Kerala SET 2018 Jul Question Paper Botany

A
18703 120 MINUTES
1. Name the single kingdom of Whittaker’s five kingdom system of classification that
includes the blue-green algae, nitrogen fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria.
A) Plantae B) Protista C) Monera D) Fungi

2. Protein structure depicted by Ramachandran plot, the values of the dihedral angle ψ
(psi) is based on rotation around

A) N-Cα bond B) Cα-C’ bond C) C’-N bond D) N-H bond

3. Select the correct group from the following that the leaves are modified into tendrils,
hooks, pitcher, and bladder in the following plants respectively:
A) Sweet Pea, Bignonia, Nepenthes, Utricularia
B) Sweet Pea, Bignonia, Utricularia, Nepenthes,
C) Nepenthes, Bignonia, Sweet Pea, Utricularia
D) Bignonia, Nepenthes, , Sweet Pea Utricularia,

4. Which of the following is the general mechanism of action for erythromycin?
A) Derailment of protein synthesis
B) Inhibition of metabolic enzymes
C) Blocking of nucleic acid transcription and replication
D) Inhibition of cell wall formation

5. Usnic acid, a dibenzofuran derivative has been utilized in medicine, perfumery and
cosmetics This was isolated by the German scientist W. Knop in 1844. Name the lichen/s
yield usnic acid
A) Usnea B) Cladonia C) Lecanora D) All the above
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6. Immersion oil can be employed to enhance the resolution achieved with some microscope
Lenses because it increases the ------ between the specimen and the objective lens.
A) Optical density
B) Optical density and refractive index
C) Refractive index
D) Neither optical density nor refractive index

7. Identify the family having the ability to produce cyanogenic glycosides as a
chemotaxonomic marker character
A) Rosaceae B) Leguminosae
C) Poaceae D) All the above

8. The information which is represented by a signal and is detected by specific receptors
that will be converted in to a cellular response; this conversion is
A) Signal amplification B) Signal transversion
C) Signal transduction D) Signal integration

9. Electrophoresis of a purified protein in SDS-PAGE in the presence of the detergent 2-
mercaptoethanol yields two bands of mass 35 kDa and 45 kDa. However, in a gel
filtration chromatography, the same protein elutes as 80 kDa. What conclusion can be
drawn from the results?
A) The protein is not at all purified to homogeneity.
B) Two bands generated in SDS-PAGE due to disintegration.
C) The protein is a homodimer
D) The protein is a heterodimer

10. Basic dyes like methylene blue bind to cellular molecules that are:
A) Hydrophobic B) Neutral
C) Positively charged D) Negatively charged

11. Select the correct pair:
Column I Column II
(a) Unilocular Ovary 1 Petunia
(b) Bilocular Ovary 2 Asparagus
(c) Trilocular Ovary 3 Hibiscus
(d) Pentalocular Ovary 4 Sunflower

A) a- 4, b-3, c-2, d- 1 B) a- 4,b-1, c-2, d- 3
C) a- 1, b-2,c- 4, d-3 D) a -2, b-1, c- 3, d-4

12. Trees with resin; coracious leaves; flower actionomorphic, hermaphrodite, sepals 5,
polysepalous, persistent; petals 5, polypetalous; stamens many in one to several whorls,
slightly polyandrous, carpels 3, syncarpous, superior; Fruit samara with persistent sepals
A) Magnoliaceae B) Tiliaceae
C) Anacardiaceae D) Dipetrocarpaceae

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13. Read the following and select the correct statements
1. Polysiphonia, a red algae possess highly branched filaments each with a central
axial filament supporting pericentral cells. The number of pericentral cells is 4–24.
2. The diploid zygote develops to become the carposporophyte, this is a separate
phase of the life-cycle and is entirely parasitic on the female
3. The tetrasporophyte is diploid and produced spores in fours after meiosis

A) 1 & 2 only B) 2 & 3 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2 & 3

