PU M.Phil & Ph.D Entrance Exam 2020 Question Paper Faculty of Arts

Ancient Indian History & Archeology (AIHCA)
1. Who is associated with the excavation of Mehergarh?
(A) J.F. Jarriage
(B) G.F. Jab
(C) F.J. Jab
(D) None of the above

2. The tributary of Oxus is
(A) Shadi
(B) Kokcha
(C) Kakli
(D) Dasht

3. Padu Rajar Dhibi is situated in
(A) West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Bihar

4. Bhuvasuni site is located in
(A) Tamilnadu
(B) Orissa
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala

5. The process of building and cutting in river valley is called
(A) Aggradation
(B) Conglomerate
(C) Evaluation
(D) None of the above

6. Terra in cognita means
(A) No habitation
(B) Unexplored area
(C) No coins
(D) None of the above

7. Dholavira is a
(A) 100 ha site
(B) 78 ha site
(C) 140 ha site
(D) 154 ha site

8. Arumolivarman crowned himself as
(A) Kulottunga
(B) Parantaka
(C) Rajendra
(D) Rajaraja I

9. Which text refers to the victory of Shungas over the Andhras
(A) Sattasai
(B) Malavikagnimitram
(C) Lokavibhaga
(D) None of the above

10. The largest seal found from Mohenjodarois
(A) 6.88 cm square
(B) 6.15 cm square
(C) 6.13 cm square
(D) 6.35 cm square

11. Bharsar hoard of Gupta coins was found from
(A) Banaras
(B) Hugli
(C) Biha
(D) Rajkot

12. Karpuramanjari is composed by
(A) Somadeva Suri
(B) Somdeva Bhat
(C) Rajashe Khara
(D) Vakpati

13. The book Introduction to the Study of Indian History was authored by
(A) Romila Thapar
(B) R.C. Majumdar
(C) D.D. Kosambi
(D) R. L. Mitra

14. The Capital of Asmaka janapada was
(A) Mathura
(B) Potana
(C) Pava
(D) Kampilya

15. The theory of Mandala was provided by
(A) Kautilya
(B) Manu
(C) Yajanavalka
(D) None of the above

16. Anjira in Kalat plateau was excavated by
(A) Cardi Sena
(B) Engle Cardi
(C) Beatrice De Cardi
(D) De Angel

17. Devakosthas are
(A) Wide mouthed vase
(B) Goblin
(C) Niches on the walls of shrines
(D) Abode of God

18. Brigadier Ross excavated
(A) Mudidgak
(B) Rana Ghundai
(C) Dera
(D) Nal

19. Kunika was the other name of
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Ajatsatru
(C) Dhananda
(D) Prasenjeet

20. Sandhara caves have
(A) Apse
(B) Nave
(C) Pradakshinapatha
(D) Parasol

21. Yen- Kao-Chen is identified with
(A) Vima Kadphises
(B) Kujula Kadphises
(C) Kandhar
(D) Kashmir

22. Silver portrait coinage was initiated by
(A) Bhumaka
(B) Chastan
(C) Nahapana
(D) Ayudaka

23. Aparanta is identified with
(A) Aravalis
(B) Northern Sindh
(C) North Konkan
(D) North Kathiawar

24. Who was the first Satavahana king to have borne a metronymic?
(A) Vasisthiputra Pulumavi
(B) Gautamiputra Satkarni
(C) Vasishthiputra atkarni
(D) Sivasri

25. Identify Tiastanes as
(A) Kanishka
(B) Chastan
(C) Chhimuka
(D) None of the above

26. The conceptual framework in which the research is carried out is
(A) Research Design
(B) Research Hypothesis
(C) Research Paradigm
(D) Synopsis of Research.

27. Research is
(A) To raise questions
(B) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(C) Finding solutions
(D) To prepare a draft

28. l.c.means
(A) Use abbreviations
(B) Lower case
(C) Change sentence
(D) None of the above

29. Ellipsis means
(A) Adding a word to the quoted passage
(B) When you are to rewrite a sentence
(C) When you are to omit a word from a quoted passage
(D) Lack of Coherence

30. Idem means
(A) Same author
(B) Same text
(C) Same author and same text
(D) None of the above

31. Ordinal data is a type of data
(A) Having no number
(B) Having numbers
(C) Having interviews
(D) None of the above

32. SPSS is
(A) Statistical package for Society
(B) Statistical package for Social Science
(C) Statistical package for Society
(D) Social Package for Social Scientist.

33. Qualitative Research is
(A) Deductive
(B) Inductive
(C) Conclusive
(D) None of the above

34. Loc.cit.is
(A) Followed by page nos.
(B) Not followed by page nos.
(C) Followed by page nos and vol. nos
(D) None of the above

35. Generally, note taking is of
(A) 2 types
(B) 6 types
(C) 3 types
(D) 4 types

36. Two factors are important to the shaping of a thesis statement
(A) Purpose and Audience
(B) Audience and Cost
(C) Purpose and cost
(D) None of the above

37. et al. is used
(A) For more than one author
(B) For more than two authors
(C) For more than three authors
(D) None of the above

38. The unpublished dissertation is cited
(A) In italics
(B) In capital letters
(C) In quotation marks
(D) None of the above

39. Quantitative methodology is grounded on
(A) Positivist paradigm
(B) Interpretivist
(C) Dialogue
(D) None of the above

40. The author of The Critical Method in Historical Research Writing is
(A) Altick Richard
(B) Daniel Roberts
(C) Hocket Homer C.
(D) None of the above

41. Passim means
(A) Here and there
(B) The following
(C) Select
(D) None of the above

42. The three kind of bibliography is
(A) Select, Classified and Elaborate
(B) Classified, Technical and Critical
(C) Critical, Classified and Select
(D) None of the above

43. The author of The Modern Researcher is
(A) J. Barzun and Henry F. Graff
(B) A.C. Graff and H. Barauni
(C) F. Barxun and P. Harry
(D) T.Saxena and P. Mukherjee

44. cf. means
(A) Compare
(B) Contrast
(C) Select
(D) Sequence

45. et seq means
(A) All
(B) A few
(C) And the following
(D) None of the above

46. Supra means
(A) Below
(B) Above
(C) Parallel
(D) Here

47. While proof reading Stet indicates
(A) Mark
(B) Let it stand as it is
(C) Insert
(D) None of the above

48. One of the fundamental ways of verifying complex fact is called
(A) Collation
(B) Correction
(C) Complexity
(D) None of the above

49. ‘The expansion of the resources of enquiry is indeed alarming as it is gratifying’. Who
is the author of this statement?

(A) J. Barzun and H. Graff
(B) A. Weber
(C) R. G. Collingwood
(D) None of the above

50. ‘The verification is conducted by a researcher on many planes and its technique is not
fixed’.
(A) Absolutely correct
(B) Absolutely incorrect
(C) Partially incorrect
(D) None of the above

x-x-x

(Defence Studies)

1. Who, among the following scholars observed that ‘For a country to choose not to
become a great power is a structural anomaly’:
(A) Geoffrey Hawthorn
(B) Kenneth Waltz
(C) Henry Kissinger
(D) Francis Fukuyama

2. When is International Day of Remembrance and Tribute to the Victims of Terrorism
observed?
(A) August 21
(B) August 22
(C) August 23
(D) August 24

3. Who is the head of the committee set up by the Defence Ministry, to review AFHQ CS
cadre?
(A) Bipin Rawat
(B) D B Shekatkar
(C) R Chandrashekhar
(D) A N Das

4. How many countries are associated with the Nordic–Baltic co-operation framework?
(A) Five
(B) Eight
(C) Twelve
(D) Fifteen

5. Navy Day is celebrated each year to commemorate which operation?
(A) Operation Black Thunder
(B) Operation Blue Star
(C) Operation Tornado
(D) Operation Trident

6. The Inaugural Meeting of Counternarcotics Working Group was held between which
countries?
(A) India – China
(B) India - Russia
(C) India – Bangladesh
(D) India - USA

7. Who, among the following, opined that nuclear weapons provide the glue that has held
the Western alliance together?
(A) Richard Nixon
(B) James Schlesinger
(C) Harry Truman
(D) George P. Schultz

8. Which of the following is the equivalent rank in Army of the Naval rank of Lieutenant?
(A) Colonel
(B) Brigadier
(C) Major
(D) Captain

9. What is being referred to as “SANT” that is in news recently?
(A) Surface to Air Missile
(B) Drone
(C) Unmanned Aircraft
(D) Anti-Tank Missile

10. India officially became the member of MTCR on
(A) 27 June 2016
(B) 27 July 2016
(C) 27 June 2018
(D) 27 July 2018

11. Who said “The influence of air power on the ability of one nation to impress its will on
another in armed contest will be decisive”?
(A) William "Billy" Mitchell
(B) Giulio Douhet
(C) B.H. Liddell Hart
(D) Arjan Singh

12. What was the code name for the Allied invasion of Europe?
(A) Operation Barbarossa
(B) Operation Watchtower
(C) Operation Overlord
(D) Operation Bagration

13. Who is the author of the book “The Generalship of Alexander the Great”?
(A) J.F.C. Fuller
(B) Peter Green
(C) Henry Kissinger
(D) Carl von Clausewitz

14. Which of the following was the first aircraft inducted by the Indian Air Force (then
Royal Indian Air Force) in 1932?
(A) de Havilland Tiger Moth
(B) Westland Wapiti
(C) Supermarine Spitfire
(D) Fairchild Packet
15. Which two countries signed the “Reciprocal Access Agreement” to counter the growing
influence of China in the South China sea and in the Pacific Island Nations?
(A) Japan and Australia
(B) India and Japan
(C) India and USA
(D) Japan and Vietnam

16. Lieutenant Kumudini Tyagi and Sub Lieutenant Riti Singh, who were making news
recently, are related to which of the following Indian forces?
(A) Indian Army
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) Indian Navy
(D) Central Paramilitary Forces

17. ‘Sharang’, which is to be inducted into the Indian Army, is an upgraded version of
which weapon?
(A) Artillery gun
(B) Assault rifle
(C) Combat Shotgun
(D) Sniper rifle

18. The Chemical Weapons convention (CWC) was adopted by the conference on
Disarmament (CD) in Geneva on:
(A) September 3, 1992
(B) September 3, 1993
(C) April 30, 1997
(D) January 3, 1993
19. How many ways to embezzlement of government money have been mentioned by
Kautilya?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 80
20. Which one among the following is the unit raised to protect the naval assets?
(A) Sagar Rakshak Bal
(B) Sagar Suraksha Bal
(C) Sagar Prahari Bal
(D) Sagar Nigrani Bal

21. As per which UNSC committee, JeM chief Masood Azhar has been designated as
global terrorist?
(A) UNSC 1265 Committee
(B) UNSC 1266 Committee
(C) UNSC 1267 Committee
(D) UNSC 1268 Committee

22. The 2019 Balakot airstrike was conducted by India in the early morning hours of:
(A) February 24
(B) February 25
(C) February 26
(D) February 28
23. Which country has become the first NATO nation to appoint a female Chief of Armed
Forces?
(A) Slovenia
(B) Belgium
(C) Italy
(D) Luxembourg

24. The term “The Revolt in the Desert” (Arab Revolt) refers to which one of the following:
(A) The Arab uprising led by the Sherif of Mecca and his son against the Ottoman
Empire during World War I.
(B) Democratic upsurge in the Arab World against their authortarian rulers.
(C) Arab antagonism against European powers for their ‘Anti-Islamic Policies’.
(D) The Arab decision of invasion on newly born Israel.

