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Kerala SET 2019 Feb Question Paper Psychology

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Page 1

A
19226 120 MINUTES
1. One explanation for the Hermann grid illusion is
A) Feature detectors
B) Autokinetic effect
C) Apparent Distance Hypothesis
D) Binocular disparity

2. Which of the following does NOT occur in operant conditioning?
A) Spontaneous recovery B) Involuntary association
C) Discrimination D) Extinction

3. The tendency of people to falsely believe that they would have accurately predicted an
outcome, without having told about it in advance is called
A) Hindsight bias B) Acqueiscence bias
C) Extremity bias D) Overconfidence bias

4. Recent neuroscientific studies on learned helplessness have identified this region of
the brain as helping the subjects determine what type of stressors as controllable
A) Dorsal Raphe nucleus
B) Ventromedial Prefrontal Cortex
C) Hippocampus
D) Amygdala

5. In research on the need for Achievement, individual differences are usually measured
A) By observing subjects’ actual behavior in competitive examinations
B) By interviewing subjects’ about their achievement needs
C) With the Thematic Apperception test
D) With a polygraph

6. The visual cliff experiment by Gibson & Walk demonstrates
A) Depth Perception in infants
B) Preferential looking in infants
C) Habituation in infants
D) Sensation seeking behaviour

7. " It can't happen to me. I am special", is a type of thought in adolescents who have
developed
A) Personal fable B) Imaginary audience
C) A preconventional morality D) A self-concept

Page 2

8. The three needs emphasized by the Self Determination Theory (SDT) of motivation
that enable people to gain a complete sense of whole and healthy relationships with
others
A) Existence, Relatedness, Growth
B) Autonomy, Competence, Relatedness
C) Mastery, Relatedness, Competence
D) Intimacy, Autonomy, Security

9. The deficiency of this neurotransmitter may play a role in Alzheimer's disease
A) Serotonin B) Dopamine
C) Acetylcholine D) Nor-epinephrine

10. The movements similar to an embrace that an infant makes when startled is known as
A) Grasping reflex B) Adaptive reflex
C) Rooting reflex D) Moro reflex

11. Maintaining the body's set point for fat is closely linked with the amount of -------------
in the bloodstream
A) Hypothalamic factor-1 B) Ventromedial peptide
C) Neuropeptide Y ( NPY) D) Leptin

12. The personality theorist who preferred the label dialectic humanist
A) Erik Erikson B) Raymond Cattell
C) Erich Fromm D) Karen Horney

13. The term Lake Wobegon effect refers to
A) Consequence of intentional faking
B) Social desirability
C) Consequence of tests not being re-normed often enough
D) Aptitude scores decreasing with increasing grade level, when achievement
scores are held constant

14. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
Fundamental attribution error
I. Involves the tendency to underestimate the influence of other person’s internal
characteristics on behaviour and overestimate the external/situational factors
II. Older adults show a stronger bias towards attributing the actions of another to
internal causes than do younger people
III. Younger people fall a prey to fundamental attribution error more than older
ones
IV. Motive attribution asymmetry is one of the reasons for conflict between groups
Codes :
A) I, II, and III are correct B) II and IV are correct
C) I, II, III, and IV are correct D) I, III, and IV are correct

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15. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
Sigmund Freud
I. Explained human behavior in terms of sexual motivation
II. Kept verbatim record of what he and the patient said during the treatment hour
III. Followed the method of internal consistency for testing hypothesis
IV. Based his theory on the verbalizations and expressive behavior of patients
undergoing psychological treatment
Codes :
A) I, II and IV are correct B) II and III are correct
C) I, II, III and IV are correct D) I, III and IV are correct

16. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
For ‘Sleeper effect’ to manifest
I. The message itself should be persuasive
II. The discounting cue should initially suppress attitude change
III. The memory of cue and effect of the message decays at the same rate
IV. There is a differential decay of discounting cue and the message.
Codes :
A) I, II and III are correct B) II and III are correct
C) I, II, III and IV are correct D) I, II and IV are correct

17. Match List I with List II and choose your answer from the codes given below

List I List II
a. Dissociative state theory of hypnosis 1. Eric Kandell
b. Emerging adulthood 2. Calvin Hall
c. Dream theory 3. Ernest Hilgard
d. Transfer of memory 4. Jeffrey Arnett
5. Stanley Hall
Code:
A) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1 B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5 D) a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3