14. The commercial fiber of jute belongs to the category:
A) Hard fiber B) Suface fiber C) Bast fiber D) Xylem fiber

15. A messenger molecule is 336 nucleotides long, including the initiator and termination
codons. The number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA
A) 999 B) 112 C) 111 D) 110

16. When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?
A) Late prophase of meiosis I
B) During fertilization or fusion of gametes
C) Early anaphase of meiosis I
D) Late metaphase of meiosis II

17. In the Meselson-Stahl DNA replication experiment, if the cells were first grown for many
generations in 15N containing media, and then switched to14N containing media, what
percent of the DNA had 1 light strand and 1 heavy strand after 2 generations of growth
in 14 N growth media?
A) 25 B) 50 C) 100 D) 75

18. Algae possess great diversity in plastids shape. Which among them have reticulate
chloroplast?
A) Oedogonium B) Spirogyra
C) Hydrodictyon D) All the above

19. In the typification, the specimen designated from the original material as the
nomenclatural type, in conformity with Art. 9.9 and 9.10, if no holotype was indicated
at the time of publication, or if it is missing, or if it is found to belong to more than
one taxon is known as
A) Isotype B) Lectotype
C) Neotype D) Paratype

20. What is added to the 3'-end of many eukaryotic mRNAs after transcription?
A) Introns
B) a poly A tail
C) a cap structure, consisting of a modified G nucleotide
D) the trinucleotide 5’-CCA

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21. Match the chromatographic technique from Group A with the appropriate elution
conditions given in Group B
Group A Group B
1. Chromato focusing a. Decreasing [(NH4)2SO4] gradient
2. DEAE-Sephadex b. pH gradient
3. G-150 Sephadex c. Isocratic gradient
4. Phenyl Speharose d. Increasing NaCl gradient
A) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a B) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

22. The chemotherapy drug cytarabine is an anti-metabolite similar to the nucleotide
cytosine. The drug kills cancer cells by stopping them making and repairing DNA. At
which stage in the cell cycle will cytarabine be incorporated into?
A) G1 B) G2 C) S D) M

23. The oldest fossil bryophyte recorded is a species of:
A) Ricciopsis B) Hepaticites
C) Marchantites D) Muscites

24. Consider the following Statements regarding Ecotone:
1. It is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems.
2. Grass land forests are example for ecotone ecosystems.
3. Generally, species diversity is higher in ecotone than the adjacent ecosystems
Choose the correct statements:
A) 1 only B) 2 & 3 only
C) 1, 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2 only

25. In the Eltons ecological pyramids, the structure of decreasing biomass with increasing
trophic level in a terrestrial ecosystem is a consequence of---------
A) The second law of thermodynamics
B) Bio-magnification
C) Conservation of energy
D) Increasing competition at higher trophic levels

26. Which ecosystem possesses the mean lowest net primary productivity per unit area?
A) An open ocean B) A coral reef
C) An estuary D) A fresh water lake

27. Darwin’s ideas on evolution by natural selection was influenced by
A) Meselson and Stahl B) Watson and Crick
C) Lyell and Malthus D) Miller and Urey

28. Consider the following Statements regarding pioneer species:
1. The plants that invade first in a barren land, where soil is initially absent are called
pioneer species.
2. A pioneer species generally display low growth rate with high life span. Identify
the correct statements:
A) 1 only B) 2 only
C) All of them are correct D) Neither 1 nor 2

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29. Puddling is carried in horticulture to:
A) Reduce percolation of water B) Pulverise and levelling soil
C) Kill weeds D) All of the above

30. As the E value of a BLAST search becomes smaller
A) The value K also becomes smaller
B) The score tends to be larger
C) The probability p tends to be larger
D) The extreme value distribution becomes less skewed

31. EST division of EMBL database archives data in
A) Only 5’ to 3’ direction
B) Only 3’ to 5’ direction
C) Both 5’ to 3’ and 3’ to 5’ to represent clones from two ends
D) Either 5’ to 3’ or 3’ to 5’

