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RRB NTPC UG 2025 CBT 1 Question Paper 02 Sep (in English)

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Page 1

FOR RRB NTPC UG EXAM PREPARATION

RRB NTPC UG 2025
Question Paper · CBT 1
(in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB NTPC UG 2025 Question Paper CBT 1 (in English) 02 Sep

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

Page 2

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Test Date 02/09/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following sectors was the primary focus of India's First Five-Year Plan
(1951–56)?
Ans 1. Industry and Infrastructure

2. Defence and Security

3. Services and Education

4. Agriculture and Irrigation
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Q.2 Which year was the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana launched?
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Ans 1. 2014
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2. 2013
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3. 2016 a
4. 2015

Q.3 Which Indian university showcased India's first fully automated vegetable sapling
transplanter at the Ente Keralam exhibition, held in May 2025 at Marine Drive, Kochi, as
part of the Kerala government's fourth-anniversary celebrations?
Ans 1. Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru

2. Cochin University of Science and Technology (Cusat)
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3. Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT-M)
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m.co 4. Kerala Agricultural University

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Q.4 Which of the following local winds is known to bring rain to Tamil Nadu during winter?

g l Ans 1. Northeast monsoon a
a 2. Jet stream

3. Southwest monsoon

4. Nor'wester

Q.5 Which fault in the Peninsular Plateau is known for recurrent seismic activity?
Ans 1. Vindhya Fault

2. Malda Fault
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3. Bhima Fault
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4. Narmada Fault
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Page 3

Q.6 At the 2025 International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF) World Table Tennis
Championships Finals held in Doha, who emerged as the men's singles champion?
Ans 1. Ma Long

2. Wang Chuqin

3. Fan Zhendong

4. Lin Gaoyuan

Q.7 Which reform movement in Kerala focused on the upliftment of the backward castes
through education and social equality?
Ans 1. Kayastha Sabha

2. Singh Sabha

3. Arya Samaj

4. SNDP Sabha

Q.8 Which of the following minerals is essential for oxygen transport in the blood?
Ans 1. Calcium

2. Zinc

3. Iron

4. Magnesium

Q.9 Which authority can dissolve the Council of Ministers at the state level?
Ans 1. Prime Minister

2. President

3. High Court

4. Governor

Q.10 Who among the following laid the foundation stone of Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran
Akademi, commonly called IGRUA, in 1985?
Ans 1. Rajiv Gandhi

2. Gulzari Lal Nanda

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Morarji Desai

Q.11 Which of the following government initiatives was launched in 1973 to conserve a key
apex predator and its ecosystem in India?
Ans 1. Project Rhino

2. Project Elephant

3. Project Tiger

4. Project Asiatic Lion

Q.12 The energy produced by using the heat from the Earth’s interior is called:
Ans 1. Biomass energy

2. Tidal energy

3. Geothermal energy

4. Solar energy

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Q.13 Which of the following metals is used as a catalyst in the Haber process for ammonia
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synthesis?

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Ans 1. Platinum
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3. Copper ag l
4. Iron

Q.14 Which of the following Articles deals with the rights of citizenship at the
commencement of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 7

2. Article 10

3. Article 11
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4. Article 5

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Q.15
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On which date did Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the WAVES 2025,
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India’s first-of-its-kind World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit, held at Mumbai?

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Ans 1. 20 April 2025

2. 1 May 2025

3. 1 April 2025

4. 4 May 2025

Q.16 In April 2025, the Supreme Court reinterpreted which Article of the Constitution to direct
amendment in KYC digital norms to ensure access for 'persons with disabilities'?
Ans 1. Article 14

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2. Article 21

3. Article 25

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4. Article 30

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Q.17
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Which of the following Ministries is responsible for granting Indian citizenship by
naturalisation?
Ans 1. Ministry of Law and Justice

2. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

3. Ministry of External Affairs

4. Ministry of Home Affairs

Q.18 Who was appointed as the Director General of Defence Estates (DGDE) in June 2025?
m
Ans
m1. Shailendra Nath Gupta
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m .co 2. Vikram Singh Rathore
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g l a 4. Rajesh Kumar Singh
a
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Pakistan?
Ans 1. Indus Waters Treaty

2. Tashkent Agreement

3. Simla Agreement

4. Lahore Treaty

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Page 5

Q.20 What is the name of the first indigenously designed and built Anti-Submarine Warfare
Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) inducted into the Indian Navy in May 2025?
Ans 1. INS Tushil