25. Who among the following leaders was real hero of the Chechen war?
(A) Ramzan Kadyrov
(B) Dzhokar Dudayev
(C) Boris Yeltsin
(D) Yuri Andropov

26. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above

27. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data

28. Information is…..
(A) Raw Data
(B) Processed Data
(C) Input data
(D) Organized data

29. Conference proceedings are considered as..................documents.
(A) Conventional
(B) Primary
(C) Secondary
(D) Tertiary
30. One of the following search engine is exclusively meant for scientific information :
(A) Google
(B) Yahoo
(C) SCIRUS
(D) Altavista

31. Questionnaire is a:
(A) Research method
(B) Measurement technique
(C) Tool for data collection
(D) Data analysis technique

32. “Controlled Group” is a term used in.............. .
(A) Survey research

(B) Historical research
(C) Experimental research
(D) Descriptive research

33. Which of the following is not a “Graphic representation” ?
(A) Pie Chart
(B) Bar Chart
(C) Table
(D) Histogram

34. Which of the following is not covered under Intellectual Property Rights?
(A) Copyrights
(B) Patents
(C) Trade Marks
(D) Thesaurus

35. The transmission of receiver’s reaction back to the sender is known as................. .
(A) Noise
(B) Feedback
(C) Medium
(D) Source

36. Which of the following is not true about e journals ?
(A) They are distributed through digital methods
(B) They also have editors or editorial boards
(C) They are publications of serial nature
(D) They are always free of cost

37. _______ is referred to as "the father of modern research on teaching"?
(A) N. L. Gage
(B) David Berliner
(C) Egon Brunswik
(D) Donald T. Campbell
38. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an
urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating scale
(B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Schedule

39. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(A) Thesis format
(B) Copyright
(C) Patenting policy
(D) Data sharing policies

40. Converting a question into a Researchable problem is called …………
(A) Solution
(B) Examination

(C) Problem formulation
(D) Problem Solving

41. Who said , “Social Science research begins and ends with observation”
(A) P.V. Young
(B) Sidney Webb
(C) Kaplan
(D) Rose

42. Camera, tape recorder, video tape etc are ……………. devices of observation
(A) Casual
(B) Mechanical
(C) Technical
(D) Manual

43. A two way systematic conversation between an investigator and respondent is called
(A) Observation
(B) Schedule
(C) Interview
(D) Simulation

44. Facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as bases for a study is called
(A) Sample
(B) Method
(C) Data
(D) Theory

45. Data related to human beings are called
(A) Territorial data
(B) Organizational data
(C) Peripheral data
(D) Demographic data

46. Methods and issues in Social Research” is written by
(A) Black James and Champions
(B) P.V. Young
(C) Mortan Kaplan
(D) William Emory

47. Research help in explaining the ………… with which something operates.
(A) Velocity
(B) Momentum
(C) Frequency
(D) Gravity

48. A researcher attempts to evaluate the effect of method of feeding on anxiety - proneness
of children. Which method of research would be appropriate for this?
(A) Case study method
(B) Experimental method
(C) Ex-post-facto method

(D) Survey method

49. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to:
(A) Improve data interpretation
(B) Eliminate spurious relations
(C) Confirm triangulation
(D) Introduce new variables

50. In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant
information is termed:
(A) Poor recall
(B) Web crawl
(C) Poor precision rate
(D) Poor web response

x-x-x

(Economics)
1. Demand for foodstuffs is income inelastic. This is explained by:
(A) Giffen’s Paradox (B) Engel’s Law
(C) Gossen’s Law (D) Ricard’s Law

2. Contradiction to Heckscher-Ohlin Theory is:
(A) Smith Paradox (B) Marshall Paradox
(C) Veblen Paradox (D) Leontief Paradox

3. When goods in domestic market are sold at a high price and in the foreign market
at a low price, it is a situation of:
(A) Dumping (B) Duopoly
(C) Perfect competition (D) Oligopoly

4. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to boost:
(A) Drip irrigation (B) Organic farming
(C) Horticulture crops (D) Vegetable production

5. Due to increase in investment by Rs. 200 crores, income rises by Rs. 450 crores.
Multiplier is:
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 2.25 (D) 2.5

6. Concepts of displacement and concentration effects in public expenditure are
attributed to:
(A) A.C. Pigou and J.K. Mehta
(B) Alan T. Peacock and Jack Wiseman
(C) Kenneth Arrow and Paul A. Samuelson
(D) A.R. Prest and IMD Little

7. The change from high birth-rates and death-rates to relatively low birth-rates and
death rates represents:
1. Demographic Transition
2. Economic Development
3. Age Structural Change
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
8. The weights used in Laspeyre’s price index are:
(A) p1 (B) p0
(C) q1 (D) q0

9. Kyoto Protocol 1997 is an international agreement for achieving:
(A) Free trade
(B) Trade stability
(C) A reduction in Greenhouse gas emissions
(D) Asian Trade cooperation

10. The Poverty Gap index is the difference between the:
(A) Mean income of the poor and Poverty line
(B) Median income of the poor and Poverty line
(C) Median income of the poor and Mean income of the poor
(D) Mode of the income of the poor Mean income of the poor

11. If there is perfect income equality in the country, then the Gini coefficient will be:
(A) Infinity (B) Zero
(C) 0.5 (D) 1.0

12. The 2020, Nobel Prize in Economics has been given to Paul R. Milgrom and Robert
B. Wilson for their work on:
(A) Contributions to Contract Theory
(B) Empirical analysis of asset prices
(C) Improvements to auction theory and inventions of new auction formats
(D) Analysis of markets with search frictions

13. Which state government recently launched ‘ Har Ghar Pani, Har Ghar Safai’ Mission,
aimed at providing 100% portable water supply to all rural households:
(A) Haryana (B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat (D) Punjab

14. Which type of tax helps in reducing disparities of income?
(A) Proportionate tax (B) Regressive tax
(C) Progressive tax (D) All of the above

15. Match the following in List-I and List-II:
List-I List –II
A. Mid- day meal scheme 1. 2006
B. Implementation of MNREGA 2. 1995
C. Cash Reserve Ratio 3. Finance Commission
D. Divisible Taxes 4. Reserve Bank of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 3 4 1 2

16. Which of the following is not correct with reference to the service sector of the
Indian economy?
(A) Service sector has the largest share in employment
(B) Service sector has the largest share in GDP
(C) Service sector’s growth has been higher than the agriculture sector
(D) Productivity per worker in service sector is the highest

17. As per the recent Union Budget, the Gig economy workers are to be covered under
which organization?
(A) ESIC (B) EPFO
(C) LIC (D) PFRDA

18. The Tobin Tax, initially suggested by James Tobin was a tax on which among the
following transactions:
(A) Property transactions
(B) Industrial transactions
(C) Spot currency transactions
(D) All of the above

19. The difference between GDP and NDP is:
(A) Government revenue
(B) Consumption of fixed capital
(C) Net capital formation
(D) Net indirect tax
20. Match the following in List-I and List-II:
List- I List –II
A. Contingency Table 1. Stationarity
B. Unit root test 2. Causality
C. Fisher’s F-test 3. Chi-square test
D. Granger Test 4. Test of significance of overall regression

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D

(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4

21. Which of the following statements is true about Say’s Law?
(A) It states that supply creates its own demand
(B) It states that demand creates its own supply
(C) It states that total output will always exceed total spending
(D) It states that consumption spending is the most volatile component of
aggregate expenditures

22. The level of urbanization increased from 27.8% in the 2001 Census to how much in
the 2011 Census?
(A) 36% (B) 37.09%
(C) 31.16% (D) 34.33%

23. Which of the following is true about NITI Aayog:
1. Design Policy and Programme Framework
2. Foster Cooperative Federalism
3. Monitoring Evaluation
4. Think Tank and Knowledge and Innovation Hub

Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(A) 1,2,3
(B) 2,3,4
(C) 1,3,4
(D) All of the above
24. Match the following in List-I and List-II:
List-I List –II
A. Double Kaldor-Hicks Test 1. A. Bergson
B. Compensation Principle 2. K.J. Arrow
C. Social Welfare Function 3. T. Scitovsky
D. Impossibility Theorem 4. Kaldor-Hicks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D

(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 3 2 1

25. The concept of ‘Golden age of full employment equilibrium ‘has been developed
by?
(A) Alvin Hansen (B) Gurley and Shaw
(C) J. Robinson (D) J.K. Galbraith

26. Evidences in research are collected from:
(A) Primary and Secondary sources (B) Pure and Applied sources
(C) Active and Passive sources (D) None of the above

27. Which of the following is a step of research design?
(A) Defining the problem and formulating a hypothesis
(B) Collecting Data
(C) Drawing inferences from the data
(D) All of the above

28. Which of the following can be defined as the most desirable characteristic/s of
research?
(A) Objectivity (B) Reliability
(C) Validity (D) All of the above

29. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called:
(A) Constant (B) A variable
(C) A Cause-Effect relationship (D) A Descriptive relationship
30. Which of the following correlation values is the strongest?
(A) + 0.10 (B) - 0.95
(C) + 0.90 (D) -1.00

31. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research:
(A) Hypothesis method (B) Pattern method
(C) Inductive method (D) Deductive method

32. The purpose of a coding manual is to:
(A) List all categories that have been omitted from the schedule
(B) Test researcher’s knowledge of statistics
(C) Provide researchers with the instructions about how to code the data
(D) Provide the from onto which data can be entered

33. A widely used format developed by Rensis Likert is useful for asking questions
about:

(A) Attitude (B) Personality
(C) Morale (D) None of the above

34. There is no significant difference in the proportion of male and female smokers in
the study population. This is a ___________:
(A) Null Hypothesis
(B) Hypothesis of association
(C) Hypothesis of point-relevance
(D) None of the above hypothesis

35. The objectivity of the research is enhanced:
(A) Through its impartiality
(B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity
(D) All of the above

36. We review the relevant literature to know:
(A) What is already known about the topic
(B) Who are the key contributors to the topic
(C) What concepts and theories have been applied to the topic
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a “graphic presentation”?
(A) Histogram (B) Table
(C) Pie chart (D) Bar chart

38. “Please circle your main mode of transport to the university: 1: Walk; 2: Bicycle;
3: Bus; 4: Train; 5: Car; 6: Other”. This question is____________ :
(A) An open-ended quantitative question
(B) An open-ended qualitative question
(C) A closed categorical question
(D) None of the above

39. The core ingredients of a dissertation are:
(A) Introduction; Data collection; Data analysis; Conclusions and
recommendations
(B) Executive summary; Literature review; Date gathered; Conclusion;
Bibliography
(C) Research plan; Research data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature review; Research methods; Results; Discussion;

Conclusion

40. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling?
(A) Simple random (B) Purposive
(C) Systematic (D) Stratified

41. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or
publication refers to which of the following professional issues?
(A) Duplicate Publication
(B) Partial Publication
(C) Full Publication
(D) None of the above

42. Which of the following is a referencing style used for writing research/thesis?
(A) American Psychological Association (APA)
(B) Modern Language Association (MLA)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
43. Type I error occurs if:
(A) The null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
(B) The null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false
(C) Both the null hypothesis as well as the alternative hypothesis are rejected
(D) None of the above

44. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His
research work is classified as:
(A) Descriptive survey
(B) Case study
(C) Ethnography
(D) Experimental research

45. Sampling frame means:
(A) Identification of target and accessible population
(B) Defining the sample unit
(C) Preparing a complete list of the units of the finite population for drawing
a sample
(D) Fixing the sample size

46. Snowball sampling is the process of selecting a sample using:
(A) Networks (B) Groups

(C) Snowballs (D) Computer Programs

47. Z-test is better used when sample size is:
(A) Less than 30 (B) Equal to 30
(C) More than 30 (D) None of the above

48. Which of the following is an indication of the quality of a research
journal?
(A) i10-index (B) Impact factor
(C) g-index (D) h-index

49. Match the following in List-I and List-II and answer from the codes given below:
List-I List –II
A. Sampling distribution 1. Poisson distribution
B. Discrete distribution 2. Chi-square distribution
C. Measures of Central Tendency 3. Non-probability based sampling
D. Purposive sampling 4. Mode
Codes:
A B C D

(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 3 1 2

50. What is Triangulation?
(A) Allowing theoretical concepts to emerge from the data
(B) Cross-checking the results found by different research strategies
(C) Drawing a triangular diagram to represent the relation between three
concepts
(D) None of the above

x-x-x

Gandhian Studies (GPS)
1. Evaluation research is concerned with ___________
(A) Why are we doing?
(B) What are we doing?
(C) How well are we doing?
(D) None of the above

2. Survey research studies _________
(A) Events
(B) Processes
(C) Populations
(D) Circumstances

3. The word 'Anusandhan' implies ________
(A) Goal Orientation
(B) Following an aim
(C) Attaining an aim
(D) Praying to achieve an aim

4. The data of research is _____
(A) Qualitative only
(B) Quantitative only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

5. Research and Development become the index of development of country. Which of the
following reasons are true with regards to this statement?
(A) Because R&D targets the human development
(B) Because R&D can improve the standard of living of the people in a country
(C) Because R&D reflect the true economic and social conditions prevailing in a
country
(D) All the above

6. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a
universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning
(B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning
(D) Transcendental Reasoning

7. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
(A) Socio-economic Status
(B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude
(D) Professional Attitude
8. The essential qualities of a researcher are
(A) Spirit of free enquiry
(B) Reliance on observation and evidence
(C) Systematization or theorizing of knowledge

(D) All the above
9. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data

10. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above

11. Feedback mechanism is a part of which service?
(A) Reprography
(B) CAS
(C) Translation service
(D) SDI

12. Conference proceedings are considered as..................documents.
(A) Conventional
(B) Primary
(C) Secondary
(D) Tertiary

13. One of the following search engine is exclusively meant for scientific information:
(A) Google
(B) Yahoo
(C) SCIRUS
(D) Altavista

14. Questionnaire is a:
(A) Research method
(B) Measurement technique
(C) Tool for data collection
(D) Data analysis technique

15. A periodical evaluation of an employee is done through...........
(A) Job rotation
(B) Performance appraisal
(C) Refresher course
(D) Work guide

16. “Controlled Group” is a term used in.............. .
(A) Survey research
(B) Historical research
(C) Experimental research
(D) Descriptive research

17. The transmission of receiver’s reaction back to the sender is known as................. .
(A) Noise
(B) Feedback
(C) Medium
(D) Source

18. Protocol means............... .
(A) Interchange of data between two devices
(B) Interchange of data between two computers
(C) Linkage between two computers
(D) Linkage between two devices

19. Which of the following is not true about e journals ?
(A) They are distributed through digital methods
(B) They also have editors or editorial boards
(C) They are publications of serial nature
(D) They are always free of cost

20. What is the meaning of 'Translation Pools' ?
(A) Details about the names of translation experts
(B) Details about the addresses of the translators
(C) Agency of the names of translation experts
(D) None of these.

21. Whether Library is a system?
(A) Yes, it has various sections as sub-systems coordinating each other forming a
system
(B) No, it cannot be a system
(C) It is quite impossible
(D) Library is separate from a system.
22 Research objectives falls into a number of categories that include:
(A) Planning to get answers for what, why & where type of questions
(B) Considering the logic behind the methods we use in the context of the research
(C) Formulative, concept and planning for research methods
(D) Exploratory, descriptive, diagnostic and experimentation research

23. The population census carried out by the Govt. of India can be an example of:
(A) Exploratory Research
(B) Causal Research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) All of the above

24. The following are the features of a good research student except
(A) Should be replicable
(B) Should be systematic and objective
(C) Should be ethical and unbiased
(D) Should be unethical and biased
25. Which of the following statement is Not true about Random Sampling?