18. Arrange the following statistics in the ascending order according to the scales of
measurement
A) Mode-Median- Standard Deviation- Coefficient of variation
B) Median-Mode- Coefficient of variation-Standard Deviation
C) Mode-Median-Coefficient of variation-Standard Deviation
D) Median-Mode-Standard Deviation-Coefficient of variation

19. Eustress can be considered as based on ------ of motivation.
A) Maslow’s theory B) The arousal theory
C) The biological theory D) The need affiliation theory

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20. The three “ C’s” characteristic of hardy personality
A) Courage-challenge-control
B) Concern-courage-control
C) Concern-commitment-control
D) Commitment-control-challenge

21. Match List I with List II and choose your answer from the codes given below
List I List II
a. Robert Trivers 1. Full Primal Sketch
b. Gibson 2. Featural analysis
c. Hubel& Wiesel 3. Parental investment
d. David Marr 4. Feature detectors
5. Affordances
Code:
A) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1 B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-5 D) a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3

22. According to the cognitive development theory of Piaget, intrapropositional reasoning
is characteristic of
A) Sensorimotor period B) Pre-operational period
C) Concrete operational period D) Formal operational period

23. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
Spreading Activation Model of Semantic Memory
I. Assumes a hierarchical organizational structure
II. Accounts well the phenomenon called semantic priming
III. Has some characteristics of the Teachable Language Comprehender ( TLC) and
the feature-set model
IV. All relationships among concepts are equivalent in strength
Codes :
A) I, II and III are correct B) II and III are correct
C) I, II, III and IV are correct D) I, III and IV are correct

24. Julian Rotter’s social learning theory is based on a basic principle of motivation
derived from
A) Roger’s view of real self and ideal self
B) Cattell’s 16 PF
C) Thorndike’s law of effect
D) Eysenck’s Personality Theory

25. Which among the following personality inventories use two-point codes for assessing
personality?
A) MBTI B) MMPI C) EPI D) 16PF

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26. All the following are group exercise tests to assess candidates’ leadership qualities and
ability to get on with and influence colleagues in the work place, EXCEPT
A) The icebreaker B) Simulation of an event
C) In-Tray D) The discussion group

27. The split-half reliability of a test is 0.6. Its corresponding Spearman-Brown reliability is
A) 0.67 B) 0.75 C) 0.82 D) 0.89

28. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
Criterion referenced tests
I. Compare examinees’ performance to a standard
II. Items vary widely in difficulty level
III. Item contents cover narrow domain of skills with real world relevance
IV. Scores are usually expressed as standard score or percentile
Codes :
A) I, II and III are correct B) I and III are correct
C) II and IV are correct D) I, III and IV are correct

29. All the following are Thematic Apperception Tests for specific populations, EXCEPT
A) Blacky pictures
B) TEMAS
C) Michigan Picture Test Revised
D) L-TAT

30. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
The 16 PF
I. Is intended for high school seniors and adults
II. Can be interpreted on occupational variables corresponding to Holland’s
RIASEC themes
III. NEO PI-R and 16PF measure different aspects of personality
IV. Provide parallel results as NEO-PI R, with the exception of agreeableness
dimension
Codes :
A) I, II and IV are correct B) I and III are correct
C) II and IV are correct D) I, III and IV are correct

31. The statistic most useful if we want to know how many standard deviations from the
mean a single score in a data set falls
A) a t-score B) Z score
C) Deviation coefficient D) Variance Determination

32. All the following are human process techniques in Organizational Development
interventions, EXCEPT
A) Sensitivity training B) Survey feedback
C) Quality Circles D) Process consultation

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33. A postreinforcement pause is produced under which schedules of reinforcement?
A) VI, VR B) FI, FR C) FI, VR D) VI, FR

34. The kind of qualitative research in which the inquirer ‘brackets off’ all assumptions
they might hold in the hope of finding something new and worthwhile at the end
A) Hermeneutics B) Action Research
C) Phenomenology D) Conversation analysis

35. Match List I with List II and choose your answer from the codes given below
List I List II
a. Analytical therapy 1. Subception
b. Person centred therapy 2. Body movement and dance
c. Gestalt therapy 3. Miracle question
d. Existential therapy 4. Contact boundary disturbance
5. Rippling
Code:
A) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1 B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-5 D) a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3

