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PU M.Phil & Ph.D Entrance Exam 2020 Question Paper Faculty of Law and Pharmacy

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Page 1

(Laws)
1. Null hypothesis refers to
(A) Strong Relationship between two variables
(B) Negative Relationship between variables selected
(C) No statistical significance between two variables
(D) None of the above

2. The criteria for the selection of a research problem includes
(A) The researcher's interest, intellectual curiosity and competency
(B) Significance to discipline
(C) Feasibility
(D) All of the above

3. ____________ is the adoption/reproduction of ideas/word of another person without due
acknowledgment.
(A) Falsified data
(B) Sabotage
(C) Favourable data
(D) Plagiarism

4. Translating non- numerical answers into numerical value or assigning them numbers is
called:
(A) Data editing
(B) Data analysis
(C) Quantitative Coding
(D) Data processing
5. Pilot study means
(A) Repeated field visit
(B) Small scale, Preliminary studies prior to conducting full scale research studies
(C) Multiple designs possible
(D) Data processing

6. All of the following are types of non-probability sampling techniques except
(A) Purposive
(B) Snowball
(C) Convenience
(D) Random sampling
7. Sources of data collected and compiled by others is called
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

8. A short summary of technical report is called
(A) Article
(B) Research abstract
(C) Guide
(D) Publication

Page 2

9. The sampling technique usually used in case of hidden population which is difficult for the
research to locate is called
(A) Snow ball sampling
(B) Purposive sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) None of the above

10. Which of the following is an example of primary data
(A) Books
(B) Journal
(C) Collected by organisations during market research
(D) All the above

11. ICSSR stands for
(A) Indian Council for Survey & Research.
(B) Indian Council for Strategic Research.
(C) Indian Council of Social Science Research.
(D) International Council for Social Science Research.

12. ________________ is the first step of Research Process.
(A) Identification of a Problem
(B) Collection of Data
(C) Editing and Coding
(D) Report research finding
13. A Hypothesis from which no consequences can be deducted
(A) Null Hypothesis
(B) Barren Hypothesis
(C) Descriptive Hypothesis
(D) Analytical Hypothesis

14. Convenience sampling involves __________ technique of study.
(A) Judgemental
(B) Hit and miss
(C) Referred
(D) Quota
15. _____________ prevent a researcher from blind search and intellectual wandering for
(A) Data
(B) Sample
(C) Research tools
(D) Research Design

16. Deductive method of Research is also known as:
(A) Analytical
(B) Abstract
(C) A priori
(D) All of the above

(2)

Page 3

17. ____________ research is concerned with legal propositions & doctrines. The sources of
data are legal and appellate court decisions. This type of research:
(A) Doctrinal Research
(B) Non-Doctrinal Research
(C) Comparative Research
(D) None of the above

18. The procedure plan that is adopted by the research to answer questions Validity,
Objectively, Accurately is a
(A) Research Problem
(B) Research Design
(C) Research Hypothesis
(D) None of the above

19. Good and Hart have defined ‘it’ as "a proposition which can be put to test to determine its
validity". Here 'It' means
(A) Hypothesis
(B) Design
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

20. All of the following are types of probability sampling techniques except
(A) Systematic
(B) Snowball
(C) Cluster
(D) Random sampling
21. Bibliography given in a research report
(A) Helps those interested in further research and studying the problem from another
angle
(B) Makes the report authentic
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

22. Research undertaken for knowledge sake is
(A) Pure Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Pilot study
(D) Survey
23. Example for fact finding study is
(A) Pure Research
(B) Survey
(C) Action Research
(D) Long Term Research
24. Research design is a blue print, out line and a _________________
(A) Plan
(B) System
(C) Strategy

Page 4

(D) Guide
25. Facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as bases for a study is called
(A) Sample
(B) Method
(C) Data
(D) Theory

26. Right to enforce which Articles of the constitution can not be suspended during emergency
(A) Article 19 and 20
(B) Article 20 and 21
(C) Article 14,19 and 21
(D) Article 21 and 22