(A) Random Sampling is reasonably accurate
(B) Random sampling is free from personal biases
(C) An economical method of sampling
(D) Can be applied for all types of data collections

26. First book written by Gandhi was:
(A) An Autobiography or The Story of My Experiments with Truth
(B) Satyagraha in South Africa
(C) Hind Swaraj
(D) Constructive Programme

27. Identify the leader who las met Gandhiji for about an hour and left him just few minutes
before he was shot dead on January 30, 1948 while on his way to the prayer meeting.
(A) Vallabhbhai Patel
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave

28. After the attainment of political independence in 1947, Gandhiji felt that the Congress,
as a propaganda vehicle and a parliamentary machine, had outlived its usefulness. So
to keep the Congress away from unhealthy competition with political parties and
communal bodies, Gandhiji towards the end of January 1948 sketched a draft
constitution for the Congress to transform itself into ____.
(A) Lok Samiti
(B) Lok Kalyan Sangh
(C) Lok Sevak Sangh
(D) People’s Forum

29. Society based on Justice equality and liberty is also known as:
(A) Positive Peace
(B) Provision of Human Rights
(C) Absence of Communal Violence
(D) Absence of War

30. Bardoli Satyagraha occurred in:
(A) 1922
(B) 1928
(C) 1930
(D) 1936
31. One of the famous associates of Gandhi ji during the Kheda Satyagraha was:
(A) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Subhas Chandra Bose
32. Which of the following peasant struggles is famous with the title ‘DungaliChor’ (Onion
Thief)?
(A) Bardoli

(B) Kheda
(C) Champaran
(D) Vykom

33. Gandhi ji’s first major struggle in the country was staged on the soil of a district in
Bihar in 1917 in connection with indigo plantation. Who was largely instrumental in
persuading Gandhi ji to visit this particular place and lead the struggle over there?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) Raj Kumar Shukla
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Motilal Nehru

34. Gandhi ji gave the call for individual Satyagraha after the Second World War was over.
Who was the first individual Satyagrahi chosen by Gandhi ji?
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Vinoba Bhave

35. According to Gandhi ji, the Khilafat issue offered a golden opportunity for the
promotion of the Hindu-Muslim unity in the country. He urged Hindus to lend full
support to the Indian Muslims on this issue. The Khilafat issue related to the policy of
the British Government towards:
(A) Turkey
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran

36. Gandhi ji was very much fascinated by a book, which he translated into Gujarati and
entitled as ‘Sarvodaya’. Name of that book was:
(A) Unto This Last
(B) Kingdom of God is within You
(C) Hind Swaraj
(D) An Autobiography or The Story of My Experiments With Truth

37. What is the true meaning of Socialism according to Gandhi ji?
(A) Sarvodaya
(B) Basic Education
(C) Economic Equality
(D) Prohibition

38. Gandhi called the people of lower castes by this name:
(A) Harijans
(B) Untouchables
(C) Dalits
(D) Kshatriyas
39. Gandhi ji accorded very high priority to communal harmony in his programme of
actions. At which place did he undertake his last fast for it on January 13, 1948?
(A) Nasik
(B) Delhi

(C) Calcutta
(D) Bombay

40. When did Gandhi ji get his head shaved, discard his clothes and settle for a loin cloth?
(A) 1921
(B) 1925
(C) 1930
(D) 1931

41. Non-Cooperation Movement (1920) was withdrawn by Gandhi in the year:
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1925

42. Where was Gandhi kept as a prisoner during the Salt Satyagraha?
(A) Ahmedabad Jail
(B) Yervada Jail
(C) Aga Khan Palace
(D) Sabarmati Jail

43. Gandhi got married at the age of:
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 18
(D) 21

44. From whom Gandhi learnt the first lesson of Non-violence
(A) Mother
(B) Rambha
(C) Wife
(D) Father

45. In which Law College at England, Gandhi got admission?
(A) Law College
(B) Inner Temple
(C) Outer Temple
(D) Institute of Legal Studies

46. Who amongst the following fought against apartheid and racism in South Africa?
(A) Nelson Mandela
(B) Martin Luther King (Jr.)
(C) Brack Obama
(D) General Smuts
47. Who said, “Gandhi ji possesses amazing inner strength which transforms ordinary
people around him into brave martyrs”?

(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(B) C. F. Andrews
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Subhash Chander Bose

48. Who referred to 30th January also as ‘Self-introspection Day’?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) C. R. Das
(C) Vinoba Bhave
(D) M. N. Roy

49. “War is the continuation of State Policy by other means” was said by:
(A) Carlvon Clause Vitz
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Bill Clinton
(D) Hitler

50. In which year ‘Rio Earth Summit’ was held?
(A) 1993
(B) 2001
(C) 1992
(D) 2000

x-x-x

(History)

1. Who was the 22nd Jain Tirthankara?
(A) Neminatha (B) Rishabhanatha (C) Parsavanatha (D) Dharmanatha

2. Which one of the following dramas is attributed to Vishakhadatta?
(A) Malati-Madhava (B) Mrichakattika
(C) Mudrarakshasa (D) Karpuramanjari

3. Which one of the following officials was the collector of tax in the later Vedic Period?
(A) Akshavapa (B) Bhagaduga (C) Bhogakara (D) Palagala

4. The Aihole inscription describes the rule of which one of the following.
(A) Pulakesin-II (B) Gautmiputra Satkarni
(C) Samudragupta (D) Ishanavarman

5. Which one of the following marks the beginning of the Vikrami Samvat?
(A) 57 BC (B) 78 BC (C) 57 AD (D) 78 AD

6. Who sent Abdur Razzaq as an ambassador to the Vijayanagara kingdom?
(A) Sultan Alla-ud-din of Iraq (B) Sultan Bahaman of Egypt
(C) Sultan Behzad of Turkey (D) Sultan Shah Rukh of Khurasan

7. Which one of the following kingdoms was annexed to the Mughal Empire during the
reign of Shah Jahan?
(A) Golkonda (B) Bijapur (C) Khandesh (D) Ahmednagar

8. Who among the following is the founder of the Pushtimarga sect of bhakti?
(A) Vallabhacharya (B) Sankracharya
(C) Ramadasa (D) Tulsidasa

9. Which of the following was the birth place of Sheikh Nizam-ud-din Auliya?
(A) Ajmer (B) Delhi (C) Badaun (D) Pakpattan

10. Ziauddin Barani was the author of which of the following books:
(A) Fatwah-i-Jahandari (B) Fatuhat-i-Alamgiri
(C) Fatuhat-i-Firozshahi (D) Futuh-us-Salatin

11. Name the newspaper launched by Madan Mohan Malviya in 1909.
(A) The Patriot (B) The Leader (C) Hindustan Times (D) Free India

12. Who was the President of the Indian National Congress in 1906?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhle
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Rashbihari Ghosh

13. With reference to the Indian Freedom Movement what was the popular name by which
the Indian Statutory Commission was known by.
(A) Hunter Commission (B) Cripps Mission
(C) Simon Commission (D) Sadler Commission

14. Who was the founder of the Mahanubhava sect?
(A) Ekanath (B) Chakradhara (C) Gnanesvara (D) Tukaram

15. Who among the following appointed the National Planning Committee in 1938?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose (B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

16. Who was the composer of the “Asa Di Vaar”?
(A) Guru Nanak (B) Guru Angad
(C) Guru Ramdass (D) Guru Arjan

17. Which had been the distinguished industry in Punjab during the 16th century?
(A) Agriculture (B) Textile Industry
(C) Animal Husbandry (D) None of these

18. Who composed the Ratnawali?
(A) Bhai Veer Singh (B) Meharban
(C) Bhai Mani Singh (D) Bhai Bala

19. Who did introduce the coins of the Sikhs?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh (B) Banda Bahadur
(C) Ahmed Shah Abdali (D) None of these

20. How many compositions have been included in the Dasam Granth?
(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 10 (D) 12

21. When did Ranjit Singh was appointed as the governor of Lahore?
(A) 1776 (B) 1779 (C) 1781 (D) 1785

22. Who built Bhatinda in Punjab
(A) Maharaja Ala Singh (B) Bhatti Rajput
(C) Razia Sultana (D) Prithviraj Chauhan

23. In which year British East India Company occupied Punjab?
(A) 1846 (B) 1847 (C) 1849 (D) 1850

24. Where was the famous Sun Temple situated in Punjab
(A) Hoshiarpur (B) Peshawar (C) Multan (D) Amritsar

25. Who was the spearhead of Kuka movement
(A) Daya Ram (B) Ram Singh (C) Sohan Singh (D) Lala Hardyal

26. During the reign of which Kushana king, the Fourth Buddhist Council was held?
(A) Kanishka (B) Huvishka (C) Vasudeva (D) Vasishka

27. In the revenue department of Mauryas, who among the following was in-charge of the
collection of all revenues in the empire?
(A) Sannidhatri (B) Pradeshta (C) Yukta (D) Samahatra

28. Who was the leader of Third Tamil Sangam?
(A) Nakkirar (B) Agastaya (C) Tiruttakkadevar (D) Chintamani

29. Which of the following scholars wrote Prajna Parimata Sutra?
(A) Ashvagosha (B) Vasumitra (C) Nagarjuna (D) Mathara

30. Which of the following were the tributary chiefs of the Guptas?
(A) Vakatakas (B) Maukharies (C) Maitrakas (D) Pushyabhutis

31. Mohammad Ghori was first defeated by which of the following rulers?
(A) Prithviraja Chauhan (B) Jayachandra
(C) Vidyadhara Chandella (D) Bhima II

32. Jayasi’s ‘Padmavat’ is written in which of the following dialects and scripts
respectively?
(A) Awadhi and Persian (B) Hindi and Urdu
(C) Farsi and Urdu (D) Awadhi and Arabi

33. Which of the following were assigned to zamindar or rajas in their local dominions
under the Jagirdari system?
(A) Tankha Jagirs (B) Watan Jagirs
(C) Mashrut Jagirs (D) Altamgha Jagirs

34. Which of the following introduced the use of gunpowder in the war against the
Vijayanagar kings in Belgaum?
(A) Alauddin Ahmad Shah I (B) Alauddin Humayun Shah
(C) Mahmud Gawan (D) Ahmad Shah III

35. Which of the following abolished the Pandari tax?
(A) Shah Jahan (B) Akbar (C) Jahangir (D) Aurangzeb

36. Which of the following kingdoms granted the “Golden Farman” to British to trade
freely in the state?
(A) Hyderabad (B) Bijapur (C) Golkunda (D) Ahmednagar

37. Who among the following was popularly known as the ‘Frontier Gandhi’?
(A) Hasrat Mohani (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (D) Iqbal Khan

38. During the time of William Bentinck, the Bengal Presidency was divided into how
many divisions?
(A) 13 (B) 16 (C) 20 (D) 22
39. What was the name of the Hyderabad Campaign operation conducted by the Indian
Army in 1948?
(A) Operation Shakti (B) Operation Unity

(C) Operation Maitri (D) Operation Polo

40. Even after the integration of the princely states which among the following places of
India were still colonies of France?
(A) Pondicherry (B) Karaikal (C) Chandernagore (D) All of these

41. Who advocated representation of past "as it actually happened"
(A) Leopold von Ranke (B) E. H. Carr
(C) Romila Thapar (D) Henri Poincare

42. The Annales school is associated with a group of 20th century historians from
(A) England (B) USA (C) France (D) Germany

43. Historical materialism is founded on the ideas and philosophies of which theorists?
(A) Barry Buzan and Ole Waever
(B) Kenneth Waltz and Hans Morgenthau
(C) Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels
(D) Adam Smith and Karl Marx

44. Who is widely regarded as the first historian of India
(A) Kalhana (B) Ibn Khaldun (C) R. C. Majumdar (D) Nagarjuna

45. Ziauddin Barani, a historian of Delhi Sultanate, wrote during the reign of
(A) Shams ud-Din Iltutmish and Gyas ud din Balban
(B) Mohammad bin Tuglaq and Firoz Shah
(C) Sikandar Lodhi and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Mubarak Shah and Ibrahim Shah

46. Which of these may not form the Primary sources of history
(A) Archives and manuscript material.
(B) Photographs, audio recordings, video recordings, films
(C) Journals, letters and diaries
(D) Books, articles in journals

47. Why is chronology important
(A) Sequencing of order of time
(B) Sequencing of events
(C) Sequencing of polity
(D) All of the above

48. Which of the following is not a subaltern historian
(A) Ranajit Guha
(B) Gyanendra Pande
(C) David Hardiman
(D) Romila Thapar
49. Who is associated with Utilitarianism
(A) Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill
(B) Karl Marx and GWF Hegel
(C) GM Trevelyan and John Adams
(D) Vincent Smith and J Burgess

50. Jhoota Sachh of Yashpal is about the
(A) Events surrounding Partition of India
(B) Events around Quit India Movement
(C) About corruption in politics in India
(D) All of the above

x-x-x

(Philosophy)
1. A null hypothesis is
(A) When there is no difference between the variables
(B) The same as research hypothesis
(C) Subjective in nature
(D) When there is difference between the variables

2. Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research

3. The depth of any research can be judged by:
(A) Title of the research.
(B) Objectives of the research.
(C) Total expenditure on the research.
(D) Duration of the research

4. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere
is referred to as:
(A) Online communication
(B) Integrated media
(C) Digital combine
(D) Convergence

5. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs
simultaneously in various forms is described as:
(A) Man-machine speak
(B) Binary chat
(C) Digital talk
(D) Interactivity

6. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research?
(A) To bring out holistic approach to research
(B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain
(C) To over simplify the problem of research
(D) To create a new trend in research methodology

7. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?
Statement: Most teachers are hard working.
Conclusions:
(I) Some teachers are hard working
(II) Some teachers are not hard working
(A) Only (I) is implied
(B) Only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

8. In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant
information is termed:
(A) Poor recall
(B) Web crawl
(C) Poor precision rate
(D) Poor web response

9. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:
(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Women and Child Development
(D) All the above

10. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
(C) Variability is the source of problem
(D) All the above

11. Which of the following is not the Method of Research?
(A) Observation
(B) Historical
(C) Survey
(D) Philosophical

12. The first step of research is:
(A) Selecting a problem
(B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem
(D) Identifying a problem

13. Research problem is selected from the stand point of:
(A) Researcher's interest
(B) Financial support
(C) Social relevance
(D) Availability of relevant literature

14. The statement, 'To be non-violent is good' is a:
(A) Moral judgement
(B) Factual judgement
(C) Religious judgement
(D) Value judgement

15. Value Judgements are:
(A) Factual Judgements
(B) Ordinary Judgements
(C) Normative Judgements
(D) Expression of public opinion

16. Deductive reasoning proceeds from:

(A) general to particular
(B) particular to general
(C) one general conclusion to another general conclusion
(D) one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion

17. Logical reasoning is based on:
(A) Truth of involved propositions
(B) Valid relation among the involved propositions
(C) Employment of symbolic language
(D) Employment of ordinary language.