36. The pioneers of grounded theory research
A) Edmund Hussrel B) Glaser and Strauss
C) Epston and White D) Jerome Bruner

37. Assertion (A): Tasks can be performed more efficiently under serial processing
condition than under parallel processing condition.
Reason (R): The psychological refractory period affects efficiency of parallel
processing.
Code
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

38. Which of the following is NOT a single subject experimental design?
A) A-B design B) A-B-A-B design
C) A-B-A-C-A design D) Case study

39. Assertion (A): Estimation of reliability using parallel forms of a test is a direct
application of Classical Test Theory.
Reason (R): Classical Test Theory considers that the total score on a test is
composed of true scores and error scores.
Code
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

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40. If in attempting to compare two treatment groups, your analysis rejects the null
hypothesis, it means that
A) There is no difference between the two groups
B) There is a difference between the two groups
C) Any difference between the two groups that do exist are not valid
D) Research hypothesis is rejected

41. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
The Mahayana tradition of Buddhism
I. The Mahayana tradition emphasizes enlightenment
II. The Bodhisatva path includes abandoning the world, but not the beings in it
III. The Bodhisatva is basically an unworldly ascetic
IV. The Bodhisatva path focusses on self discipline and work on oneself
Codes :
A) I, II and III are correct B) I and II are correct
C) II and III are correct D) I, III and IV are correct

42. The differential diagnosis of obsessive compulsive personality disorder includes all the
following conditions, EXCEPT
A) Depression B) Phobic states
C) Schizophrenia D) Impulse disorders

43. Which of the following signs or symptoms would best discriminate a person with an
organic brain syndrome from a person with schizophrenia?
A) Confusion B) Tangential thinking
C) Auditory hallucinations D) Visual hallucinations

44. Arrange in ascending series the seven centres of consciousness ( chakras) as explained
in Kundalini yoga and select your answer from the codes given below
A) Muladhara-svadisthana-manipura-anahata-visuddha-ajna-sahasrara
B) Muladhara-svadhistana-manipura-visuddha-anahata-ajna-sahasrara
C) Muladhara-manipura-svadhistana-anahata-ajna-visuddha-sahasrara
D) Muladhara-svadhistana-manipura-ajna-anahata-visuddha-sahasrara

45. Assertion (A): Events that occur subsequent to a specific event may affect the memory
of the previous event.
Reason (R): Recall of an event is better when the environmental conditions under which
the event occurred and the conditions under which recall occur are similar.
Code
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

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46. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
Quasi experimental designs
I. Random assignment of subjects to treatment conditions often is not possible
II. Self selection of subjects into study groups poses a threat to internal reliability
III. Group equivalence can be maintained through random selection
IV. Pretest-posttest control group design is a quasi experimental design
Codes :
A) I, II and III are correct B) I and II are correct
C) II and III are correct D) I, III and IV are correct

47. Interval variable data can be analyzed with all of the following techniques, EXCEPT
A) Linear regression B) t Test
C) Chi-square D) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)

48. An item characteristic curve (ICC), with ability plotted on the horizontal axis and
probability of correct response on the Y axis, indicates a steep positive slope. This
indicates that
A) The probability of test takers of low ability responding correctly is high and
low for test takers of high ability
B) The test takers of moderate ability have the highest probability of answering
the item correctly
C) The discriminative ability of the item is good
D) The item discriminates at only one point on the continuum of ability

49. Assertion (A): Item analysis data obtained with speed test often yield misleading results.
Reason (R): The position of an item in the speed test affect its index of difficulty and
discrimination.
Code
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

50. Match List I with List II and choose your answer from the codes given below
List I List II
a. The principal psychological task of first 1. Rapprochement crisis
year of life 2. Intimate differentiated attachment
b. A period marked by shadowing and 3. Practicing phase
moving away 4. Object permanence
c. The child explores the environment and 5. Individuation
returns to the mother for emotional
reinforcement
d. The child realizes that he/she is an entity
distinct from the mother
Code:
A) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1 B) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-5
C) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-5 D) a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3

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51. Pulse rate is measured in 10 patients before and after the administration of a new anti
anxiety drug. The mean pulse rate before the drug is given is 84, and after the drug
is given is 72. The appropriate statistical test to be used here is
A) Chi-square B) Unpaired t-test
C) Analysis of variance D) Paired t-test