32. Read the following statement and answer the question:
Statement I: In a normal distribution, the quartile deviation, the mean deviation about
mean and the standard deviation are approximately 10:12:15
Statement II: The standard deviation of 10 items is 4. If each item is increased by 2, the
standard deviation will become 6.
A) Both statements are correct B) Statement I only is correct
C) Statement II only is correct D) Both statements are wrong

33. Synthesis of biodiesel from algal resource is an example of the process namely
A) Carbon negative B) Carbon positive
C) Carbon and nitrogen positive D) Carbon neutral

34. Select the wrong pair from the given options
A) Hypertrophy: abnormal increase in size of organ
B) Hyperplasia: abnormal increase in number of cells of the organ
C) Atrophy: inhibition of growth of dwarfing
D) Necrosis: death of plant

35. A micro array is an ordered array of microscopic elements on a planer substrate that
allows the specific binding of
A) Whole genome B) Gene or gene products
C) Both A and B D) None of these

36. Resistance to glyphosphate in transgenic petunia plants has been developed by the transfer
of
A) Gene for EPSPS (5-enol-pyruvyl shikimat 3 phosphate synthase)
B) Gene for GS (glutamine synthase)
C) Gene for ALS (acetolactate synthase)
D) None of these

37. The Plant Breeders’ Rights (PBR) cannot be granted to any variety. If so which among the
following are the basic requirements for protection of a variety under Plant Breeders’
Rights.
(i) Novelty (ii) Distinctiveness (iii) Uniformity (iv) Stability

A) i & ii B) i & iii C) i, ii & iii D) All the above
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38. Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of trp operon expression by
attenuation is correct?
A) Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of mRNA transcript
B) Rapid translation of the leader peptide allows completion of mRNA transcript
C) The leader peptide sequence encodes enzymes required for tryptophan synthesis
D) The leader peptide sequence contains no tryptophan residues

39. Marchantia, the liverwort is characterized by
1. Female organs are known as archegonia and are protected by the thin surrounding
perichaetum
2. Antheridia are enclosed by a protective layer of cells called the perigonium
3. Male gametes are produced in numerous and multiflagellate

A) 1 & 2 only B) 2 & 3 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2 & 3

40. Copal belongs to the group hard resins which contain only a little essential oil and much
valued in the varnish industry because of their high melting point and hardness. Name the
plant which yields copal
A) Agathis B) Picea C) Pinus D) Cryptomeria

41. Which of the following would INHIBIT the onset of mitosis?
A) Binding of M Cyclin to Cdk B) Phosphorylation of Cdk by Wee1
C) Phosphorylation of Wee1 by Cdk D) Dephosphorylation of Cdk by Cdc25

42. Lac repressor dissociates from its operator when the repressor binds to
A) Heat shock module B) Promoter
C) Inducer D) Catabolite activator site

43. Which one of the following statement is correctly correlated with morphology vs plant
species?
A) In tomato, fruit is capsule
B) Seeds of orchids have oil –rich endosperm
C) Placentation in primrose is basal
D) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot.

44. A DNA molecules labeled with 15N and 14N and can be separated by ---------- technique
A) Pulse field gel electrophoresis B) Density gradient ultracentrifugation
C) Capillary electrophoresis D) Differential centrifugation

45. Along with Jatropha, the seed oil, which among the following plant has been found to be
useful in diesel generators being explored in many research organizations throughout
India and other developing countries as feedstock for biodiesel?
A) Arachis hypogea B) Pongamia pinnata
C) Butea monosperma D) Pterocarpus santalinius

46. Typical resolution of electron microscope (EM) is -------
A) 0.05 nm B) 0.5 nm C) 1 nm D) 100 nm

47. --------- hormone applied to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days.
Shelf life of cut shoots and flowers is prolonged by employing the same hormone.
A) Gibberellins B) Cytokinins
C) Auxins D) Ethylene.
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48. Observe the following fatty acids and identify the saturated fatty acids from the following
catgories?
A) Lauric, Myristic, Arachidic B) Palmitic, Linoleic, Arachidonic
C) Capric, Stearic & Oleic D) Behenic, Caprylic, Arachidonic