27. President can promulgate ordinance during the recess of Parliament under which Article
of constitution
(A) Article 121
(B) Article 122
(C) Article 123
(D) Article 124

28. The appointment of comptroller and Auditor General of India under Article 148 is made
by
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Finance of India

29. Which articles relating to fundamental rights in constitution are popularly known as golden
triangle?
(A) Articles 14, 19 and 21
(B) Articles 16, 20 and 21
(C) Articles 14, 15 and 19
(D) Articles 19, 20 and 21

30. "Autre Fois Acquit" and “Autre Fois Convict” is a rule against
(A) Self in-crimination
(B) Ex-post-facto Law
(C) Retrospective Law
(D) Double Jeopardy
31. Position of finder of goods in a contract is that of
(A) Bailee
(B) Bailor
(C) Agent
(D) Principal
32. Pledge is a special kind of
(A) Guarantee
(B) Bailment

Page 5

(C) Indemnity bond
(D) None of the above
33. Hadley Vs. Baxendale is a leading case for
(A) Anticipatory breach
(B) Breach of Implied term
(C) Remoteness of damages
(D) All of the above

34. A instigates B to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation stabs D. D recovers from
wound. Here A is guilty of :
(A) Instigating B to commit murder
(B) Instigating B to commit attempt to murder
(C) Instigating B to commit grievous hurt
(D) No offence

35. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 is based on
(A) Shah Committee Report
(B) Verma Committee Report
(C) Malimath Committee Report
(D) Mehta Committee Report

36. The maxim de minimis non curat lex means
(A) Law would not take action on small and trifling matter
(B) Law ignores action done by person of unsound mind
(C) Law ignores action done by minor
(D) Law does not ignore any act done by anyone

37. Unlawful Assembly is an offence against
(A) The Person
(B) Public Tranquillity
(C) Public Justice
(D) Human Body

38. The rule of ‘absolute liability’ admits the defence of
(A) Act of third party
(B) Act of God
(C) Necessity
(D) None of the above

39. Who was the author of the Book titles ‘Introduction to Jurisprudence’
(A) Dias
(B) Llyod
(C) Austin
(D) Holland

40. Kelson Pure theory of law belongs to
(A) Analytical School
(B) Historical School

Page 6

(C) Vienna School
(D) Sociological School

41. Who defined a law as “a rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligent being by an
intelligent being having power over him”.
(A) Bentham
(B) Austin
(C) Salmond
(D) Ihring

42. Breakdown theory of divorce is portrayed in
(A) Section 13(1)(a) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(B) Section 13(1) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(C) Section 13(2) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(D) Section 13B of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

43. The two main schools of Hindu law are.
(A) Dayabhaga and Mithilia School
(B) Mitakshara and Dayabhaga School
(C) Dayabhaga and Drander School
(D) None of the above

44. Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act lays
(A) Ceremonies of marriage
(B) Registration of Hindu Marriage
(C) Formalities of marriage
(D) Conditions of a Hindu Marriage

45. A testamentary guardian is
(A) A guardian ad-litem
(B) A guardian under contract
(C) A guardian appointed under will
(D) A guardian sole

46. Maintenance under Section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is
(A) A substantive relief
(B) A ancillary relief
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of above

47. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court allow Passive Euthanasia under
exceptional circumstances?
(A) Gain Kaur vs. State of Punjab
(B) Aruna Shanbaug vs. Union of India
(C) Sharda vs. Union of India
(D) Seema vs. Union of India

48. Who of the following is credited with drafting the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Page 7

(A) Sir James Stephen
(B) Charles Wood
(C) John Morley
(D) Lord Macaulay

49. Who is the Legal Advisor to the Government of the State in India?
(A) The Solicitor General
(B) The Public Prosecutor
(C) The High Court
(D) The Advocate General

50. SHe-box represents / stands for
(A) Online portal to report complaints of sexual harassment at work
(B) Scheme to save girl child
(C) Various welfare schemes for girls
(D) None of the above

x-x-x

Page 8

Pharmaceutical Sciences
1. Which one among the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
(A) Numerical Aptitude
(B) Marital Status
(C) Socio-economic Status
(D) Professional Attitude