18. Research Proposal is also called
(A) Abstract
(B) Summary
(C) Synopsis
(D) Methodology

19. The premises of a valid deductive argument:
(A) Provide some evidence for its conclusion
(B) Provide no evidence for its conclusion
(C) Are irrelevant for its conclusion
(D) Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion

20. Syllogistic reasoning is:
(A) Deductive
(B) Inductive
(C) Experimental
(D) Hypothetical

21. The term Anusandhan refers to :
(A) Follower of an aim
(B) Preying of an aim
(C) Attain the aim
(D) Become goal oriented

22. The synopsis of the research is called:
(A) Blue print
(B) Mapping of the problem
(C) Base of the problem
(D) All of the above

23. The need of Philosophical research method is desired in
(A) Philosophy related research
(B) All the researches involved in exploring the aims of social sciences
(C) Explorations of Atma and Paramatma
(D) Determining the role and extension of philosophy

24. Logic of induction is very close to
(A) The logic of sampling
(B) The logic of the controlled variables

(C) The logic of observation
(D) None of the above

25. In research thesis the importance of introduction is
(A) It imbibes the importance of problem in it
(B) It determines the direction of survey related to problem
(C) It explains the objectives of the problem.
(D) All of the above

26. The Philosopher who is associated with the Law of Sufficient Reason:
(A) Locke
(B) Berkeley
(C) Leibnitz
(D) Plato

27. Theory of ‘Rarefaction’ and ‘Condensation’ is given by
(A) Epicures
(B) Anaximenes
(C) Thales
(D) Heraclitus

28. The movements of stars and planets according to Vedic literature is guided by
(A) The Will of God
(B) The Will of the Devatas
(C) Rta
(D) Yajña

29. Select the right order of five Skandhas according to Buddhism:ethic
(A) Roop, Saskār, Vijān, Samanya and Vednā
(B) Roop, Samjā, Vednā, SaskārandVijān
(C) Roop, Vednā, Samj ā, SaskārandVijān
(D) Roop, Vijān, Samj ā, SaskārandVednā

30. The root meaning of Bhagvadgita’s doctrine of Niskāma karma is
(A) Doing action considering oneself as an instrument of God.
(B) Doing action without attachment.
(C) Doing action for others
(D) Doing action for attaining liberation

31. The figure of a syllogism is determined by the position of
(A) Major term
(B) Middle term
(C) Minor term
(D) Copula

32. Spinoza explains the body-mind relation through the following doctrine:
(A) Interactionism
(B) Pre-established harmony
(C) Psycho-physical parallelism
(D) Epiphenomenalism

33. pvq is false when
(A) p is true and q is true
(B) p is true and q is false
(C) p is false and q is true
(D) p is false and q is false
34. Select the pair of contrary propositions
(A) I, O propositions
(B) A, E propositions
(C) A,O propositions
(D) E, I propositions

35. Which of the following are admitted by Tagore to be the essential aspects of human
self?
(A) Physical and mental
(B) Vital and mental
(C) Physical and spiritual
(D) Mental and spiritual

36. According to K.C. Bhattacharyya philosophy is:
(A) The knowledge of the Absolute.
(B) Self-evident elaboration of the self.
(C) Self-evident elaboration of the self-evident.
(D) The study of the self-evident.

37. Who believed that spiritual and appetites are two sections of soul?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Parmenides
(D) Anaximander

38. Who acclaimed that man is the highest creature in the world?
(A) St. Anselm
(B) St. Augustine
(C) St. Thomas Acquinas
(D) All the above

39. Descartes explains body-mind relation through
(A) Psycho-Physical Parallelism
(B) Interactionism
(C) Pre-established harmony
(D) Epiphenomenalism

40. In Universal Negative Propositions, Which of the following term/terms is /are
distributed
(A) Subject term
(B) Predicate term
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

41. What do you mean by the predicate of the conclusion
(A) Negative term
(B) Minor term
(C) Middle term
(D) Exclusive term

42. In Categorical syllogism , the middle term is the term that occurs in
(A) Major premise
(B) Minor premise
(C) Both (A) and(B)
(D) Conclusion

43. Which theory covers the interest of maximum number of people in the society?
(A) Perfectionism
(B) Utilitarianism
(C) Rationalism
(D) Intuitionism

44. The method of phenomenological inquiry is
(A) Dialectical
(B) Intuitive
(C) Transcendental
(D) Technique of Bracketing

45. According to whom Hermeneutics is Ontology?
(A) Heidegger
(B) Schleiermacher
(C) Ranke
(D) Dilthey

46. The spirit of Gandhian concept of ‘Svadeshi’ implies
(A) Only using that which is produced by oneself
(B) Absolutely denying foreign goods
(C) Restricting to use services of immediate surroundings
(D) Not going beyond native production

47. Categorical Imperative is regarded as what ?
(A) Conditional command
(B) Unconditional command
(C) Influence command
(D) Relevant command

48. In Eudaemonia, ‘eu’ is defined as __________ whereas the ‘daemon’ is regarded as
Spirit
(A) Well
(B) Ego
(C) Will
(D) Body

49. Point out from the following reason why Dr. B.R. Ambedkar opposes the caste system
prevalent in India?
(A) As it creates discrimination, social injustice and inequality within the Indian Nation
(B) As it is foreign innovation
(C) As it is vedic heritage
(D) As it is suggested by smritis

50. The theory of evolution accepted by Sri Aurobindo is known as
(A) Emergent Evolution
(B) Mechanical Evolution
(C) Integral Evolution
(D) None of the above

x-x-x

Political Science (Pol. Sci)
1. Who authored the book “Methods in Social research”?
(A) Wilkinson (B) C R Kothari
(C) Kerlinger (D) Goode and Halt

2. “Research is an organised system of enquiry”, Defined by
(A) Marshall (B) P.V. Young
(C) Emory (D) Kerlinger

3. A systemic step-by-step Procedure following logical process of reasoning is called
(A) Experiment (B) Observation
(C) Deduction (D) Scientific Method

4. Ethical Neutrality is a feature of
(A) Deduction (B) Scientific Method
(C) Observation (D) Experience

5. An essential Criterion of Scientific Study is
(A) Belief (B) Value
(C) Objectivity (D) Subjectivity

6. Theory is “a systematically related propositions specifying casual relationship among
variables”, defined by
(A) Black james and Champion (B) P.V young
(C) Emory (D) Gibbes

7. Social Science deals with
(A) Objects (B) Human Beings
(C) Living things (D) Non-living things

8. Social Science research -------the problem
(A) Explains (B) Diagnoses
(C) Recommends (D) Formulates

9. Basing conclusions without any bias and value judgment is----
(A) Objectivity (B) Specificity
(C) Values (D) Facts
10. Research related to abstract ideas or concepts is
(A) Empirical research (B) Conceptual research
(C) Quantitative Research (D) Qualitative Research

11. ……... is a way to systematically solve the research problem
(A) Technique (B) Operations
(C) Research Methodology (D) Research Process

12. Which of the following features are considered as critical in qualitative research?
(A) Collecting data with the help of standardized research tools
(B) Design sampling with probability sample techniques
(C) Collecting data with bottom-up empirical evidence

(D) Gathering data with top-down schematic evidence

13. How is random sampling helpful?
(A) Reasonably accurate
(B) An economical method of data collection
(C) Free from personal biases
(D) All of the above

14. In order to pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

15. Which one among the following statement is true in the context of the testing of
hypotheses?
(A) It is only the alternative hypotheses that can be tested.
(B) It is only the null hypotheses that can be tested.
(C) Both the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(D) Both the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

16. Should education be given by government free of charge?
Argument I: Yes, it will help in universalisation of education in the country.
Argument II: No, there will be budgetary deficit creating some new problems.
Pick the best:
(A) Argument I is strong
(B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Both the arguments are strong
(D) Neither I nor II is strong

17 While writing research report a researcher,
(A) Must not use the numerical figures in numbers in the beginning of sentences
(B) Must arrange it in logical, topical and chronological order
(C) Must compare his results with those of the other studies
(D) All of the above

18. If you are doing experiment on a large group of samples which method of controlling
will you adopt?
(A) Matching (B) Randomization
(C) Elimination and matching both (D) Elimination

19. All the following cause non-sampling errors except
(A) Faulty tools of measurement (B) Inadequate sample
(C) Non-response (D) Defect in data collection

20. The historical research is different from experimental research in the process of
(A) Replication (B) The formulation of the hypothesis
(C) The hypothesis testing (D) All of the above

21. A researcher divides the populations into PG, graduates and 10 + 2 students and using
the random digit table he/she selects some of them from each. This is technically called
(A) Stratified sampling (B) Stratified random sampling
(C) Representative sampling (D) None of these

22. Field study is related to
(A) Real life situations (B) Experimental situations
(C) Laboratory situations (D) None of the above

23. An example of scientific knowledge is
(A) Authority of the Prophet or great men
(B) Social traditions and customs
(C) Religious scriptures
(D) Laboratory and field experiments

24. A researcher encounters various problems while undertaking research. He should
(A) Give up research in such situations
(B) Do research on that problem and find a solution
(C) Avoid the problematic situations
(D) Take the help of the head of the institution

25. Validity of a research can be improved by
(A) Eliminating extraneous factors
(B) Taking the true representative sample of the population
(C) Both of the above measures
(D) None of the above

26. The noted book “Men in Dark Times” was written by
(A) Alexander Brook Jackson (B) Hannah Arendt
(C) Michael Oakeshott (D) Lorraine S. Pangle

27. Who said “Sovereignty is the supreme will of the state”.
(A) Jean Bodin (B) Niccolò Machiavelli
(C) Immanuel Kant (D) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel

28. According to Locke the first agreement under Social Contract is
(A) Between the government and people
(B) Between the individuals to form the government
(C) Among the individuals to form civil society
(D) Among the individuals to form political society

29. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Election Commission?
(A) Articles 324-329 (B) Articles 245 to 255
(C) Articles 256 to 263 (D) Articles 345 to 355

30. Main objective of Judicial Review is
(A) To review the lawfulness of a decision or action by a public body
(B) Evaluate the way a government decision has been made
(C) Exert the power of courts over the legislatures
(D) Checking the possible misuse of power by the executive

31. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Rights?
(A) Society gives recognition to only those rights which are for the welfare of the
society as a whole and which promote some common end.
(B) The state does not create rights though they exist within the state.
(C) Without Society, there can be no rights
(D) Rights are not universal i.e. they are privileges

32. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Equality without liberty is unreal, similarly liberty without equality is
meaningless
(B) Liberty and equality are antagonistic to each other
(C) Without equality, liberty is a mockery
(D) In fact, liberty and equality are complimentary

33. During the impeachment of US President, the Senate is presided by
(A) Vice President
(B) Elected Chairman of the Senate
(C) The Chief Justice of the United States
(D) Senior most member elected for the purpose

34. The procedure of amendment in the Constitution of India is laid down in
(A) Part XII, Article 267 (B) Part XX, Article 368
(C) Seventh Schedule, Article 246 (D) Part XIV, Article 314

35. In a Parliamentary type of Government, the Council of Ministers can remain in office
till it enjoys the support of the:
(A) Majority members of both houses of Parliament
(B) Majority of the members of Lok Sabha
(C) Majority of the members of Rajya Sabha
(D) Majority Party in Lok Sabha

36. According to Karl Marx, the state is nothing but a tool in the hands of:
(A) Farming class in the society (B) Dominant class in the society
(C) Working class in the society (D) Dominated class in the society

37. How a permanent member of UNSecurity Council can be removed?
(A) Two-third majority of the UN General assembly
(B) Majority vote of UN Security Council
(C) Majority of Other permanent members
(D) None of the above