49. Global warming is triggered by greenhouse gases (GHG). The most potent GHG among
the following is --------?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Methane C) Water Vapour D) Ozone

50. A common human telomere consists of 5’-GGTTAG-3’ repeated up to 2,000 times at the
ends of each chromosome. During each cycle of mitosis, approximately 100 base pairs are
lost from each telomeric end. If a chromosome consists of 1,500 repeats of the sequence
at each end, how many mitotic divisions can occur before the telomeres are completely
gone?
A) 100 B) 90 C) 80 D) 110

51. The Siberian Crane, an endangered migratory bird is a regular visitor of which of the
following national park/bird sanctuaries:
A) Ranganathittu bird sanctuary B) Keoladeo national park
C) Vedanthangal bird sanctuary D) Sultanpur bird sanctuary

52. Some plants won’t bloom without vernalization. The biennials form their vegetative body
in the first year. Then they pass through a winter season and then produce flowers and
fruits in the second year. By exogenous application of ---------- many biennials can be
induced to behave as annuals and they no more require the natural chilling treatment for
their flowering.
A) Gibberellins B) Cytokinins
C) Auxins D) Ethylene

53. Name the genus which possess siphonostele having a single phloem ring external to the
xylem is called as ectophloic siphonostele
A) Adiantum B) Dryopteris
C) Marsilea D) Equisetum

54. The sensitive technique that is used in histochemistry that can be used to identify the
presence of DNA than RNA is
A) Perls’s Reaction B) Sakaguchi Test
C) Feulgen's Reaction D) PAS reaction

55. The glycosylation process of the proteins occurs in ----------- organelle/ part of the cell
A) Glyoxysomes B) Lysosomes
C) Golgi apparatus D) Plasma membrane

56. Flowers are irregular and bisexual, 5 sepals but usually 3 green outer sepals and 2 petal-
like inner sepals. United petals, usually fused with the stamens, and the lower petal is
often fringed. There are 8 stamens, fused to the petals. The ovary is positioned superior. It
consists of 2 united carpels with the partition walls present, forming an equal number of
chambers. It matures as a capsule, nut, or drupe
A) Ranuncluaceae B) Caryophyllaceae
C) Portlucaceae D) Polygalaceae

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57. The Cartagena Protocol is regarding safe use, transfer and handling of:
A) Nuclear waste
B) Invasive Alien Species
C) Living Modified Organisms (LMOs)
D) Toxic bye-products and industrial effluents

58. Match the mineral element with its functions/roles and select the correct option from the
given below
a. Boron 1 Splitting of H2O to evolve O2 during photosynthetic event
b. Manganese 2. Needed for synthesis of the hormone auxins
c. Molybdenum 3. The component of nitrogenase enzyme system
d. Zinc 4. Facilitates Pollen germination
e. Iron 5. Component of ferredoxin

Options
A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5 B) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2, e-5
C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-5, e-1 D) a-2, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-4

59. Alternative splicing is a process that enables the number of proteins produced by an
organism to be vastly greater than its number of genes. How is this possible?
A) Codons can code for more than one amino acid
B) Recombinant technology is able to translate different proteins from the same gene.
C) Depending on what sections are treated as introns and exons, different proteins can
be made from the same gene.
D) The anticodon of tRNA has a wobble effect that allows a variety of translations
per gene.

60. The family/families possess(es) accessory vascular bundles in the pith - medullary
bundles, and in the cortex- cortical bundles either in rings or irregularly:
A) Bignoniaceae B) Amaranthaceae
C) Nyctaginaceae D) Both B & C

61. Match the column I with II
Column I Column II
1. Antherozoids are spirally coiled and multi- flagellated a. Lycopsida
2. Spores may be homosporous or heterosporous b. Psilotopsida
3. Gametophytes are exosporic and green c. Sphenopsida
A) 1- a, 2 - b, 3 - c B) 1- b, 2- a, 3- c
C) 1- c, 2 - b, 3 - a D) 1- a, 2- c, 3- b