2. INS Arighaat

3. INS Arnala

4. INS Garuda

Q.21 Rapid industrialisation was a hallmark of India's early planning efforts. Which Five-Year
Plan laid the foundation for India's public sector steel plants?
Ans 1. First Plan

2. Fifth Plan

3. Fourth Plan

4. Second Plan

Q.22 Which of the following is NOT a role of the President of India?
Ans 1. Passing bills into laws

2. Appointing the Prime Minister

3. Summoning and dissolving the Parliament

4. Conducting elections

Q.23 Which of the following is the genome-edited rice varieties launched by India in 2025?
Ans 1. Basmati Gold

2. Super Rice 21

3. DRR Rice 100

4. Shakti Rice

Q.24 The 2025 edition of the Sheila Bharat Ram Theatre Festival took place at which of the
following locations?
Ans 1. Kamani Auditorium, Delhi

2. India Habitat Centre, Delhi

3. National School of Drama, Delhi

4. Shri Ram Centre of Performing Arts, Delhi

Q.25 What is the correct way to copy a file or folder using the Drag and Drop method?
Ans 1. Select the file → Press Ctrl + C → Drop it into the Recycle Bin

2. Select the file in the right pane → Drag it to a folder in the left pane → Drop it there

3. Right-click the file → Drag it to the desktop → Press Delete

4. Double-click the file → Drag it back into the same folder

Q.26 Which institute of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) developed India’s first
genome-edited rice variety DRR Rice 100 (Kamla)?
Ans 1. ICAR-Indian Institute of Rice Research, Hyderabad

2. ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi

3. ICAR-Central Institute of Agricultural Engineering, Bhopal

4. ICAR-National Rice Research Institute (NRRI), Cuttack

Q.27 Which of the following is the conjugate base of HCl?
Ans 1. OH⁻

2. H₃O⁺

3. Cl⁻

4. Cl⁺
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Q.28 Land revenue systems under British rule varied regionally. Which land revenue system
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was primarily followed in Bombay and Madras Presidencies?

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Ans 1. Ryotwari
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3. Jagirdari ag l
4. Zamindari

Q.29 Who was the first Portuguese governor in India, sent in 1505 to establish naval
supremacy?
Ans 1. Albuquerque

2. Nino-da-Cunha

3. De Souza
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4. De Almeida

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Q.30
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When was the Gurjara Pratihara dynasty founded by Nagabhatta I in the region of
l as
Malwa?

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Ans 1. 6th century

2. 10th century

3. 12th century

4. 8th century

Q.31 How can you permanently delete a file in MS Windows so that it DOES NOT go to the
Recycle Bin?
Ans 1. Right-click on the file and press 'Shift + Delete'
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2. Right-click on the file and Press Ctrl + D

3. Drag the file to the Recycle Bin
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4. Right-click on the file and select 'Delete'
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Q.32 ag
Who was honoured with the Humanitarian Award at the 72nd Miss World Festival, held
in May 2025, for philanthropic work during the Covid pandemic?
Ans 1. Akshay Kumar

2. Sonu Sood

3. Amitabh Bachchan

4. Shah Rukh Khan

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Q.33 Who assumed charge as the 18th Commander-in-Chief of the Andaman & Nicobar
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Command (CINCAN) on 1 June 2025?
Ans

m .co 1. Lt General Rajesh Mehta
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g l a 3. Lt General Anil Chatterjee a
a 4. Lt General Dinesh Singh Rana

Q.34 Which of the following classical theatre forms is associated with Karnataka and
features dance-drama with colourful costumes?
Ans 1. Bhavai

2. Jatra

3. Yakshagana

4. Kathakali
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Page 7

Q.35 What is the name of the herbal cream developed by CSIR-CIMAP for treating psoriasis
released in May 2025?
Ans 1. Herbaloid

2. DermaHerb

3. PsoriaCIM

4. SkinCure

Q.36 Which of the following was the biggest armed resistance to colonialism in the 19th
century in India?
Ans 1. Sepoy Mutiny

2. First Anglo-Maratha War

3. Quit India Movement

4. Battle of Buxar

Q.37 Among which of the following powers did the ‘Tripartite Struggle’ take place during the
8th and 9th centuries?
Ans 1. Cholas, Chalukyas and Satavahanas

2. Pandyas, Pallavas and Cholas

3. Rashtrakutas, Cholas and Vardhanas

4. Palas, Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas

Q.38 In 2025, India assumed the chairmanship of which international body focused on
productivity and sustainability during a meeting held in Jakarta?
Ans 1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) for the 2025–26 term