38. Foreign Policy is:
(A) A government’s strategy to deal with other countries
(B) A sum total of country’s policy guidelines
(C) A policy to deal with only neighbours
(D) An antidote of domestic policy

39. The System in which political power is fragmented among multitudes of groups and
individuals, is called:
(A) Elitist democracy (B) Oligarchy
(C) Liberal democracy (D) Pluralist democracy

40. Government of India Act 1935 provided weightage to various communities, classes and
interests in:
(A) The Federal Assembly only
(B) The Council of States only
(C) Both the Houses of Federal Legislature
(D) None of the Above two houses

41. When were the Morley-Minto Reforms introduced?
(A) 1908 (B) 1909 (C) 1910 (D) 1911

42. Great advocate and practitioner of democratic Socialism in India was:
(A) M.N. Roy (B) Sri Aurobindo
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Gopal Krishan Gokhale

43. Right to Property in Indian Constitution is:
(A) A Fundamental Right (B) A Legal Right
(C) A Civil Right (D) All the above

44. Who acted as the Provisional President of the Constituent assembly?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Hirday Nath Kunzru
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

45. Colonialism can be described to be the:
(A) Military propaganda by a powerful nation
(B) Political propaganda by a militarily powerful nation
(C) Policy of a nation seeking to extend its authority over other territories
(D) Policy of a powerful nation to expand trade and business

46. Multiculturalism in political theory is associated with:
(A) ‘Identity politics’ and the ‘politics of recognition’
(B) Taking cultural diversity seriously in modern political societies
(C) Presence of, many distinct cultural or ethnic groups within a society
(D) All the above

47. Directive principals of State Policy,
(A) Ensure that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by
securing
a social order
(B) Cannot be implemented through judicial intervention
(C) Both the above
(D) Contradict Fundamental Rights

48. Which one of the following is not a federal feature of our constitution?
(A) Fundamental Rights (B) Single Citizenship
(C) Written Constitution (D) Double set of governments

49. Choose the correctly matched:
(A) Organic notion of the state—Plato
(B) Legal notion of the state—Austin
(C) Ethnic notion of the state—Green
(D) Contractual notion of state—Hegel

50. Gerrymandering is
(A) Structural-functional approach to a federal system
(B) Is an unfair practice to take political advantage by manipulating district
boundaries
(C) Is the basis of first-past-the-post electoral system
(D) Is practice of long speeches in the US Senate

x-x-x

Police Administration

1. How many members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President of India?
(A) 14 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 15

2. In which of the following cases, Right to Private Defence does not extend to cause of
death
(A) An assault with the intention of committing rape
(B) An assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting
(C) An assault with the apprehension of grievous hurt
(D) An assault with the intention of intimidation

3. In Sampling, According to Law of Statistical Regularity
(A) Sample should be selected at random
(B) Sample should be selected systematically
(C) Sample should be selected sequentially
(D) Sample should be selected at convience

4. When was Justice Amitava Roy (retd.) Committee constituted?
(A) 2017 (B) 2016 (C) 2018 (D) 2019

5. Who among the following viewed “Crime as an inevitable aspect of society”?
(A) Enrico Ferri (B) Emile Durkheim
(B) Sutherland (D) Paul Tappan

6. Which among the following is the feature of Exploratory Research?
(A) Based on previous research
(B) Unstructured
(C) Inflexible
(D) Generally Based on quantitative data

7. Which of the following is the not essential element of research design?
(A) Purpose Statement (B) Research Methodology
(B) Measurement of Analysis (D) Finding and Conclusion

8. ‘Right to free legal aid’ refers to which Article of the Constitution?
(A) Article 21 (B) Article 14 (C) Article 23 (D) Article 28

9. Who constituted the Prison Discipline Committee in 1836?
(A) Lord William Bentick (B) Lord Macaulay
(C) Lord Dalhousie (D) Lord Auckland

10. Which of the following is the characteristic of Research Design?
(A) Neutrality (B) Reliabilty (C) Generalization (D) All of these

11. Which of the following is not the research method of Qualitative Research?
(A) Case- Study (B) One- on- one Interview
(C) Closed ended Questionnaire (D) Focus group

12. Where the first Jail Training School in 1940 was established in India?
(A) Bhopal (B) Lucknow (D) Calcutta (D) Madras

13. In which case Magisterial Inquest under Section 176 CrPC is not conducted?
(A) Death or disappearance in police/ other custody
(B) Alleged rape in police/other custody
(C) Suicide under suspicious circumstances
(D) Police firing under suspicious circumstances

14. In which type of sampling, it is difficult to contact and get information from the target
respondents?
(A) Quota Sampling (B) Snowball Sampling
(C) Convenience Sampling (D) Judgemental Sampling

15. Which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for Arrest without Warrant?
(A) Section 40 of CrPC (B) Section 41 of CrPC
(C) Section 42 of CrPC (D) Section 43 of CrPC

16. Which is of the following is not the feature of Quantitative Research?
(A) Structured Tools (B) Close-ended questions
(C) Tabular data (D) Flexible Sample Size

17. In which of the following research, the independent variables are manipulated to
monitor the change it has on the dependent variable?
(A) Exploratory Research (B) Descriptive Research
(C) Experimental Research (D) Correlational Research

18. Mean of data refers to
(A) Midpoint of a set of numerical values
(B) Number of times a value is found.
(C) Numerical average of a set of values
(D) Most common value among a set of values

19. Which is the feature of a good questionnaire?
(A) Uniformity (B) Sequential
(C) Structured (D) All of these

20. Section 53 of CrPC provides for:
(A) Search of Arrested Person (B) Seizure of Offensive Weapons
(C) Medical Examination of Accused (D) Arrest Report to District

Magistrate

21. A hypothesis that predicts the nature of the effect of the independent variable on the
dependent variable is called:
(A) Directional Hypothesis (B) Non-Directional Hypothesis
(C) Null Hypothesis (D) Alternative Hypothesis

22. Which of the following is not required in Experimental Research

(A) Observation (B) Manipulation
(C) Reference Collection (D) Controlling

23. Which of the following statements about Hypotheses are correct ?
(i) Hypotheses are conceptually clear
(ii) It is related to a body of theory
(iii) It is empirically testable
(iv) It is narrow in scope
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

24. Which one of the following statements framing a questionnaire is inappropriate ?
(A) Question should always be short
(B) Each question should address a single topic
(C) Use technical words in questions
(D) Frame such question that respondents can answer knowledgeably

25. Which of the following Article provides for imposition of Constitution Emergency?
(A) Article 352 (B) Article 366 (C) Article 360 (D) Article 356

26. When Central Bureau of Investigation was established?
(A) 1st April, 1963 (B) 1st June, 1963
st
(B) 1 May, 1963 (D) 1st March, 1963

27. The concept of Dying Declaration has been based on the principle of
(A) Principle of Actus Rea (B) Principle of Mens Rea
(C) Principle of Exchange (D) Principle of Leterm Mortem

28. Which condition is not related to Attendance of Witness under Section 160(1) CrPC?
(A) The order must be written
(B) Such orders shall be issued only to such persons who seems to be knowing the facts
and circumstances of the case
(C) Such person should be a close relative of the either the accused or victim
(D) Such person should be within the limits of the police station of the investigation
police officer or is within the limits of the adjoining police station.

29. Who among the following defined the five ridges details types of Fingerprints?
(A) Dr. Henry Faulds (B) Sir Francis Galton
(C) Sir Edward Richard Henry (D) Sir William Hersely

30. In which of the following, the formulation of Hypothesis is not required?
(A) Exploratory Research (B) Experimental Research
(C) Historic Research (D) Descriptive Research

31. In case of heterogeneous population, which method is most suitable sampling method?
(A) Cluster Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Convenient Sampling (D) Systematic Sampling

32. Which types of fingerprints are collected through Powdering?

(A) Visible Finger prints (B) Plastic Fingerprints
(C) Latent Fingerprints (D) Fabric Fingerprints
(3)
33. Who is called the father of Criminology?
(A) Cesare Lombroso (B) Cesare Beccaria
(D) Enrico Ferri (D) Raffaelo Garofalo

34. When part of The Indian Evidence Act deals with Relevancy of Facts?
(A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV

35. What is quantum of punishment for Gang Rape under Criminal Law (Amendment)
Act, 2013?
(A) Minimum 15 years imprisonment (B) Minimum 10 years imprisonment
(C) Minimum 25 years of imprisonment (D) Minimum 20 years of
imprisonment

36. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 introduced:
(A) Death Penalty for rape
(B) Death penalty for the rape of anyone below 12 years of age.
(C) 15 years imprisonment for rape of a child below 16 years of age
(D) 15 years imprisonment for rape of female above 18 years of age

37. The term of office of members of Rajya Sabha is:
(A) 5 years (B) 4 years (C) 2 years (D) 6 years

38. When an investigator studies effects of occurrence, it is called as?
(A) Descriptive Research (B) Exploratory Research
(B) Ex-post facto Research (D) Historic Research

39. Which of the following is a correct sequence of research process?
(A) Research Design, Data collection, Data Tabulation, Data Analysis
(B) Data collection, Research Design, Data Analysis, Data Tabulation
(C) Data Tabulation , Data collection, Research Design , Data Analysis
(D) Research Design, Data Tabulation, Data collection, Data Analysis,

40. Which of the following is the correct sequence of research analysis?
(A) Editing, Coding, Classification, Tabulation
(B) Coding, Editing, Tabulation, Classification
(C) Tabulation, Coding, Editing, Classification
(D) Classification, Coding, Editing, Tabulation

41. Indo-Tibetan Border Police was set up on:
(A) 24 November, 1965 (B) 20 June, 1960
(C) 24 October, 1962 (D) 23 August, 1961

42. Which Committee recommended for “Sandwich pattern” of training for IPS?
(A) Soli Sorabjee Committee, (2005-06)
(B) Dharmvira Commission, 1977
(C) Gore Committee (1971-73)
(D) Padmanabhaiah Committee on Police Reforms (2000)

43. Who is introduced the Daroga system of police in India?
(A) Lord Curzon (B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Minto (D) Lord Irwin

44. Which of the following is arranged in correct descending order?
(A) Circle, Zone, Range, District (B) Range, District, Zone, Circle
(C) District, Range, Circle, Zone (D) Zone, Range, District, Circle

45. Who states that “Gathering knowledge for knowledge’s sake is termed as ‘pure’ or
‘basic research”?
(A) Goode and Halt (B) Pauline V. Young
(B) D. Slesinger and M. Stephenson (D) William Healey

46. Which of the following statements are correct regarding factors considered for
preparing appropriate research design ?
i. The nature of the research problem to be studied.
ii. The means for obtaining information.
iii. The availability of skills of the researcher.
iv. The availability of time and money for research work.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i, ii and iv (C) ii, iii and iv (D) i, ii, iii and
iv

47. Which one of the following methods is used by the commissions and committees
appointed by government to carry on investigation?
(A) Observation (B) Personal interview
(C) Unstructured interview (D) Focussed interview

48. Which one of the following should not be included in the summary part of the research
report ?
(A) Research problem in brief (B) Research methodology
(C) Description of the study area (D) Major conclusions

49. Which statements are true regarding interview method of data collection?

(i) It is a flexible approach.
(ii) It is a cheap method
(iii) Training and supervising of the interviewers is more complex
(iv) There is likely incidence of emotional involvement in an interview process.

Select, which of the above statements are considered as limitations of this method.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

50. Which of following is not a characteristic of the scientific method?
(A) Reliance on empirical evidences (B) Commitment to objectivity
(C) Value orientation (D) Generality

x-x-x

(Psychology)

1. The split-half method is used as a test of:
(A) Inter-observer consistency
(B) Internal reliability
(C) External validity
(D) Stability
2. On the Normal Probability Curve maximum people fall on the
(A) Central part
(B) Right extreme
(C) Left extreme
(D) Equally distributed

3. SSE can never be
(A) Smaller than SST
(B) Equal to 1
(C) Equal to zero
(D) Larger than SST

4. An observation that the improving the light in the room, increases the output of an
individual would be an example of :
(A) Zero correlation
(B) Negative correlation
(C) Positive correlation
(D) Causal relationship

5. The term 'reverse operationism' means that:
(A) Techniques such as factor analysis have no place in social research
(B) The measurements one devises can sometimes help in developing a theory
(C) The driving instructors will often ask you to excel in reversing .
(D) Theories devised often put obstacles in oue attempts to measure concepts

6. The variable being predicted is called the
(A) Criterion variable
(B) Explanatory variable
(C) Predictor variable
(D) None of the above

7. Under what circumstances would you use a non-parametric test?
(A) When your data does not meet the assumption for a parametric test
(B) In a pilot study
(C) When you think your sample size is too long.
(D) When you do not really understand a parametric test

8. Which of the following is an advantage of laboratory studies?
(A) Ecological validity
(B) No control on extraneous variables.
(C) Lack of participant bias
(D) Control of extraneous variables.