2. In order to pursue research, which of the following should be prioritized?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

3. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) Writing of Seminar representation
(B) Preparation of research paper/article
(C) A research dissertation
(D) Presenting a workshop/conference paper

4. What does the longitudinal research approach actually deal with?
(A) Long-term research
(B) Short-term research
(C) Horizontal research
(D) None of the above

5. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban
area. So, what tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating Scale
(B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Schedule

6. What are the core elements of a thesis?
(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussions;
Conclusions and References

7. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?
(A) Systematic Sampling Technique
(B) Purposive Sampling Technique
(C) Area Sampling Technique
(D) None of the above

Page 9

8. The F-test:
(A) Is essentially a two-tailed test.
(B) Is essentially a one-tailed test.
(C) Can be one-tailed as well as two-tailed depending on the hypotheses.
(D) Can never be one tailed test.

9. Why is it imperative for a researcher to review the literature?
(A) To find if similar work has been done before
(B) To identify likeminded researchers
(C) To follow the tradition
(D) To depict the time spent on the subject
10. Pick the odd one out
(A) Call number
(B) Place of publication
(C) Authors’ names
(D) Publisher

11. Bibliography?
(A) A true story written about someone
(B) Another name for writing a book.
(C) A religious book.
(D) A list of sources used in a report and where they can be found

12. Which of the following statistical methods will help in computing mean deviation?
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Variance
(C) Median
(D) Mode

13. Best measure for central tendency in a highly skewed distribution is:
(A) Median
(B) Mean
(C) Mode
(D) Range
14. A statistical test which indicates the chance or probability of an observed difference
between two means occurring by chance is called:
(A) Tests of significance
(B) Means
(C) Ratio
(D) Normalcy
15. E-books are_______
(A) Normal text book in electronic version
(B) Paperless book
(C) Soft copy of the book
(D) All the above
(2)

Page 10

16. CPCSEA stands for
(A) Committee for the purpose of control and supervision on experiments on animals
(B) Council for the purpose of control and supervision on experiments on animals
(C) Council for the protection and control of supervision on experiments on animals
(D) Committee for the purpose of care and supervision on experiments on animals
17. IAEC stands for
(A) International animals ethics committee
(B) Indian animals ethics committee
(C) Institutional animals ethics committee
(D) Institutional animals ethics council
18. The year of origin of ICH guidelines is
(A) 1970
(B) 1991
(C) 1971
(D) 1990
19. Health Regulatory agency of Australia is
(A) FDA
(B) MHLW
(C) TGA
(D) EU

20. _________ is not the method of euthanasia
(A) Stunning
(B) Decapitation
(C) Electrocution
(D) Carbon dioxide inhalation

21. QSEM stands for
(A) Quality, safety, efficiency, multidisciplinary
(B) Quantity, safety, efficacy, multitasking
(C) Quality, safety, efficacy, multidisciplinary
(D) Quality, safety, efficacy, multitasking

22. The standard conditions for photo stability studies are described in
(A) ICH Q1B
(B) ICH Q6A
(C) ICH Q3A
(D) ICH Q1A

23. Reproducing someone else's ideas while not copying word for word, without permission
and acknowledgment of the original source is termed as
(A) Literal copying
(B) Paraphrasing
(C) Substantial copying
(D) Text recycling
(3)

Page 11

24. Ghost authors are
(A) Who contribute substantially but are not acknowledged
(B) Who make no discernible contributions but are listed to help increase the chance
of publication
(C) Whose contribution is based solely on tenuous affiliation with a study
(D) None of these

25. Making up research data and results, and recording or reporting them is called
(A) Falsification
(B) Fabrication
(C) Plagiarism
(D) All of the above

26. Which of the following is an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor?
(A) Neostigmine
(B) Echothiophate
(C) Physostigmine
(D) Edrophonium