2. ASEAN Council for Economic Growth (ACEG) for a two-year term

3. Asian Productivity Organisation (APO) for the 2025–26 term

4. South Asian Association for Productivity (SAAP) till the 2026 term

Q.39 Which gas was least abundant in the early atmosphere?
Ans 1. Water vapour

2. Free oxygen

3. Carbon dioxide

4. Nitrogen

Q.40 What was the official mascot of the 2025 National Games?
Ans 1. Tejaswini

2. Mauli

3. Gajasimha

4. Shikhar

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 A hollow spherical shell is made of a metal of density 40 g/cm3. Its internal and external
radii are 1 cm and 4 cm, respectively. What is the mass (in kg) of the shell?

Ans 1. 11.65

2. 12.35

3. 7.56

4. 10.56

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Q.2 An amount of ₹936 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 3. The
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difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:

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Ans 1. 235
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3. 151 ag l
4. 208

Q.3

Ans 1. 33.75

2. 37.75
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3. 39.75
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4. 36.75

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Q.4
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The distance between two electric poles of length 25 metres and 36 metres is x metres.
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If the two angles of elevation of their respective top from the bottom of the other are
complementary to each other, then the value of x (in metres) is:
Ans 1. 28

2. 30

3. 26

4. 32

Q.5 A supplier offers a trade discount of 20% on a product priced at ₹5,000. Additionally,
there is a scheme discount of 10% on the already discounted price. What is the final
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price of the product after both discounts?
Ans 1. ₹3,800

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2. ₹4,000

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3. ₹4,500

4. ₹3,600 ag
Q.6 If the third proportional of 9 and 30 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 101

2. 102

3. 99

4. 100
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Q.7 Zeeshan travels 252 km at 63 km/hr, the next 150 km at 30 km/hr and the next 680 km at
68 km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr, rounded off to two decimal places) for

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the whole journey?

g l a
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a 2. 62.09

3. 54.95

4. 56.95

Q.8 What is the difference between a single discount of 48% on ₹1,450 and two successive
discounts of 10% and 40% on the same amount?
Ans 1. ₹28

2. ₹29

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3. ₹32

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4. ₹31

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Page 9

Q.9
.

Ans 1. 124x − 107

2. 124x + 107

3. −124x − 107

4. −124x + 107

Q.10 Shahid and Mira have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Shahid is
driving at 42 km/hr while Mira is driving at 98 km/hr. Find the time taken by Mira to
reach Kanpur if Shahid takes 14 hours.
Ans 1. 5 hours

2. 2 hours

3. 6 hours

4. 12 hours

Q.11 A sum of ₹400 amounts to ₹529 in 2 years at a certain rate of interest per annum,
compounded annually. The rate of interest per annum is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 A trader claims to sell flour at a profit of 58%, but also dishonestly uses a weight which
is 8% less than what is mentioned on it. Find the total percentage of profit earned by
the trader. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 The product of two positive numbers is 80. If the first number is five times of the
second number, then the sum of the two numbers is:
Ans 1. 29

2. 24

3. 33

4. 27

Q.14 The LCM of the numbers 15.4 and 0.006 is:
Ans 1. 4.62

2. 46.2

3. 462

4. 0.462

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) if a sum of ₹400 is borrowed for 3.5 years at 16% per
annum rate of interest.
Ans 1. 324

2. 274

3. 224

4. 204

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Q.16 Find the value of: [480 ÷ {12 + 2 × ( 4 − 9 )}].
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Ans 1. 241

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2. 240

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3. 242

4. 243

Q.17 3 years ago, the age of a father was 18 years more than twice his son's age. After how
many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 17

2. 11

3. 13

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4. 15
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Q.18 .co
Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-4) × 6
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Ans 1. -39
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2. -38

3. -42

4. -41

Q.19 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 19 days and B can do the same
job in 11 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 3 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

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e
2.

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3. ag
4.