52. An X- linked pattern of inheritance is associated with which of the following disorder?
A) Schizophrenia B) Bipolar disorder
C) Major depressive disorder D) Alcohol abuse

53. The “schema of apperception” is a concept in the theory put forward by
A) Henry Murray B) Alfred Adler
C) Carl Jung D) Harry Stack Sullivan

54. Find out the answer from the codes given below:
In which of the following hypothesis is a true experiment indicated?
I. Young offenders have poor impulse control than non-offending youth
II. Children who view a film promoting helping behaviour show more altruistic
behaviour than children who view a neutral film
III. Pegions on an intermittent schedule of reinforcement emit pecking behaviour
that is more resistant to extinction than pegions on a continuous schedule
IV. Women rate pornography as less interesting than men do.
Codes :

A) I, II and III B) I and II C) II and III D) I, III and IV

55. Which of the following statements are true of factor analysis?
I. In factor analysis (FA), the communality is represented in the diagonal
II. In factor analysis, the diagonals have 1’s as the total variance
III. In factor analysis, the total variance of the variables is focused upon
IV. Factor analysis represents a family of procedures defined by the way in which
factors are extracted

Codes :
A) I, II and III are correct B) I and IV are correct
C) II and III are correct D) I, III and IV are correct

56. Which theorist used a psychohistorical analysis while assessing personality?
A) Gordon Allport B) Erik Erikson
C) Raymond Cattell D) Henry Murray

57. The minimum stimulus intensity that an organism can detect 50% of the time is
A) Differential threshold B) Absolute threshold
C) Just Noticeable difference D) Weber’s law

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58. The group most susceptible to Muller-Lyer illusion
A) Children than adults
B) Men than women
C) People living in a western culture
D) Individuals living in poverty

59. A good example of automaticity in perception and failure of selective perception is.
A) Simultaneous sharing of Attention
B) Stroop Effect
C) Reduncy
D) Unconscious inference

60. The Attentuated Model of Filter theory was developed by
A) Anne Triesman B) Donald Broad bent
C) Michael Posner D) Cherry C

61. Identify the one that is not a monocular cue.
A) Accommodation B) Interposition Elevation
C) Shadowing D) Convergence

62. Remani is a graduate housewife. She came to the psychologist for help because of her
inability to venture out of her house alone. She had an intense and disabling fear of
being in public places or situations in which escape might be difficult or help might be
unavailable should any incapacitating symptoms appear. Remani is suffering from.
A) Claustrophobia B) Agoraphobia
C) Social Phobia D) Panic disorder

63. When we see a friend approaching from a distance we recognize him because his
features, his nose, his eyes, his hair and so on are sensed by our eyes and because we
have knowledge that he usually can be seen at this time, at this place. We are also able
to recognize him if he has made changes in his original style of dressing. This is
because we see as much with the brain and its rich supply of knowledge about the
world as with the eye which provides us with raw sensory input. This is the basis of

A) Direct Perception theory B) Constructive perception theory
C) Prototype theory D) Linear perspective

64. The desire for love, self esteem, Justice goodness and self – Actualization in Maslow’s
hierarchy of needs are based on growth and are the -----needs.
A) Basic needs B) Physiological needs
C) Meta Needs D) Psychological needs

65. In ------- pattern recognition occurs where a match is made between sensory stimuli
and a corresponding internal mental form.
A) Template matching B) Feature Analysis
C) Bottom – up processing D) Top down processing

66. Mnemonic Techniques are methods for
A) Effective Encoding B) Automatic cued Recall
C) Cued Recall D) Improving Memory

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67. Assertion (A) : Self efficacy expectancies refer to people’s conceptualization of
their abilities to carry out actions required to master and control
different situations.
Reason (R) : Those who believe that they can master a task are willing to attempt
it and will persist in the face of initial failures. They will do this
independent of their actual skill at the task.
Codes
A) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true R is false.
D) A is false R is true.