62. Match the column I (pathogen) with II (Disease)
Column I Column II
1. Alternaria a. Early blight of potato
2. Ustilago b. Loose smut of wheat
3. Phytophthora c. Late blight
4. Peronosporales d. Downy mildews

A) 1- a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d B) 1- d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
C) 1- c, 2 - d, 3 - a , 4 - b D) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d

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63. Who wrote the book "De Materia Medica", which was a catalog of about 600 plants in the
Mediterranean?
A) Dioscorides B) Hippocrates
C) Linnaeus D) Jakob Bohme

64. Symbiotic associations between arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi and plant roots are
widespread in the natural environment and can provide benefits to the host plant. If so
identify the members of this phylum form arbuscular mycorrhizae:
A) Zygomycota B) Ascomycota
C) Basidiomycota D) Glomeromycota

65. Experiment with a fast growing cultivar of tomato in terms of the inheritance of two traits
– dwarfism and flower colour. The experiment successfully demonstrated Mendel’s law
of segregation and for both characters the expected 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive
phenotype was observed. However, the experiment failed to prove the law of independent
assortment for the two characters. One plausible reason for this is
A) That the two loci are linked
B) That the low penetrance of the characters
C) That the two loci are on different chromosomes
D) Due to the incomplete dominance

66. Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacterial flagellum?
A) It consists of a basal body, hook and filament
B) Flagellar motion is initiated at the basal body
C) Flagellar motion is wave-like
D) Flagellar motion is rotatory

67. Double stranded RNA is found in:
A) Picorna viridae B) Rhabdoviridae
C) Reoviridae D) T even phages

68. Sea lettuce is:
A) Ulva B) Padina C) Chara D) Caulerpa

69. Aseptate mycelium is characteristic of:
A) Ascomycetes B) Basidiomycetes
C) Deuteromycetes D) Phycomycetes

70. Clamp connections are formed during cell division in the :
A) Monokaryotic primary mycelium in Basidiomycetes
B) Dikaryotic secondary mycelium in Basidiomycetes
C) Tertiary mycelium of Basidiomycetes
D) Formation of ascogenous hyphae

71. Hartig net is found in:
A) Ecto mycorrhizae
B) Endomycorrhizae
C) Both in Ecto mycorrhizae and ectendomycorrhizae
D) VAM

72. Which of the following mushroom genera is known as oyster mushroom?
A) Boletus B) Agaricus C) Pleurotus D) Clavaria
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73. Cladonia verticillata is a:
A) Crustose lichen B) Foliose lichen
C) Fruticose lichen D) Moss

74. Which bryophyte is known for its capacity to hold water and as a source of peat?
A) Sphagnum B) Marchantia C) Anthoceros D) Porella

75. Pseudo-elaters are present in:
A) Anthoceros B) Andreaea C) Funaria D) Riccia

76. Which of the following is not true about Azolla?
A) It is an aquatic fern
B) It hosts symbiotic nitrogen fixing blue-green alga
C) Its vascular cylinder is siphonostelic
D) It is an aquatic plant belonging to Aroidae

77. The fossil pteridophte Rhynia major belongs to:
A) Psilophytales B) Psilotales
C) Asteroxylales D) Lycopodiales

78. Suppose you find a plant with a thick, short stem less than 45 cm above the soil and a pair
of large leathery leaves about two meters long in the south coast of the walvis Bay in
South Africa. That plant most probably is:
A) Ginkgo biloba, the living fossil
B) Gnetum gnemone, the angiosperm like gymnosperm
C) Welwitschia mirabilis
D) Taxus baccata

79. Leaf of Tamarindus indica is:
A) Paripinnate B) Imparipinnate
C) Bipinnate D) Tripinnate

80. Match the following:
a. Poaceae 1. Gramineae
b. Fabaceae 2. Papilionaceae
c. Lamiaceae 3. Labiatae
d. Brassicaceae 4. Cruciferae
A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 B) a-2,,b-1, c-4, d-3
C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 D) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