Q.20 The current population of a town is 12,800. It increases by 25% and 35% in two
successive years but decreases by 5% in the third year. What is the population of the
town at the end of the third year?
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Ans 1. 20,520
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2. 20,525

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s e
3. 20,515

g l a
g l a 4. 20,517
a
a Q.21 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 11 and 330, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 66, find the other one.
Ans 1. 44

2. 55

3. 66

4. 121

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s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
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Page 11

Q.22

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.23 One side of a right-angled triangle is twice the other and the hypotenuse is 15 cm. Find
the area (in cm2) of the triangle.
Ans 1. 70

2. 60

3. 45

4. 80

Q.24

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg,
56 kg, 76 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans 1. 52.8

2. 50.8

3. 53.8

4. 51.8

Q.26 M and N started a business. M invested ₹50,000 more than N for 3 months, while N
invested for 7 months. M's share is ₹328 more than that of N, out of a total profit of
₹4,920. Find the capital contributed by M.
Ans 1. ₹1,20,000

2. ₹1,00,000

3. ₹80,000

4. ₹60,000

Q.27 50 glass bottles were purchased for ₹50, and 28 glass bottles broke in transit. The
trader sold the remaining glass bottles at ₹5.80 each. Find his profit.
Ans 1. ₹68.50

2. ₹76.60

3. ₹75.30

4. ₹77.60

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Q.28 The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 42. In the next 10 matches, the
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batsman scored an average of 13 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to

. two decimals) in all the 33 matches.
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Ans 1. 35.21

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2. 34.21

3. 33.21
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4. 32.21

Q.29

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Ans
1.
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2.

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ag
3.

4.

Q.30 The difference between an interior angle and exterior angle of a regular polygon is 120°.
Find the number of sides of the polygon.
Ans 1. 15

2. 12
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3. 14

4. 10
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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
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Q.1 FKPX is related to IPSC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, REBR is related to UJEW. To which of the following options is ATKG related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. DFRT

2. DYLN

3. DLNY

4. DYNL
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Q.2 Navneet starts from Point Y and drives 10 km towards west. He then takes a right turn,
drives 18 km. He then turns right and drives 10 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 15
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km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
l as
l as should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only
unless specified)
ag
ag Ans 1. 3 km towards south

2. 10 km towards north

3. 4 km towards east

4. 6 km towards west

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘CLAM’ is coded as ‘1587’ and ‘LOAM’ is coded as ‘4875’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in that language?
Ans 1. 4
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2. 5

s e
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3. 7

s l
4. 8

g la ag
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Page 13

Q.4 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. HKO

2. DGK

3. ORW

4. BEI

Q.5 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

12 − 2 + 49 × 7 ÷ 5 = ?
Ans 1. 22

2. 27

3. 12

4. 17

Q.6 Seven boxes U, V, W, X, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only three boxes are kept below X. Only two boxes are kept between X and W. Only E is
kept above V. H is kept at some place below G and at some place above U.
Which box is kept at second position from the bottom?
Ans 1. X

2. G

3. U

4. W

Q.7 FRUZ is related to JUYC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, VDKL is related to ZGOO. To which of the given options is HMWU related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. LPAX

2. XPLA

3. LPXA

4. XAPL

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

JUO UFZ FQK QBV ?
Ans 1. BGM

2. BMG

3. BYG

4. BGY

Q.9 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

11 B 3 C 20 D 93 A 3 = ?
Ans 1. 2

2. 9

3. 15

4. 22

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Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 510 511 519 546 610 ?

s e m
m a
se
Ans 1. 735

g l
2. 695

3. 755
a
4. 715

Q.11 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statement(s).
Statements:
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All candles are waxes.
No candle is a tubelight.
m
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Conclusions:

m
(I) Some tubelights are waxes.
s e
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(II) All waxes are tubelights.
s l a
Ans
l a
1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
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ag
2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.12 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. F sits to the
immediate right of G. B sits third to the left of G. A is the immediate neighbour of D and
G. C sits second to the left of B. How many people sit between E and D when counted
from the left of D?
Ans 1. One
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2. Four
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3. Two
s e
4. Three
g la
Q.13
a
This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 984 673 543 126 341 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position(s) of how many
numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. 4
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2. 1

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3. 3

l as
l as 4. 2

ag
ag Q.14 Kishori ranked 15th from the bottom and 26th from the top in her class. How many
students are there in her class?
Ans 1. 40

2. 38

3. 39

4. 37

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s em l a
g la ag
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Page 15

Q.15 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

JCV 13, MFY 25, PIB 49, SLE 97, VOH 193, ?
Ans 1. YRK 385

2. URK 385

3. YOK 385

4. YRK 383

Q.16 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. No box is kept above F. Only three boxes are kept between F and E.
Only one box is kept between G and C. C is kept immediately above E. Only four boxes
are kept between G and A. B is kept at some place above D. How many boxes are kept
above E?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. One

4. Three

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 , 16 , 30 , 49 , 73 , ?
Ans 1. 105

2. 104

3. 103

4. 102

Q.18 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. HL-OF

2. CG-JB

3. KO-RI

4. EI-LC

Q.19 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. AE−DH

2. KO−NR

3. HL−JQ

4. LP−OS

Q.20 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 458 294 680 183 297 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position of how many numbers
will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. None

2. Four

3. Two

4. One
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Q.21 In a certain code language, ‘MALT’ is coded as ‘1264’ and ‘PALM’ is coded as ‘4521’.
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What is the code for ‘P’ in that language?