68. A condition in which sensations usually experienced in a single modality are
experienced in two modalities is
A) Isomorphism B) Mental rotation
C) Synesthesia D) None of the above

69. When you watch a small stationary point of light in a totally dark room after a while
you tend to see the light as slowly moving about, even though it remains still. This is
called
A) Auto kinetic effect B) Relative motion
C) Stereoscopic motion D) Induced motion

70. The ACT associationistic Model Developed by Anderson has three types of memories.
A) Working, declarative, productive.
B) Temporal string, spatial image, Abstract proposition.
C) Declarative, procedural, semantic
D) Autobiographical, constructive, working

71. Match list I and list II and choose the answer from the codes given below.
a. Clustering Model 1. Knowledge is represented in the organization of
neuron reworks.
b. Network Model 2. Concepts are represented in memory as a set of
semantic features.
c. Semantic Feature 3. Knowledge exists in memory as independent
Comparison Model units connected in a network
d. Neuro Cognitive Model 4. Concepts tend to be organized in clusters.

Codes

A) a- 2, b-1, c-4, d-3 B) a-4, b-3,c-2, d-1
C) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 D) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

72. When trying to remember something the feeling that one is about to recall, it is called.
A) Primary effect
B) Eidetic Imaginary
C) Tip of the tongue Phenomenon
D) Recency effect

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73. Identify the odd one from the following
A) Propositional or declarative knowledge
B) Iconic Memory
C) Semantic Knowledge
D) Episodic Knowledge

74. Match List I with List II and choose the answer from the codes given below.
List I List II
a Accommodation 1. Monocular cue for depth motion perception
b Motion Parallax 2. Linear perspective
c. Peripheral streaming 3. Monocular depth cues
d. Miller lyer illusion 4. Perception of motion
Codes

A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 B) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 D) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

75. -------are our internal representation of the four aspects of a problem viz initial state,
goal state, operators and intermediate problem states.
A) Heuristics B) Algorithms
C) Mental set D) Problem space

76. Picture Arrangement, Picture Completion, Block design, Object Assembly, Digit
symbol are the subscales of the performance scale of
A) WAIS
B) Stanford – Binet Test
C) Bhatia’s Performance test of Intelligence
D) WISC (R)

77. A device that measures various changes in bodily responses such as that rate,
breathing rate, blood pressure and GSR and is commonly used for lie detection is.
A) EEG B) EGG
C) Polygraph D) None of the above

78. A limited time period during development when specific learning must occur if it is to
occur at all.
A) Relative refractory period B) Critical Period
C) Latency Period D) None of the above

79. The best known personality psychologist who described personality in terms of traits
and divided traits into two types common traits and personal trait is
A) Carl Rogers B) Abraham Maslow
C) Gordon Allport D) Alfred Adler.

80. An acquired motive that is not associated with the satisfaction of any basic biological
need but acts as a motive in its own right is
A) Primary motive
B) Functionally Autonomous motive
C) Secondary motive
D) Psychological motives.

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81. An approach in which a person’s unique ways of seeing and thinking about the world
is considered to be an important determinant of abnormal behavior is
A) Cognitive therapy B) Behaviour Therapy
C) Client centered therapy D) Cognitive Behavioural therapy

82. In psychoanalysis, as therapy progresses patients begin to form irrational expectations
of the analysts and transfer love and other emotional attachment from another person
in his or her past to the therapist. This is called.
A) Transference B) Withdrawal
C) Counter transference D) None of the above.

83. A preconceived notion of how a group or individual will behave.
A) Stereotype B) Prejudice
C) Bias D) None of the above

84. Value theory, information exchange theory, diffusion of responsibility theory and
social identification theory are all theories proposed to explain
A) De individuation B) Determinants of Aggression
C) Prosocial behavior D) Group polarization effects

85. Match list I with List II and choose the answer from the codes given below
List I List II
a James – Lange theory 1. The physiological arousal get things going but the type
of emotion experienced depends on one’s cognitive
interpretation of the arousal.
b. The Cannon Bard theory 2. An emotion provoking stimulus first causes physiological
arousal which is experienced as emotion.
c. Schechter Juke box theory 3. Explains the sequence involved in the emotional
experience when a strong emotions is experienced an
opponent process or a kind of opposite emotion comes
into effect.
d. Opponent process theory 4. The experience of emotion as one in which physical
cues to emotion occurs simultaneously withthe
cognitive ones.
Codes
A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 D) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

86. ------ refers to people’s conceptualization of their abilities to carry actions required to
master and control different situations and is coined by ------
A). Locus of control, Rotter B) Personal construct, Kelley
C) Self efficacy, Bandura D) Self Actualisation, Maslow

87. Meta components, performance components and knowledge acquisition skills are three sets
of subcomponents of----- proposed by ------.
A) Primary abilities, Thurstone
B) Seven intelligence, Gardner
C) Componential intelligence, Sternberg
D) General Intelligence, Guilford

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88. The term Intelligence Quotient was introduced by
A) William stern B) Alfred Binet
C) Francis Galton D) Theo’pile Simon.