27. Which among the following beta-blockers is cardioselective?
(A) Metoprolol
(B) Propranolol
(C) Timolol
(D) Sotalol
28. Select the pethidine based opioid analgesic from the following.
(A) Pentazocine
(B) Dextropropoxyphene
(C) Fentanyl
(D) Levorphanol
29. What is the pharmacopoeially accepted moisture content of a hard-gelatin capsule?
(A) 7-9%
(B) 8-11%
(C) 12-16%
(D) 15-20%

30. The chemical formula of sodium nitroprusside is:
(A) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
(B) Na3[Fe(CN)6NO]
(C) Na[Fe(CN)5 NO]
(D) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO]

31. Which statement is true in relation to mesotartaric acid?
(A) It rotates the plane of plane-polarized light
(B) It is optically inactive
(C) It possesses three chiral carbons
(D) It is a racemic mixture
(4)

Page 12

32. Which of the following drugs is a macrolide antibiotic?
(A) Doxycycline
(B) Trimethoprim
(C) Gentamycin
(D) Erythromycin

33. Which of the following imparts desensitizing properties to dental products?
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Potassium nitrate
(C) Stannous fluoride
(D) Potassium chloride

34. Which of the following amino acids is a precursor for biosynthesis of norepinephrine?
(A) Leucine
(B) Isoleucine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Tyrosine
35. What does Noyes-Whitney equation describe?
(A) Disintegration
(B) Dissolution
(C) First-order kinetics
(D) Tyrosine

36. Which of the following materials is used in enteric coated tablets?
(A) Cellulose acetate phthalate CAP
(B) Hydroxypropyl cellulose HPC
(C) Microcrystalline cellulose MCC
(D) Carboxymethyl cellulose CMC

37. Identify the material most commonly used in film coating of tablets.
(A) Coconut oil
(B) Strontium chloride
(C) Hydroxypropyl Methyl Cellulose
(D) Bees wax
38. The digit at the extreme right in the name of a CFC propellant refers to:
(A) No. of F-atoms
(B) One less the no. of C-atoms
(C) No. of H-atoms
(D) No. of C-atoms
39. Karl-Fischer titration is a method used to analyse:
(A) Dissolved CO2
(B) Water content
(C) Ethanol content
(D) Amino acids
(5)

Page 13

40. Isoprene is the building block of:
(A) Flavonoids
(B) Alkaloids
(C) Terpenoids
(D) Coumarins

41. Separation of a tablet into distinct horizontal layers is called:
(A) Capping
(B) Mottling
(C) Lamination
(D) Chipping
42. Opium is the source of:
(A) Morphine
(B) Thebaine
(C) Papaverine
(D) All of above
43. Identify an antiarrythmic agent from the following:
(A) Losartan
(B) Phenytoin
(C) Methyldopa
(D) Moclobemide

44. Local anesthetics work by:
(A) Chloride channel opening
(B) Sodium channel blockade
(C) Potassium channel blockade
(D) Calcium channel blockade

45. Which of the following is a methylating agent used as antineoplastic?
(A) Chlorambucil
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Doxorubicin
(D) Cisplatin

46. Which of the following is a primary standard for standardization of KMnO4?
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Sodium oxalate
(C) Potassium hydrogen phthalate
(D) Sodium thiosulfate

47. Crystal violet is an indicator in:
(A) Complexometric titrations
(B) Redox titrations
(C) Potassium hydrogen phthalate
(D) Non-aqueous titrations

(6)

Page 14

48. What is the common particle size in HPLC columns?
(A) 10-20 m
(B) 3-5 m
(C) 2-3m
(D) 8-10 m

49. Which of the following classes of natural products have amino acids as precursors?
(A) Steroids
(B) Terpenoids
(C) Flavonoids
(D) Alkaloids

50. Which of the following techniques are used in pharmacopoeial determination of purity of
water?
(A) Potentiometry
(B) Polarography
(C) Conductometry
(D) Amperometry

x-x-x

(7)

Document Details

Board / OrgPanjab University
ExamPU PhD
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages14
Updated30 Apr 2026