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Ans 1. 4
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3. 5 ag l
4. 1

Q.22 JFCK is related to HDAI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MIFN is related to KGDL. To which of the given options is PLIQ related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. JNOG

2. JNGO
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3. NJOG
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4. NJGO

e m l as
Q.23
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If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will

l a
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
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6 B 7 D 84 A 3 C 15 = ?
Ans 1. 32

2. 42

3. 36

4. 29

Q.24 In a certain code language,
A $ B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
m
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
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and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
s e
How is E related to N if ‘E @ F ÷ G + M $ N’?
g la
Ans 1. Mother's mother a
2. Mother's father

3. Mother's brother

4. Mother's sister

Q.25 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

m
26 40 55 71 ? 106

m .co
Ans 1. 88

m .co 2. 98

s e m
s e 3. 104

g l a
g l a 4. 92
a
a Q.26 Seven people, F, G, H, I, J, K and R, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. I sits third to the left of J. R sits second to the left of G. Only J sits between
H and R. F is not an immediate neighbour of I. How many people sit between K and R
when counted from the right of K?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Two

4. Three
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.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Page 17

Q.27 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

19, 33
17, 29
Ans 1. 26, 43

2. 23, 40

3. 24, 43

4. 22, 38

Q.28 Each of the digits in the number 8237519 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 10

3. 8

4. 12

Q.29 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some files are books.
All books are keys.

Conclusions:
(I) Some files are keys.
(II) All keys are books.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.30 Virat starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards South. He then takes a right turn,
drives 9 km, turns left and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 19 km towards North

2. 19 km towards South

3. 15 km towards East

4. 15 km towards South

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 02/09/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a part of chemical weathering?
Ans 1. Frost Action

2. Hydration

3. Oxidation

4. Carbonation

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Q.2 In which of the following years was the Aajeevika - Deendayal Antyodaya Yojna-
National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) launched by the Ministry of Rural
Development (MoRD), Government of India?
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Ans 1. 2011
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2. 2016
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3. 2007

4. 2014

Q.3 What was the ultimate promise made by Bhagirath Majhi to the Santhals if they
followed his teachings?
Ans 1. Restoration of tribal kingdoms

2. Access to modern education and jobs
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3. Complete independence from British rule
m
m.co 4. Land restoration and divine protection

s e m
s e g l a
a
Q.4 What is the purpose of the High Endurance Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (HEAUV)

g l developed by DRDO’s Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL)?
a
a Ans 1. Underwater surveillance

2. Surface-to-air missile deployment

3. Submarine crew training

4. Deep-sea oil exploration

Q.5 Colonial economic policies created a skewed distribution of income and wealth in
Indian society. Which of the following is a key indicator of income inequality in colonial
India?

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Ans 1. Unequal land ownership patterns

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2. High literacy rate among workers

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3. Uniform wages across sectors

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4. Equitable distribution of irrigation
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Q.6 What is the total number of inhabited islands in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, as of
May 2025?
Ans 1. Less than 14

2. 22

3. 18

4. More than 30

Q.7 Which of the following dynasties was NOT involved in the struggle for the control of the
prosperous city of Kannauj in northern India?
Ans 1. Pratihara

2. Pallava

3. Pala

4. Rashtrakuta

Q.8 Optical fibres work on the principle of ____________.
Ans 1. reflection only

2. refraction only

3. total internal reflection

4. total internal refraction

Q.9 What is the main function of sclerenchyma, a plant tissue composed of dead cells with
extremely thick lignified walls?
Ans 1. To help hold the flower parts together in a plant

2. To provide mechanical support and strength to the plant

3. To store food and other materials such as resins, mucilage and latex in the plant

4. To transport water, nutrients and sugars throughout the plant

Q.10 Where was the headquarters of the Home Rule League founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak
located?
Ans 1. Ajmer

2. Patna

3. Surat

4. Pune

Q.11 Which of the following terms describe a change in the DNA sequence resulting in
changes in the genotype and the phenotype of an organism?
Ans 1. Segregation

2. Mutation

3. Dominance

4. Transcription

Q.12 Who is the author of the book ‘The History and Stars of the World’s Greatest Sporting
Event: From Athens 1896 to Paris 2024’, launched at New Delhi World Book Fair, 2025?
Ans 1. Amit Bose

2. Vijayan Bala

3. Digvijay Singh Deo

4. Abhinav Bindra

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Q.13 The foreign exchange crisis forced India to seek external support. Which institution
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provided India a loan during the 1991 crisis?