89. Match List I with List II and choose the answer from the codes given below.
List I List II
a) Automatic recall 1. A form of operant conditioning in which timely
performance of a specified response prevents the
occurrence of a otherwise inevitable aversive stimuli.
b) Spontaneous recovery 2. A fast and involuntary cued recall that is product
of learning.
c) Learned Helplessness 3. A return of a conditional response after extinction
and without further training trials.
d) Avoidance learning 4. An idea that an organism may learn to be helpless
as a result of the repeated demonstration that its
response have no effect on its surroundings.
Codes
A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 B) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 D) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

90. A behavioural approach generally used with children and adolescents for overcoming
fears and train people in select social skills is
A) Coping Modelling B) Mastery modelling
C) Assertive Training D) Token Economies

91. How people come to know and understand their own relative abilities, strengths and
weakness by comparing themselves with others is explained by
A) Social learning theory B) Social facilitation theory
C) Social comparison theory D) None of the above.

92. Fear of enclosed space is
A) Agoraphobia B) Claustrophia
C) Social phobia D) None of the above

93. Identify the correct sequence of the levels of measurement from the lowest to the
highest in the given below arrangement –
A) Nominal scale, Interval scale, Ordinal scale, Ratio scale
B) Interval scale, Nominal scale, Ordinal scale, Ratio scale
C) Nominal scale, Ordinal scale, Ratio scale, Interval scale.
D) Nominal scale, Ordinal Scale, Interval scale, Ratio scale.

94. A non-parametric statistic for comparing two populations based on independent
random – samples from each is-----
A) Two tailed test B) One tailed test
C) Mann – Whitney U test D) Friedman test

95. A design consisting of a longitudinal study of several groups each from a different
generation is ------
A) Between group design B) Cohort design
C) Factorial design D) Matched group design

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96. A research design in which selected values of two or more independent variables are
manipulated in all possible combinations, So that their independent as well as
interactive effects upon the dependent variable may be studies is.
A) Randomized group design B) Factorial design
C) Matched group design D) Within groups design

97. The Homogeneity of the test is indicated by
A) Test – Retest reliability B) Internal consistency Reliability
C) Scorer Reliability D) Parallel form Reliability

98. An alternative work schedule arrangement which allows employees in the
organization greater autonomy by permitting them to choose their daily starting and
ending times within a given period called bandwidth is------
A) Flextime B) Compressed Weak
C) Job sharing D) Telecommuniting

99. A dimension ranging from intrinsic motivation to a motivation, along which a variety
of gradation of extrinsic motivation may be distinguished is the
A) Signature strengths B) Self determination continuum
C) Self direction D) Met motivational state

100. A hypothesis that makes numerical expressions of null hypotheses and research
hypothesis is the
A) Working hypothesis B) Descriptive hypothesis
C) Statistical hypothesis D) Casual hypothesis

101. Constancy of condition, Balancing, Counter balancing, Randomization are all
techniques of
A) Controlling demand characteristics
B) Selection of variables
C) Controlling extraneous variables
D) None of the above.

102. Assertion (A): Knowledge acquisition components, performance components, and
meta components are the three sets of information processing components
that constitute analytic intelligence in Sternberg’s Triarchic theory of
intelligence.
Reason (R) : Knowledge acquisition components include selective encoding, selective
combination and selective comparison of components.
Codes
A) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false but R is true.

103. A derivative modelled after the Thematic Apperception Test is the -----developed by ------
A) The children’s Apperception test, Bellak.
B) Word Association Test, Galton
C) Sentence completion Test, Ebbinghaus
D) None of the above.

