the
company can collect a large amount of funds by issue of debentures.
4. Interest is treated as an expense- The interest paid to debenture holders is considered as an
expense of the company. Interest is deducted from the total income of the company before
calculating income tax. so the liability of tax reduces.
5. Low rate of Interest- The earning rate of the company by utilizing debenture fund is much higher
than the rate of interest offered to debenture holders. As a result, equity shareholders earn
more with the presence of debentures in the capital structure.
(Consider three points with explanation 1 mark each)

Ans 6. Following are the Incentives offered by Government of India for the development of backward,
tribal and hilly areas.
1. Land – every state offers developed plots for setting up of industries. The terms and conditions
may vary. Some states don’t charge rent in the initial years, while some allow payment in
instalments.
2. Power- Power is supplied at a concessional rate of 50% , while some states exempt such units
from payment in the initial years.
3. Water- water is supplied at no profit no loss basis or with 50% concession or exemption from
water charges for a period of 5 years.
4. Sales tax- in all union territories, industries are exempted from sales tax, while some states
extend exemption for 5 years period.
5. Octroi- most states have abolished octroi.
6. Raw materials- units located in backward areas get preferential treatment in the matter of
allotment of scarce raw materials like cement, iron and steel etc.
7. Finance- subsidy of 10-15% is given for building capital assets. Loans are also offered at

concessional rates.
8. Industrial estates- some states encourage setting up of industrial estates in backward areas.

9. Tax holiday- exemption from paying taxes for 5 to 10 years is given to industries established in
backward, hilly and tribal areas.
(Consider three incentives with explanation 1 mark each)

Ans 7. (a) Public deposits- The deposits that are raised by organizations directly from the public are
known as public deposits. Rates of interest offered on public deposits are higher than bank
deposits. Any person interested in depositing in public deposits have to fill in the prescribed
form.
b. Through an Advertisement.

c. Benefits of Public deposits
1. The procedure of obtaining deposits is simple and does not contain restrictive conditions
as are generally there in a loan agreement.
2. Cost of public deposits are low as compared to borrowings from banks or other financial
institutions.
3. As the depositors do not have voting rights, the control of the company is not diluted.
4. Public deposits do not create any charge on the assets of the company.
(a- 1 mark, b- 1mark and c- 2 mark)

Ans 8. Types of pollution.

a) Land pollution- It refers to dumping of toxic waste in the land which affects the fertility of land
and makes it unfit for agriculture. There are two aspects of land pollution one is how to improve
the quality of land which is already damaged and second is how to check further contamination
of land.
b) Water pollution- it refers to dumping of chemical and other wastes in rivers, lakes etc.
Generally, the factories located near the rivers, streams dump their waste into rivers, lakes,
streams etc. thereby causing pollution of water.
c) Noise pollution- Noise caused by the running factories and vehicles is not merely a source of
annoyance but also a serious health hazard. It is responsible for diseases like loss of hearing,
malfunctioning of the heart and mental disorder.
d) Air pollution- It refers to injection of harmful substances in the atmosphere which results in
lowering the quality of air, we breathe in. Air pollution is a serious problem for the whole world
as it has created a hole in the ozone layer of atmosphere. Smoke, chemicals emitted by
factories and smoke emitted by vehicles are the main causes of air pollution.
(Consider four types of pollution with explanation 1 mark each)
OR

Ans 8. Enterprises need to adopt pollution control measures.
1. Reduction of health hazards- To reduce the risk of diseases and provide better and healthy life to
future generation.

2. Reduced risk of liability- pollution control means lesser accidents and sufferings. This will reduce
the liability of business in the form of penalties paid to Government and compensation paid to
affected people in case they are responsible for creating pollution.

3. Cost savings- pollution free production technology will reduce wastage and operating costs.

4. Improved public image- Business enterprise making conscious efforts to control pollution enjoys
good public image.

ASSIGNMENT AND PROJECT:

E. ASSIGNMENT:
TOPICS
1] List out at least five individuals/ organisations/ Institutions performing economic and non-
economic activities and describe any two of them.

2] Find out names of five companies and write about the different auxiliaries or services
Provided by them.

3] Find out five sole proprietorships around local residential areas and write detail information
about any two of them.

4] Find out five names of the co-cooperative society around you and give details of any one of
them.

5] List out two PPP business enterprises in Goa and write detail information about them.

6] Write detail procedure of opening a Saving Bank account.

7] List out five names of companies which carry out online business and write detail steps
involved in the Online Shopping with the help of any one top e-commerce service.

F. PROJECT:-(Group Project)
TOPICS:
1] Select two companies or firms and give details of the steps taken by them in discharging
their social responsibility towards any two interest groups of the company.

2] Observe and write account about environmental pollution in your surrounding area, also
suggest remedial action which can be taken to minimise it.

3] Describe Itinerant type of retailers in Goa with the help of pictures or video.

4] List out small units in Goa. (Minimum 25) and write detail on any one of them.

5] Visit to Mall, Super Market and Multiple Store and write details on the working of any one of
them.

6] List out documents used by a trader in case of export and import trade and describe few of
them.

NOTE:
1] Student should prepare and submit individual assignment before October.
2] Student should prepare and submit group project before February.
3] Individual Assignment carry 10 Marks.
4] Group project carry marks 10 Marks.
5] Besides above listed assignment and project, teacher may allot another topic included in the
syllabus.