9. Regression analysis was used to study the relationship between return rate (x: % of
birds that return to the lake in a given year) and immigration rate (y: % of new adults
that join the colony per year). The following regression equation was obtained:
ŷ= 31.9 – 0.34x
Based on the above estimated regression equation, if the return rate were to decrease
by 10% the rate of immigration to the colony would:
(A) Increase by 34%
(B) Increase by 3.4%
(C) Decrease by 0.34%
(D) Decrease by 3.4%

10. Which one of the following sampling procedures is least suitable for generalising
experimental results?
(A) Random sampling
(B) Purpose sampling
(C) Incidental sampling
(D) Stratified or quota sampling

11. Meta-analysis is a technique that:
(A) Repeats one study in different scenarios
(B) Differentiates between different studies
(C) Combines results of a large number of studies
(D) Finds out if a hypothesis is valid or not

12. Quantitative researchers are generally preoccupied with generalization, which is a sign
of:
(A) Internal validity
(B) External reliability
(C) Internal reliability
(D) External validity

13. What would be the degree of freedom for a chi-square based on 4 and 5 contingency table?
(A) 9
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 5

14. How is random sampling helpful?
(A) Reasonably accurate
(B) An economical method of data collection
(C) Free from personal biases
(D) All of the above

15. A double-blind experimental design is used to minimize
(A) Hawthorne effect
(B) Reactance
(C) The halo effects
(D) Experimenter bias

16. A study requires that a group of college undergraduates be present for a problem-
solving workshop every other Friday. Eventually, a number of students who want to
attend cricket match drop out of the study. This is an example of
(A) Reactance
(B) Non-random sampling
(C) Cohort effects
(D) Selective attribution

On the basis of following , answer Q17 & Q 18:
A variety of summary statistics were collected for a small sample (10) of bivariate data,
where the dependent variable was y and an independent variable was x.

ΣX = 90 Σ (Y  Y )( X  X ) = 466
ΣY = 170 Σ ( X  X ) 2 = 234
n = 10 Σ ( Y − Ȳ )2 = 1434
SSE = 505.9

17. The least squares estimate of b1 equals
(A) 0.923
(B) 1.991
(C) -1.991
(D) -0.923

18. The point estimate of y when x = 0.55 is
(A) 0.17205
(B) 1.0905
(C) -2.018
(D) -0.17205

19. The most frequent score in a set of scores is known as the
(A) Standard deviation
(B) Mode
(C) Median
(D) Skewness

20. A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design.
(A) Research designs
(B) Research measurements
(C) Dependent variables
(D) Independent variables

21. Tippit table refers to as _________
(A) Table of random digits
(B) The table used in sampling methods
(C) The table used in statistical investigations
(D) All of the above
22. What do you understand by the term "Anusandhan"?

(A) Goal-oriented
(B) Following an aim
(C) Attaining an aim
(D) Praying to achieve an aim

23. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the
explanatory variable (x) is:
(A) The correlation model
(B) The regression model
(C) Used to compute the correlation coefficient
(D) None of these alternatives is correct.

24. Incremental validity refers to …
(A) The additional contribution a new psychological idea makes to existing
knowledge
(B) The additional evidence provided by new research
(C) The way research findings are reinterpreted
(D) The way statements are written in new tests

25. Which one is called non-probability sampling?
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Cluster sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling

26. In which stage of Ginsberg’s Theory of Vocational Choice are adolescent children able
to better focus on, and recognize, work requirements?
(A) Fantasy stage
(B) Tentative choice stage
(C) Realistic choice stage
(D) Crystallisation Stage

27. Dr. Ellis’s ABCDE Model stands for:
(A) A- Activating Event, B – Belief System , C – Consequences, D – Disputing ,E
–
(New) Effect
(B) A- Action, B – Belief System , C – Consequences, D – Disputing ,E – (New)
Effect
(C) A- Activating Event , B – Brain Teaser ,C – Consequences, D – Disputing ,E –
(New) Effect
(D) A- Activating Event , B – Belief System ,C – Care taking, D – Disputing ,E –
(New) Effect

28. Which is the theory of personality that emphasizes the importance of observational
learning, conscious cognitive processes, social experiences, self-efficacy beliefs, and
reciprocal determinism?
(A) Humanistic
(B) Trait
(C) Social –cognitive
(D) Psychoanaytical

29. The ________ emphasizes that when people believe their views on controversial issues
are in the minority, they keep their views to themselves
(A) Social learning theory
(B) Submission sphere effect
(C) Spiral of silence theory
(D) Mutual suppression theory

30. Which of the following statement is the best definition of ‘diathesis’?
(A) The person’s risk of developing a mental disorder
(B) The interaction of personality and stress that produces a mental disorder
(C) The personality disposition that makes people susceptible to a mental disorder
(D) The constitutional factor that determines who will develop a mental disorder

31. Low self-esteem combined with high interpersonal trust produces
(A) Secure attachment style
(B) Preoccupied attachment style
(C) Dismissing attachment style
(D) Fearful-avoidant attachment style.

32. Fluency, Flexibility, Originality and Elaboration are part of
(A) Guilford’s test of creativity
(B) Gardner’s concept of multiple intelligence
(C) Torrance’s test of creativity
(D) Piaget’s scheme of motor development

33. Who was the psychologist who believed that the most fundamental human motive is
striving for superiority?
(A) Karen Horney
(B) Carl Rogers
(C) Alfred Adler
(D) Carl Jung

34. According to Herzberg, which of the following is a maintenance factor?
(A) Salary
(B) Work itself
(C) Responsibility
(D) Recognition

35. A well known view of belief-behaviour imbalance is known as
(A) Optimum Dissonance
(B) Belief Dissonance
(C) Implicit Dissonance
(D) Cognitive Dissonance
36. Natural selection acts directly upon …
(A) The genotype
(B) The phenotype
(C) Individual-level fitness
(D) Group-level fitness

37. Barriers based on attitudinal or organizational bias that prevent qualified females from
advancing to top-level positions are termed as
(A) Mirror glass theory
(B) Looking Glass Effect
(C) Glass floor effect
(D) Glass ceiling effect

38. Garcia’s taste aversion experiment was difficult for behaviourists to explain because it
showed that:
(A) All CS-US pairings are not equal
(B) All S-R pairings are not equal
(C) Animals misbehave
(D) Animals must have mental representations of events

39. Communication begins with _____
(A) Encoding
(B) Idea origination
(C) Decoding
(D) Channel selection

40. According to the traumatic theory of dissociative identity disorder, what is
‘dissociation’?
(A) A splitting of consciousness
(B) A form of internal avoidance
(C) A way of protecting the self against trauma
(D) All of the above

41. Covariation Model was given by
(A) Kelley
(B) Jones and Davis
(C) Asch
(D) Weiner

42. Which of the following characteristics is an aspect of ‘schizotypy’?
(A) Delusions
(B) Hallucinations
(C) Social anxiety
(D) Disorganized thinking

43. Which personality measuring instrument uses four scales and is derived from the work
of Jung?
(A) Big five personality factors
(B) Keirsey's temperament sort
(C) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
(D) Cattell’s 16 PF
44. According to research on the ‘interpersonal circle’, people with narcissistic personality
disorder tend to have an interpersonal style that is:
(A) Warm and assertive

(B) Cold and dominant
(C) Egotistical and aloof
(D) Aggressive and selfish
45. The data for the Sociogram may also be displayed as a table of each person’s choices
which is known as
(A) Sociocircle
(B) Sociogram
(C) Sociomatrix
(D) Sociotable
46. Which of the following diagnoses has psychobiographers applied to Adolf Hitler?
(A) Amphetamine abuse
(B) Borderline personality
(C) Hypochondria
(D) All of the above
47. Ability EI tests are more objective than Trait EI tests because …
(A) They cost money
(B) They are easier to demonstrate one’s own strength
(C) Participants tended rate their own Trait EI as higher than they actually are
(D) They are made up of multiple-choice questions
48. Guilford’s cubical model provides for:
(A) 120 factors of intelligence
(B) 150 factors of intelligence
(C) 125 factors of intelligence
(D) 130 factors of intelligence
49. This type of measurement scale involves the use of numbers to represent equal distances
from a known zero point.
(A) Nominal
(B) Ratio
(C) Ordinal
(D) Interval
50. Organization structure primarily refers to ________
(A) The policy developed by the organisation
(B) The spaces available
(C) Designing coordination and control of various activities
(D) How resources are allocated
x-x-x

Public Administration
1. A proposition which can be put to a test to determine its validity is termed as:
(A) Fact (B) Variable (C) Concept (D) Hypothesis

2. Which one of the following is NOT non-probability sampling?
(A) Quota Sampling (B) Snowball Sampling
(C) Purposive Sampling (D) Stratified Sampling

3. The various steps in Research process are given below. Place them in the ascending
order of the stages.
(A) Data collection (B) Report writing
(C) Data analysis (D) Problem formulation

Select the answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
i) a, c, d and b.
ii) a, d, c and b.
iii) d, a, c and b.
iv) c, a, d and b.

4. The procedure wherein the classified data are put in the form of tables is called
(A) Editing (B) Coding (C) Tabulation (D) None of these

5. A researcher divides his population into certain groups and fixes the size of the sample
from each group. It is called:
(A) Stratified sample (B) Quota sample
(C) Cluster sample (D) All of these

6. The nature of a hypothesis is
(A) Action-oriented (B) Declarative
(C) Conceptual (D) All of these

7. Good hypotheses should be –
(A) Related to a body of theory (B) Empirically testable
(C) Simple (D) Related to available techniques of
research
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. i, ii and iii
2. i, ii and iv
3. i, iii and iv
4. i, ii, iii and iv
8. To test the hypothesis of a causal relationship between variables is
(A) Historical research studies (B) Formulative research studies
(C) Hypothesis- testing research studies (D) None of these

9. Qualitative research is especially important in the
(A) Business (B) Behavioural Sciences
(C) Education (D) None of these

10. Multi-Stage sampling is a further development of the principle of
(A) Sample Random sampling (B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling (D) None of these

11. The process in which the categories of data are transformed into symbols that may be
tabulated and counted is called
(A) Editing (B) Coding (C) Tabulation (D) None of these

12. The analysis that studies the joint variation of two or more variables for determining
the amount of correlation between two or more variables is called as
(A) Regression analysis (B) Correlation analysis
(C) Multi-ANOVA (D) None of these

13. The bibliography should be arranged
(A) In accordance with time (B) Alphabetically
(C) Logically (D) None of these

14. For a finite universe, which sampling technique is generally followed?
(A) Quota Sampling (B) Systematic sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling (D) None of these

15. Validity of research can be improved by
(A) Eliminating extraneous factors
(B) Choosing the true representative sample of the population
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

16. Which of the following is a non-probability sampling?
(A) Quota sampling (B) Convenience sampling
(C) Deliberate Sampling (D) All of the above

17. Which one of the following methods of data collection is independent of people’s
willingness to report?
(A) Interview method (B) Observation method
(C) Questionnaire method (D) Schedule

18. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the Questionnaire as a research tool?
(A) It can cover large geographical areas.
(B) It has greater opportunity to get replies about hidden problems of society.
(C) The researcher can get views of illiterate people also about social problems.
(D) It can get views of shy people also about social problems.

19. Field-work based research is classified as-
(A) Experimental (B) Empirical
(C) Fundamental (D) Theoretical

20. Who said, ‘Interview is a process of social interaction’?
(A) P.V. Young (B) M.N. Basu
(C) Goode and Hatt (D) Kerlinger

21. SPSS (Statistical Package for the Social Sciences) is a –
(A) Statistical analysis software program
(B) Statistical Data collection package
(C) Statistical Data for social sciences
(D) None of the above

22. What is true regarding the collection of data through questionnaire?
(A) It is free from the bias of the interviewer
(B) Respondents have adequate time to give well thought out answers
(C) There is low cost even when is the universe is large
(D) All of the above

23. A study of functional relationships existing between two or more variables is called
(A) Correlation analysis (B) Regression analysis
(C) Canonical analysis (D) None of these

24. The task of drawing inferences and conclusions is performed on the basis of
(A) Canonical analysis (B) Multivariate analysis
(C) Inferential analysis (D) None of these

25. Validity of research can be improved by
(A) Eliminating extraneous factors
(B) Choosing the true representative sample of the population
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

26. In which essay, Woodrow Wilson talked about separation between Politics and
Administration?
(A) Introduction to Public Administration
(B) The Study of Administration
(C) Administrative Behaviour
(D) Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence

27. The scope of Public Administration consists of the study of only three factors namely
men, materials and methods. This view is expressed by
(A) P. McQueen (B) Mooney and Reiley
(C) L. D. White (D) Peter Drucker

28. Consider the following factors:
(A) Nature of work (B) Age of agency
(C) Leadership (D) Location of the organizational units
29. Which of the following principles of organization is determined by above stated
factors?
i) Scalar Chain

ii) Decentralization
iii) Span of control
iv) Power and Authority

Assertion (A): Induction Training focuses on the task of improving work skills of the
civil servants with an experience of ten years.
Reason (R): Objective of the induction training of civil servants is to give them a sense
of belongingness.

Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

30. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Theory Z 1. F. W. Taylor
(b) Economic Man Model 2. Herbert A. Simon
(c) Bounded Rationality 3. Fredrick Herzberg
(d) Two Factor Theory 4. Maslow
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 3

31. A prismatic society is characterized by:
(A) A high degree of homogeneity (B) A high degree of heterogeneity
(C) A high degree of flexibility (D) Low degree of formalism

32. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List I List II
a) Chester Barnard i. The Sciences of the Artificial
b) Herbert Simon ii The Human Side of Enterprise
c) Elton Mayo iii. The Functions of the Executive
d) Douglas iv. The Human Problems of an McGregor
Industrial civilization

Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iii iv i ii
(4)
33. Who gave the concept of ‘Gangplank’?
(A) F. W. Taylor (B) Ferrel Heady
(C) Chris Argyris (D) Henri Fayol

34. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to
promulgate an ordinance during recess of Parliament?
(A) Article 53 (B) Article 54 (C) Article 122 (D) Article 123

35. Which of the following motion is not related when the demand for grants are
considered and passed by the Lok Sabha?
(A) Policy Cut Motion (B) Censure Motion
(C) Token Cut Motion (D) None of these

36. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings (B) State Governments
(C) Government companies (D) All the above

37. Which is not an element of good governance?
(A) Rule of Law (B) Transparency (C) Accountability (D Exclusive

growth

38. Consider the following statements about the advantages of delegated legislation:
1. It saves time of Parliamentary so that the august body can focus more on the
broader policy aspects
2. Delegated legislation allows laws to be made more promptly than Parliament,
which is vital for times of emergency.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

39. Which of the following features of Development Administration are shared by New
Public Administration?
a) Effective coordination
b) Change orientation
c) Temporal dimension
d) Goal orientation
e) Ecological perspective
Codes:
(A) (c) and (e)
(B) (d) and (e)
(C) (b) and (d)
(D) (a) and (b)

40. The Central Social Welfare Board was established by:
(A) Parliamentary enactment
(B) Resolution of Cabinet
(C) Registration under Company Act, 1956
(D) The order of the President
41. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by
(A) President of India (B) Prime Minister of India

(C) Home Minister (D) Chief Minister of the States

42. Which of the following is not the approach to policy evaluation?
(A) Effectiveness Evaluation (B) Evaluation Synthesis Approach
(C) Experimental method (D) All the above

43. Policy monitoring may lead to which of the following actions?
a) Strengthening and improving the policy programmes
b) Replanning of the policy programme
c) Cancellation of the policy programme
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a)
(B) (a), (b)
(C) (a), (b), (c)
(D) (a), (c)

44. Which of the following is not a tool of executive control over public administration?
(A) Power of appointment and removal
(B) Line agencies
(C) Appeal to public opinion
(D) Civil service code

45. List-I (Committees) List-II (Set up on)
a) G.V.K Rao Committee 1. Panchayati Raj Institutions
b) Balwantray Mehta Committee 2. Revitalization of PRIs for democracy
and development
c) L.M. Singhvani Committee 3. Existing administrative arrangements
for rural development and poverty
alleviation programmes
d) Ashok Mehta Committee 4. Community Development Programme
and National Extension service
5) Panchayati Raj Elections

Codes: A B C D
(A) 4 5 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 5 1 2

46. The Indian parliament exercises final control on public finance:
(A) Through the Public Accounts Committee
(B) Through the Estimates Committee
(C) Through the enactment of the Budget
(D) Through the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

47. Authority should be commensurate with
(A) Degree of coordination
(B) Position in the hierarchy
(C) Degree of responsibility
(D) Degree of supervision

48. Which of the following are the features of Classical Theory?
1. Specialization
2. Efficiency
3. Hierarchy
4. Leadership
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,3 and 4
(D) 2,3 and 4

49. Who among the following introduced the concepts and phrases-“conflict resolution”
and “the task of leadership”?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Mary Parker Follett
(D) Chester Barnard

50. When the Lok Sabha makes any grant in advance in respect of the estimated
expenditure for a part of any financial year pending the completion of the procedure
prescribed in the constitution of India, this is called
(A) Vote on account
(B) Vote of credit
(C) Supplementary grant
(D) Additional grant

x-x-x

Sikh Studies
1: What is the meaning of research?
A. Writing a new story
B. Building a new theory.
C. Systematic effort to gain new knowledge
D. Gathering data from the past.
2: Which is not a component of the research process?
A. Hypothesis
B. Experiment
C. Observation
D. Story telling
3: Which is not a type of Research?
A. Qualitative
B. Fictional
C. Quantitative
D. Basic/Fundamental
4: Which are the best characteristics of good research design?
A. Objectivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. All the above
5: What are the determinants of the research problem?
A. Is the problem researchable?
B. Is the problem new?
C. Is the problem significant?
D. All the above
6: Which is not an important benefit of a research hypothesis?
A. Estimating the travel time.
B. Making Clear and specific goals.
C. Prevent blind research.
D. Guiding light to other research.
7: Which is not a form of hypothesis?
A. Question form.
B. Declarative Form.
C. Linear Form
D. Directional Form.
8: Why do we need Sampling?

A. For the Economy of Time.
B. For True detailed knowledge
C. For Utility in experimental study
D. All the above
9: What are essentials of an ideal Sample?
A. Homogeneity
B. Adequacy
C. Representativeness
D. All the above
10: What are the best methods of random sampling?
A. Tossing a coin.
B. Throwing a dice
C. Either A or B
D. Both A And B
11: Which research method is usually used in Qualitative Research?
A. Conceptual Analysis
B. Data Analysis
C. A but not B
D. B but not A
12: What are tools of Data collection?
A. Questionnaires, observation Techniques
B. Interviews, Schedule and Rating Scales
C. Either A or B
D. Both A and B
13: Earth Day is celebrated—
A. 10 January
B. 22 April
C. 21 June
D. 15 August
14: CATI Stand for……
A. Computer Assisted Telephonic Interview
B. Cobalt Acquired Topographic imagination
C. Calculated Assessed Traffic Intermission
D. Collar Acquired Trauma Inspection
15: Google Meet is a…….
A. Virtual Reality Program
B. VFX
C. Online Cloud based platform for meetings

D. A simple document folder

16: Google Docs is a……..
A. Online writing and editing platform
B. Tool for creative peoples
C. A gaming platform
D. Online Virtual Meeting Platform

17: Why We Need Data Analysis?
A. Construction of Measurement Scale
B. Generatingempirical relationships
C. Explanation and Prediction
D. All the above
18: ANOVA Stands for……..
A. Anatomy of Variance
B. Analysis of Variance
C. Anonymity of Variance
D. Anomaly of Variance
19: Archeology is a………..
A. Study Of Ancient things
B. Study of neurology
C. Study of coins
D. Study of Disorders
20: which is not a component of a research proposal?
A. Title
B. Bibliography
C. Logistics
D. Research Problems
21: What should be more specific in a Research?
A. Details of Facts
B. Variety of Sources
C. Topic
D. Conclusion
22: A Thesis is a..
A. Story about past
B. Conclusion based upon facts
C. Just a fresh interpretation of data

D. Just collection of samples

23: A Research Article is a..
A. Summary of a detailed project
B. A report of a event
C. An extract from a Newspaper
D. Deep concern of a writer on a specific problem
24: Why do we need Research?
A. For the betterment of the World
B. For the constructing the new knowledge
C. Either A or B
D. Both A and B
25: World Yoga Day is celebrated on…….
A. 21 June
B. 08 March
C. 21 September
D. 26 January
26: The Golden Bough is written by…….
A. E B Taylor
B. James G Frazer
C. Emile Durkheim
D. Carl Jung
27: Founder of Christianity is……...
A. Moses
B. Prophet Muhammad
C. Jesus of Nazareth
D. Gautama Buddha
28: Numbers of Upanishad major/total………..
A. 9/123
B. 10/150
C. 13/44
D. 11/108
29: Epics in Hinduism are………
A. Ramayana
B. Mahabharata
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
30: Right order of Tri-Ratna of Jainism is……...

A. Right Knowledge, Right Faith and Right Conduct
B. Right Faith, Right Knowledge and Right Conduct
C. Right Conduct, Right Faith and Right Knowledge
D. None the above
31: Tripitaka are……….
A. Jataka, Dhamma and Kathavatthu
B. Dukkha, Antta and Anicca
C. Sutta, Vinaya and Abhidhhamma
D. Vaibhashika, Sautrantika and Yoagachara
32: Right order of the Four Caliphs is……….
A. Ali, Abu Bakar, Omar and Osman
B. Abu Bakar, Omar, Osman and Ali
C. Abu Bakar, Ali, Osman and Omar
D. Osman, Omar, Ali and Abu Bakar
33: Hermeneutics is a………..
A. Science of interpretation
B. Science of Data mining
C. A stream of writing a story
D. Science of astronomy
34: Philosophy of Religion mainly deals with the………..
A. Theoretical problems of Religion
B. Technical problems of Religion
C. Linguistic problems of religion
D. Philosophical problems of Religion
35: The Problem of Evil is found in………...
A. Semitic Religion
B. Indic Religion
C. Traditional Religion
D. Tribal Religion
36: Manji and Masand System was introduced by………..
A. Guru Ramdas
B. Guru Nanak Dev
C. Guru Amar Das
D. Guru Arjun Dev
37. Khalsa Panth was established in the year of…..
A. 1605
B. 1699
C. 1658

D. 1708
38: First and last Tirthankara of Jainism was
A. Rishabh and Vardhmaan
B. Kuntha Nath and Mallinatha
C. Neminath and Arishtnemi
D. Rishabh and Neminath
39: Prophet Muhammad got Revelation..
A. 622, Mecca
B. 619, Medina
C. 570, Medina
D. 610, Mecca
40: ……………….gave final Guru-ship to Adi Granth?
A. Guru Nanak
B. Guru Ramdas
C. Guru Govind Singh
D. Guru Tegh Bahadur
41: Bhai Gurdas was a…………..
A. Sikh Lexicon
B. Sikh compiler and interpreter
C. Sikh Soldier
D. Sikh Painter
42: ‘The Primitive Culture’ is written by..
A. Edward Burnett Taylor
B. James G Frazer
C. Karl Marx
D. Aristotle
43: Yoga Sutra is written by……….
A. Sage Kanada
B. Sage Jaimini
C. Sage Shankar
D. Sage Patanjali

44: School of Shankar is known as……….
A. Vishishtadvaita
B. Advait
C. Dvait
D. Purna Dvait
45: Alvars were…………..

A. Devotee Ganpatays
B. Devotee Shaiva
C. Devotee Vaishnava
D. Disciples of Ramanuja
46: Kabir was a………….
A. Medieval Saint Poet
B. Modern Freedom Fighter
C. A Renowned Spiritual Master
D. A big businessman of Ancient time
47: Mir and Piri stands for………….
A. Miri for Spiritual and Piri for Temporal
B. Miri for Temporal and Piri for Spiritual
C. Only A is Right
D. Both are Right
48: Bramho Samaj was founded by……..
A. Dayanand Saraswati
B. Adi Shankaracharya
C. Sir SayyidAhmad Khan
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
49: Singh Sabha Movement was a……………...
A. Muslim Renaissance
B. Sikh Renaissance
C. Hindu Renaissance
D. Christian Renaissance
50: Main aim of Comparative Study of Religion is………………...
A. Finding commonalities and differences among the Religions
B. Creating a new religion
C. Trying to annihilate the all the religions
D. Trying to create conflicts among the religions

x-x-x

Sociology (SOC-20/21)
1. Recorded data is termed as
(A) Concept (B) Fact (C) Hypothesis (D) Theory

2. The coming of the post-industrial society has been written upon by
(A) Herbert Blumer (B) Milton Singer (C) Daniel Bell (D) Alan Touraine

3. Which one of the following is a thought, or an idea representing a phenomenon, or a
group of facts under a common label
(A) Concept (B) Fact (C) Definition (D) Theory

4. Participant observation
(A) Leads to empathy (B) Is ineffective
(C) Is easy to perform (D) Is detached observation

5. Which of the following statements about a questionnaire is wrong?
(A) It is not successful with illiterate people
(B) Not all questionnaires are mailed
(C) In a good questionnaire, every item relates to a certain hypothesis
(D) It is always a source of secondary data

6. Thurstone scale is a type of
(A) Attitude scale (B) Questionnaire
(C) Interview schedule (D) Opinion poll

7. Arrange in chronological order the period in which the following sociologists lived and
wrote their works
a) Karl Marx b) August Comte
c) Edward Tylor d) George Simmel

(A) d, b, c, a (B) c, b, a, d (C) b, a, c, d (D) a, b, c, d

8. While writing research report a researcher
(A) Must arrange it in logical, topical and chronological order
(B) Must not use the numerical figures in numbers in the beginning of sentences
(C) Must compare his results with those of the other studies
(D) All of the above

9. Assertion (A): The interview is an effective mode of gathering data
Reason (R): It provides considerable freedom and ease to the interviewer and the
respondents
(A) If A is right but R is wrong
(B) If A is wrong but R is right
(C) If both A and R are right but R does not correctly explain A
(D) If both A and R are right but R is the correct explanation of A

10. Applied research is also called
(A) Analytical research (B) Empirical research
(C) Action research (D) Qualitative research

11. Match the following sociologists and concepts:
Sociologist Concept
a. Merton I. Social statics and social dynamics
b. Sumner II. Ethnocentrism
c. Comte III. Latent and manifest functions
d. Giddings IV. Social consciousness of a kind

a b c d
(A) I IV II III
(B) III II IV I
(C) III II I IV
(D) II III IV I

12. The research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more
specifically, the effect of one variable on another are known as
(A) Causal research (B) Applied research
(C) Conclusive research (D) Exploratory research

13. The idea of a ‘global village’ implies
(A) Agriculture becomes the most important occupation
(B) Socio-cultural differences are obliterated
(C) There is a world government
(D) The network of communications binds the people of the world

14. Which one of the following is not an example of a community
(A) A kibbutz (B) A neighbourhood
(C) A village (D) A sect

15. Max Weber traces the rise of capitalism to
(A) Renaissance (B) Peasant protest (C) Calvinism (D) Catholicism

16. In order to pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

17. Alcoholism, drug addiction and suicide are on the rise in industrial cities due to
(A) Frustration (B) Value conflicts
(C) Loss of emotional security (D) All of the above

18. The discipline concerned with the statistical analysis and description of population
composition and change is called
(A) Census (B) Population growth
(C) Demography (D) Population dynamics