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104. One of the best known and most popular intelligence test which can be used in group or
individually, available in three different types of forms and can be applied across cultures is.
A) Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test
B) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
C) Raven’s progressive matrices
D) Stanford Binet scales

105. Match List I with List II using the codes given below
List I List II
a. Content validity 1. Correlation of test scores and criterion scores

b. Criterion related validity 2. Obtained by establishing relationship or
discrimination
c. Predictive validity 3. Concerned with whether test measures the
intended context area
d. Concurrent validity 4. Obtained by correlating test scores with scores
obtained or criterion available in present future.
Codes
A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 B) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
C) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2 D) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

106 ----- proposed by ------ states that knowledge exists in memory as independent units
connected in a network
A) The conceptual propositional hypothesis, Anderson and Bower
B) Functional equivalency hypothesis, Shephard and Kosslyn
C) Network model, Collins and Quillian
D) Dual coding hypothesis, Paivio

107. Find the correct answer from the codes given below:-
According to Cannon Bard theory-

1. When an emotionally arousing stimulus is perceived the thalamus sends out
impulses to the sympathetic nervous system which produces physiological reaction.
2. The hypothesis is that the bodily changes and emotional feelings occurs
simultaneously
3. To experience emotion both a physiological response and a congnitive
interpretation of that response are required.
4. Emotion laden stimulus produces physiological changes and the subjective
experience of emotion separately and simultaneously
Codes

A) I & IV are only correct B) I, II & IV are only correct
C) I & II are only correct D) II & IV are only correct

108. A personality measures in which individuals are given a set of cards containing
adjectives or phrases to sort into groups based on the degree to which they describe
themselves or a target person
A) Q sort technique B) Rating
C) Self Report D) Self Rating

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109. A therapeutic technique where a patient is progressively exposed to actual situations
that involve anxiety while practicing relaxation techniques until each situation loses
it’s threat is
A) Systematic desensitization B) In vivo desensitization
C) Flooding D) Implosion

110. Learning indirectly a social response by observing the actions of others and the
consequences of that action is:
A) Operant conditioning B) Observational Learning
C) Classical conditioning D) Vicarious conditioning

111. Which of the symptoms listed below is not required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A) Delusions prominent Hallucinations
B) Catatonic Behaviour
C) Crossly inappropriate affect
D) An organic disturbance

112. Assertion (A): A syllogism has three steps a major premise, minor premise and a
conclusion
Reason (R) : A conclusion reached by means of syllogistic reasoning is considered
valid or true if the premise, are accurate and form is correct.
Codes
A) A is true R is false
B) A is false R is true
C) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
D) A and R are true but R does not explain A

113. Procedure that guarantee a solution to a given kind of problem is
A) Algorithms B) Heuristics C) Syllogism D) Deductions

114. The therapeutic technique usually employed with school misbehavior is:
A) Flooding B) Aversive counter conditioning
C) Token economy D) Desensitization

115. Assertion (A) : Allport distinguished three levels of personal traits according to the
degree to which they govern personality: cardinal, central and secondary
Reason (R) : Central traits influence much of our behaviour. They are generally the
traits that can be thought of as basically describing an individual eg
reliable, trustworthy etc.
Codes
A) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) A is true R is false
C) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
D) A is false R is true

116. A scientific study where investigator tries to trace an effect that has already been
produced and where no independent variables are manipulated is the,
A) Exploratory field studies B) Ex Post facts research
C) Field experiment D) Hypothesis testing studies

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117. Match List I (types of tests) and List II (Criterion used for classification) and indicate
you answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a. Objective tests 1.Purpose or objective
b. Power tests 2. Scoring
c. Teacher made test 3. Time limit in producing response
d. Personality test 4. Standardization
Code
A) a-2, b-3, c-4 , d-1 B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
C) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

118. A mechanism of placing one own unacceptable thoughts into others as if the thoughts
belonged to them and not to oneself is:
A) Denial B) Projection
C) Sublimation D) Identification

119. Which of the following is not a derivative of Thematic Apperception test.
A) The Children’s Apperception Test
B) Rozenweig picture Frustration Test
C) Human Modification of the CAT
D) Object Relation Technique

120. Match List I with List II and indicate your answer using the codes given below.
List I List II
a Carl Rogers 1. Cardinal traits
b. Gordon Allport 2. Source traits
c. Raymond Cattel 3. Personality types
d. Hans Eysenck 4 Unconditional positive regard
Codes

A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 B) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 D) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3

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Document Details

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ExamGovt Jobs Exams
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages18
Updated22 Jul 2026