81. Carpels 2, syncarpous in an obliquely placed superior ovary indicate
A) Convolvulaceae B) Scrophulariaceae
C) Solanaceae D) Verbenaceae

82. Match the following:
a. Asafoetida 1. Hevea
b. White dammar 2. Dalbergia
c. Rose wood 3. Vateria
d. Para rubber 4. Ferula
A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 B) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 D) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
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83. Reserpine used in the treatment of hypertension is derived from:
A) The fruit of Rauwolfia serpentine B) The Leaves of Rauwolfia serpentina
C) The root of Rauwolfia serpentine D) The flowers of Rauwolfia serpentina

84. W. Harshberger and Richard Evans are famous:
A) Geneticists B) Plant physiologists
C) Phytochemists D) Ethnobotanists

85. During anomalous secondary thickening in the monocot Dracaena cambium develop
from the:
A) Pericycle or innermost cells of the cortex
B) Fusion of fascicular and inter-fascicular cambium
C) Outer cortex
D) Middle cortex

86. The chemical used in the histochemical localization of lipids is:
A) Coomassie Brilliant Blue B) Sudan Black
C) PAS D) Ethidium Bromide

87. Which of the following is a method to overcome incompatibility without gametic fusion?
A) Intra ovarian pollination B) In vitro fertilization
C) Embryo rescue D) Parasexual hybridization

88. Melissopalynology is:
A) Pollen analysis of air
B) Pollen analysis of honey
C) Palynology applied to taxonomy
D) Use of palynology in the study of petroleum resources

89. Which is not a type of embryo sac development?
A) Monosporic B) Bisporic C) Trisporic D) Tetrasporic

90. Water selective channels formed by integral membrane proteins to facilitate
movement of water across the membrane are specifically called
A) Transport proteins B) Membrane proteins
C) Aquaporins D) Aquaproteins

91. Which of the following contain(s) copper?
A) Plastocyanin B) Leghemoglobin
C) Cytochrome oxidase D) A and C

92. Plants absorb nitrogen mainly in the form of:
A) Molecular nitrogen from the atmosphere
B) Aminoacids provided by mycorrhiza
C) Nitrates and nitrites from the soil
D) Ammonia from the soil

93. Light compensation point is:
A) The intensity of light at which the rate of photosynthesis (CO2 uptake)is equal to
the rate of respiration (CO2 release)
B) The intensity of light at which the rate of photosynthesis is optimum
C) The minimum intensity of light which is required for photosynthesis to occur
D) The maximum intensity of light at which photosynthesis can occur
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94. Which of the following is not a C4 plant?
A) Sugar cane B) Maize C) Wheat D) Amaranthus

95. Glycolytic part of respiration occurs in the
A) Cytosol B) Mitochondria C) Peroxisomes D) Glyoxisomes

96. According to their longevity and ability to tolerate desiccation and freezing seeds are
classified as orthodox and unorthodox. Short-lived seeds unable to withstand desiccation
and freezing without losing viability are called
A) Orthodox seeds B) Unorthodox seeds
C) Recalcitrant seeds D) Both B and C

97. Cell elongation, apical dominance, root initiation and induction of parthenocarpy are
effects of:
A) Auxins B) Gibberellins
C) Cytokinins D) Ethylene

98. Calcium concentrations in plant cells is regulated by:
A) Calmodulin B) Caldesmon
C) Calsequestrin D) Calcineurin

99. Which of the following is an important signaling agent in plant defense responses?
A) Brassinosteroids B) Cytokinins
C) Jasmonic acid D) Ethylene

100. In water stressed plants which of the following amino acids accumulate to maintain
osmotic relation of the cells?
A) Leucine B) Glycine C) Proline D) Methionine

101. Henderson and Hasselbalch equation concerns:
A) Ionization of weak acids B) Ionization of strong acids
C) Mass flow of solutes D) Mass flow of solutions

102. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?
A) Ribose B) Maltose C) Glucose D) Sucrose