19. “Sociology attempts the interpretative understanding of social man”. Who said so?
(A) W. F. Ogburn (B) MacIver (C) Max Weber (D) T. Abel

20. What does the Longitudinal research approach actually deal with?
(A) Long-term research (B) Short-term research
(C) Horizontal research (D) None of the above

21. The main aim of the scientific method in the research field is to -----------
(A) Improve data interpretation (B) Confirm triangulation
(C) Introduce new variables (D) Eliminate spurious relations

22. Authenticity of a research finding is its
(A) Validity (B) Objectivity (C) Originality (D) All of these

23. Which one is called non-probability sampling?
(A) Quota sampling (B) Cluster sampling
(C) Stratified random sampling (D) Systematic sampling

24. What does a good thesis involve?
(a) Reducing punctuations as well as grammatical errors to minimalist
(b) Correct reference citations
(c) Consistency in the way of thesis writing
(d) Well defined abstract

Select the answers from the codes given below:
(A) b, c and d (B) a, b, c and d (C) a, b and c (D) a, b and d

25. What are the core elements of a dissertation?
(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussions and
Conclusions

26. Inferring about the whole population based on the observations made on a small part is
called
(A) Deductive inference (B) Inductive inference
(C) Pseudo inference (D) Objective inference

27. Who was the proponent of deductive method
(A) Francis Bacon (B) Christian Huygenes
(C) Aristotle (D) Issac Newton

28. Which of the following is a component of ethnographic research?
(A) Being immersed in a social group or setting
(B) Participant observation, interviews, and/or documentary analysis
(C) A written account of an ethnographic study
(D) All of the above

29. Who authored ‘Deschooling Society’?
(A) Bowles and Gintis (B) Louis Althusser
(C) H. H. Hyman (D) Ivan Illich

30. According to Gandhi, the ------- is the most important constituent of a state.
(A) Law (B) Individual (C) Body Politic (D) State

31. Who of the following is an Indologist?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) D. P. Mukerji (C) N. K. Bose (D) G.S. Ghurye

32. Who wrote the book ‘Village India’?
(A) Andre Beteille (B) Yogendra Singh
(C) M. N. Srinivas (D) Mckim Marriot

33. Mode is
(A) Least frequent value
(B) Middle most value
(C) Most frequent value
(D) Represents majority out of total frequency

34. Assertion (A): protests by scheduled castes against the practice of untouchability and
atrocities have increased
Reason (R): their actions have stirred the government machinery to enforce law and
order strictly
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of ( A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of ( A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

35. Who among the following has emphasized upon the functional aspects of stratification?
(A) Durkheim, Weber, Parsons (B) Marx, Weber, Davis
(C) Davis, Moore, Parsons (D) Lenski, C.W. Mills, Parsons

36. Which of the following declared the family to be a universal social institution?
(A) George Peter Murdock (B) Levi-Strauss
(C) Margaret Mead (D) Malinowski

37. ‘An Approach to Urban Sociology was the work of:
(A) P. Mann (B) N. Dennis (C) A. J.Reiss (D) P. K. Hatt

38. An investigator studied the census data for a given area and prepared a write-up based
on them. Such a write-up is called:
(A) Research Paper (B) Article (C) Thesis (D) Research

Report

39. The most important leader revered by the Dalits in India is
(A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) Kanshi Ram
(C) Ramvilas Paswan (D) Mayawati

40. The first formal census enumeration was taken up in:
(A) 1781 (B) 1881 (C) 1981 (D) 1901

41. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and
future plans. Such an assembly is known as a
(A) Conference (B) Seminar (C) Workshop (D) Symposium

42. Fact is “an empirically verifiable observation” according o
(A) Maclver (B) Merton (C) Goode and Hatt (D) G. E. Swanson

43. The practice of sociometry involves the use of
(A) Participant observation (B) Social survey
(C) Questionnaire (D) Interview

44. Who has authored the book ‘Ideology and Utopia’
(A) M. Foucault (B) Karl Mannheim
(C) Karl Marx (D) Ralf Dahrendorf

45 ‘Capability Approach’ was given by
(A) Anthony Giddens (B) Amartya Sen
(C) Ulrich Beck (D) Peter Uvin

46 Which scale is unidimensional in nature?
(A) Likert (B) Guttman (C) Bogardus (D) Thurstone

47 Which research design is used in social sciences when there is either no knowledge or
a limited knowledge
(A) Descriptive research design (B) Exploratory research design
(C) Experimental research design (D) Panel Studies

48 Nadel’s definition of social structure makes use of
(A) Social role (B) Social organization
(C) Function (D) Social relationships

49 Match the following
a. Interaction Process Analysis (i) Radcliffe Brown
b. Survival of the Fittest (ii) Herbert Spencer
c. Social construction of Reality (iii) Robert F. Bales
d. Euphoria (iv) Berger and Luckman

And find the correct option
a b c d
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

50 French Revolution took place in the year
(A) 1789 (B) 1798 (C) 1776 (D) 1778

x-x-x

(Women’s Studies)
1. Which one is not the characteristic of qualitative research:
(A) Non-numerical
(B) Exploratory
(C) Non –descriptive
(D) Applies reasons – why and how

2. Which of the following is not an ethical principle that has to be kept in consideration
while conducting a research?
(A) Anything goes
(B) Lack of informed consent
(C) Deception
(D) Invasion of privacy

3. Which one is not a quantitative research approach__________
(A) Content analysis approach
(B) Simulative approach
(C) Inferential approach
(D) Experimental approach

4. The major research objective of feminist research method is to _______?
(A) Seeks to create social change
(B) Seeks to represent human diversity
(C) Seeks to reveal and overcome andocentric biases in research
(D) All of the above

5. Who is the author of the Biography – ‘I Know Why the Caged Birds Sings’
(A) Susan Margret
(B) Chimamanda n. Adichie
(C) Maya Angelou
(D) Bell hook

6. Who is the present Executive Director of UN Women?
(A) NollenHazal
(B) Farida N. Schiller
(C) Barbara Nicholas
(D) PhumzileMlamboNgcuka

7. Which one is not the major task of National Sample Survey Office _________.
(A) Responsible for deciding the coverage of the survey and methodology to be used
(B) To provide technical work relating to National Sample Survey
(C) To process, analyze the data
(D) Prepare final survey reports

8. Match the List-I with List-II:

List – I List – II
(a) Survey (i) Principal of sample survey
(b) Content analysis (ii) Research Strategy
(c) Border effect (iii) Mass Communications
(d) Validity (iv) Sampling bias

Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

9. Phi is a method for assessing the strength of the relationship between two _______
(A) Two dependent variables
(B) One independent and two dependent variables
(C) Two dichotomous variables
(D) Polychotomous variables

10. In which year National Family Health Survey-5 was released?
(A) 2010-2011
(B) 2015-2016
(C) 2019-2020
(D) 2020-2021

11. Name the first Indian woman who won the Booker Prize.
(A) Mirnal Panday
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Jumpa Lahiri
12. Name the woman who won Noble Prize in 2020 in the category of Chemistry.
(A) Jennifer Doudna
(B) Andrea M. Ghez
(C) Esther Duflo
(D) Nadia Murad

13. Which of the following is incorrect about Grounded Theory in scientific research?
(A) It provides sequential guidance for conducting quantitative research
(B) It is a strategy for handling the analytical phases of enquiry
(C) Conceptual analysis of qualitative data
(D) Legitimize qualitative research as scientific research

14. Who is the author of the book ‘Social Research Methods’ published by Oxford
University Press?
(A) Alan Bryman
(B) Van Maanen
(C) Max Weber
(D) S.A. Tyler

15. Which one of the following is a fundamental prerequisite for perusing research in a
scientific manner:
(A) Developing research design
(B) Formulating research question
(C) Formulating hypothesis
(D) Deciding about research methods

16. Action Research is a _________
(A) An evaluation research
(B) A research based on socio-economic and political objectives
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) A research based on diagnosis of problem and development of solution based
on
such diagnosis

17. How many women members are there in the present Rajya Sabha (2021)?
(A) 23
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 29

18. India ranked ___ among 107 countries in Global Hunger Index 2020.
(A) 49
(B) 78
(C) 86
(D) 94

19. Roshni Nadar Malhotra is the CEO and Executive Director of ________
(A) Biopharmaceutical Firm Biocon
(B) HCL Corporation
(C) Thermax
(D) Nukaa

20. Which one of the following is not a key National Family Health Survey-5 indicator?
(A) Marriage and Fertility
(B) Literacy rate

(C) Screening for HIV/AIDS among adults
(D) Anaemia among children and adults
21. Who is the first woman Peace Prize Winner?
(A) Marie Curie
(B) Bertha Von Suttner
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Nelly Sachs

22. Chandrani Murmu is the youngest women member elected to Lok Sabha . She contested
the Lok Sabha election from the state of _____.
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Chhattisgarh

23. ICSSR supported Centre for Women’s Development Studies was established in____
(A) 1975
(B) 1980
(C) 1985
(D) 1990

24. When Central Statistical Office was established?
(A) 1948
(B) 1951
(C) 1955
(D) 1967

25. Content analysis is not an approach for the analysis of ___________
(A) Texts
(B) Documents
(C) Group discussions
(D) Songs

26. In which year All India Women’s Conference was established?
(A) 1905
(B) 1917
(C) 1927
(D) 1930

27. According to which Act online pornography has been declared as a punishable offence
in India?
(A) The Cyber Technology Act, 2000
(B) Indecent Representation Act, 2001
(C) The Information Technology Act 2000

(D) Cyber Crime Act 2017
28. Maitreyi is a scholar during the _____ period in India.
(A) Vedic
(B) Upanisha
(C) Smriti
(D) Buddhist

29. Jhulan Goswami is an Indian sports person. She Plays ____
(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Badminton

30. Which one of the following is not a citation style generally used in humanities and
social sciences
(A) MLA
(B) APA
(C) IEEE
(D) Turabian

31. Annual Bulletin of Food Statistics is published by _________
(A) Central Statistical Organisation
(B) Directorate of Economics and Statistics
(C) National Sample Survey
(D) Registrar General of India

32. Among the following who is not an environmentalist?
(A) Gauri Devi
(B) Sunita Narain
(C) Tripti Devi
(D) Medha Patkar

33. E.R. Cole claims that the traditional standpoint in epistemology is that of ________
(A) Middle class white men of science
(B) Middle class white women in politics
(C) Elite class white men in business
(D) Working class men

34. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act was enacted in ____
(A) 2017
(B) 2018
(C) 2019
(D) 2020

35. Prevention and Prohibition of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act 2013 is
the outcome of the Supreme Court Judgment in the case of _______
(A) Geeta Hariharan vs. State of Rajasthan
(B) Nirmala Benerjee vs Union of India
(C) Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan
(D) Mathura vs. Union of India

36. Vani Kola a successful woman entrepreneur and a founder of ______
(A) Kalaari Capital
(B) Kaplandi Builders
(C) Naykaa
(D) Menstrupedia

37. RSS in web stands for ______________
(A) Revision Synthesis Solution
(B) Really Simple Syndication
(C) Really Simple Signal
(D) Rapid Support System

38. Which of the following is not a data collection method?
(A) Narrations
(B) Research question
(C) Observation
(D) Folk lore

39. Sultana’s Dream was written by _______
(A) Sarla Devi Chaudhrani
(B) Razia Sultan
(C) Roshan Ara
(D) Rokeya Sakhawat Hussain

40. Women account for only ____ per cent of the total labour force in India according to
World Bank data.
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 27
(D) 31

41. The major focus of Feminist epistemology is on the ________
(A) Standpoint learner
(B) Situated learner
(C) Standpoint knower
(D) Situated knower
42. Which of the following is not the internet link for famous codes of ethics in the field of
research?

(A) http://www.bps.org.uk/about/rules5.cfm
(B) http://www.asanet.org/ethics.htm
(C) http://www.rstus.org/rules67
(D) None of the above

43. EEBO stands for _______
(A) European English Business Organization
(B) Early English Books Online
(C) England English Books Online
(D) Eastern English Books Online

44. NVivo is software used for ________ data analysis.
(A) Quantitative data
(B) Qualitative data
(C) Content analysis
(D) None of the above

45. What is the Total Fertility Rate (births/ per woman) in India according to World Bank
2018 data?
(A) 1.2
(B) 2.2
(C) 2.3
(D) 4.2

46. Match the books with their authors:
List I List II
a. Of Women Born i. Sara Delamont
b. Feminist Sociology ii. Angela Davis
c. The Feminist Mystique iii. Adrienne Rich
d. Women, Culture and Politics iv Betty Friedan

Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

47. Who is the author of ‘Black Sexual Politics: African Americans, Gender and New
Racism’?
(A) Particia Hill Collins
(B) Bell hoock
(C) Andre Lorde
(D) Michele Wallace

48. Name the Kerala Health Minister who was honoured by United Nations in 2020 for her
efforts to fight the corona virus pandemic in her state.
(A) K.S. Kutti
(B) M.L. Srinivasan
(C) K.K. Shailaja
(D) P. Sujatha Rao

49. Kalavati Devi was one of the recipients of Nari Shakti Puraskar 2020. She was awarded
this Puraskar as she fought against ________
(A) Deforestation
(B) Open defecation
(C) Alcoholism
(D) Child marriage

50. Which one of the following is not a feature of qualitative research?
(A) Points of view of participants
(B) Theory emergent
(C) Unstructured
(D) Static

x-x-x

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