103. The intense blue colour of the product of Ninhydrin Reaction depends on the presence of:
A) Amino acids having alpha amino groups
B) Amino acids having sulphur
C) Amino acids having more than one carboxyl groups
D) Amino acids having more than one amino groups

104. Omega-3 fatty acids are:
A) Saturated fatty acids present in fish and walnut
B) Unsaturated fatty acids present in animal meat
C) Poly unsaturated fatty acids abundantly present in leafy vegetable
D) Poly unsaturated fatty acids present in fish and walnut

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105. Which law of thermodynamics is concerned with Entropy?
A) First law of thermodynamics
B) Second law of thermodynamics
C) Both first and Second laws of thermodynamics
D) Neither the first nor the Second law of thermodynamics

106. Cerenkov radiation appears as a:
A) Blue underwater radiation around the reactor core
B) Faint red underwater radiation around the reactor core
C) Faint green underwater radiation around the reactor core
D) None of the above

107. In a certain group of computer personnel, 65% have insufficient knowledge of hardware,
45% have inadequate idea of software and 70% are in either one or both of two
categories. What is the probability of people who know software among those who have
sufficient knowledge of hardware?
A) 6/7 B) 6/11 C) 13/14 D) 9/13

108. A dicentric bridge and an acentric fragment may appear during first anaphase of meiosis
in a cell with :
A) Paracentric inversion B) Pericentric inversion
C) Deletion D) Translocation

109. G proteins involved in signal transduction are active
A) When it contains a bound GDP
B) When it contains a bound GTP
C) Always
D) When an external signal molecule comes in contact with the plasma membrane

110. Match the following:
a. Lytic cascade 1. Bacteria
b. Operon 2. Eukaryotes
c. Chromatin remodelling 3. Phages
A) a-1, b- 2, c- 3 B) a- 3, b-1, c-2
C) a-2, b- 3, c-1 D) a-3, b-2, c-1

111. Which is an example of cytoplasmic inheritance?
A) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa B) Comb pattern in poultry
C) Iojap striping in maize D) Coat colour in mice

112. Which of the following enables us to compare the variability of two or more sets of data?
A) Variance B) Standard Deviation
C) Coefficient of variation D) Mean deviation about mean

113. A three point test cross involving genes a, b and c in the same sequence yielded a genetic
map a 10 b 20 c . In progeny of 2000 how many can be expected
to be of the two double crossover types?
A) 20 B) 40 C) 80 D) 200

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114. A population of 1000 at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has 90 homozygous recessive
individuals with respect to a Mendelian diallelic locus ‘a’. Calculate the number of
homozygous dominant (AA) and heterozygous (Aa) members in the above population.
A) AA = 490 and Aa = 420 B) AA = 500 and Aa = 410
C) AA = 510 and Aa = 440 D) AA = 420 and Aa = 490

115. India has two of the 18 recognized biodiversity hotspots in the world. They are:
A) Western Himalayas and Western Ghats
B) Eastern Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
C) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats
D) Eastern and western Himalayas

116. The major aim of Montreal protocol is to:
A) Protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out ozone depleting substances
B) To reduce global warming by limiting the emission of green house gases
C) To prevent marine pollution
D) To protect global biodiversity

117. Which of the following is not a DNA marker?
A) RFLP B) ISSR C) SNPs D) TBP

118. Which of the following is a data bank exclusively for proteins?
A) EMBL B) GEN BANK C) DDBJ D) PDB

119. Find the statement which is not true:
A) Vertical resistance is pathotype-specific and determined by major genes
B) Horizontal resistance is pathotype-nonspecific and polygenic
C) Vertical resistance is highly efficient against specific races
D) Horizontal resistance is equally efficient against all races

120. Match the following:
a. Quick wilt of pepper 1. Oidium heveae
b. Coffee rust 2. Phytophthora capsici
c. Powdery mildew of rubber 3. Cephaleuros parasiticus
d. Red rust of tea 4. Hemileia vastatrix

A) a- 2, b-4, c-1, d-3 B) a- 1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 D) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

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