. e m
m as
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Ans 1. ADB

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2. World Bank

3. WTO
a
4. IMF

Q.14 In 2025, which State Government launched the 'RISE' app for digital monitoring of child
vaccinations, enhancing training for health workers to improve immunisation
coverage?
Ans 1. Uttarakhand

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2. Bihar

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3. Uttar Pradesh

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4. Jharkhand

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Q.15
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Which of the following is the primary objective of the Right to Information (RTI) Act,
ag
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2005?
Ans 1. To promote transparency and accountability in government functioning

2. To regulate foreign investment in India

3. To control corruption in the judiciary

4. To ensure reservations for backwards classes

Q.16 Rohilla chief, Najib-ud-Daula, played a key role in the ____.

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Ans 1. Third Battle of Panipat

2. Mysore wars

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3. Anglo-Maratha wars
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4. Decline of Bengal
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Q.17
a
The partition of Bengal officially came into force in the year _______.
Ans 1. 1905

2. 1948

3. 1919

4. 1912

Q.18 Who was honoured with the Rammohan Mission Purashkar 2025 for emphasising
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ISRO's role in national security?
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Ans 1. G Madhavan Nair

m s e
a
2. V Narayanan

s e g l
g l a 3. K Sivan
a
a 4. S Somanath

Q.19 Vijender Gupta, who became the Speaker of the Delhi Assembly in 2025, is the MLA
from which of the following constituencies?
Ans 1. Karol Bagh

2. Patparganj

3. Greater Kailash

4. Rohini

m .
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s em l a
g la ag
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Page 21

Q.20 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Tenth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. It deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It defines the distribution of powers between the Union and States.

3. It contains provisions regarding Official Languages.

4. It provides for disqualification of members on grounds of defection.

Q.21 Which statement best describes a key feature of a Public-Private Partnership (PPP)?
Ans 1. Government and private entities share responsibilities and risks efficiently.

2. The public partner fully finances a project, while the private partner has no risk.

3. PPPs are only used for purely social (non-commercial) projects.

4. Only public sector entities can participate in PPPs.

Q.22 Where was the 8th Edition of the Indian Ocean Conference in February 2025 held?
Ans 1. Muscat, Oman

2. Cairo, Egypt

3. Manila, Philippines

4. Perth, Australia

Q.23 Which type of land is most suitable for agriculture in India?
Ans 1. Mountainous land

2. Rocky and arid land

3. Forest land

4. Level alluvial land

Q.24 What is the primary function of the Taskbar in Windows7?
Ans 1. To shut down the computer

2. To install new software

3. To display the system BIOS

4. To show open programs and allow quick access to them

Q.25 In May 2025, which Indian Chief Minister announced naming a medical college after
Ahilyabai Holkar in 2025?
Ans 1. Yogi Adityanath

2. Uddhav Thackeray

3. Bhupesh Baghel

4. Ashok Gehlot

Q.26 Which Windows feature helps to quickly locate a specific file in a large folder?
Ans 1. Search box in File Explorer

2. Right-click → Delete

3. Task Manager

4. Control Panel

Q.27 Who among the following is the appointing authority of District Judges in India?
Ans 1. Prime Minister

2. President of India

3. Governor of the state

4. Chief Justice of India

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Q.28 Which major initiative was highlighted by the New Delhi government to mark its first
m
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100 days in office, as detailed in the report titled 'Kaam Karne Wali Sarkar: 100 Din Seva

. Ke'?
e m
m as
se
Ans 1. Launch of a new metro line

g l
2. Introduction of a universal basic income

3. Inauguration of a new legislative building
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4. Presentation of a report card highlighting achievements

Q.29 Which of the following is NOT a mode of acquiring Indian citizenship under the
Citizenship Act, 1955?
Ans 1. By descent

2. By adoption
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3. By registration
m
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4. By birth

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Q.30
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Which of the following languages was granted classical status by the Government of

l a
India in 2005, following Tamil?
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Ans
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1. Telugu

2. Kannada

3. Sanskrit

4. Malayalam

Q.31 Which of the following best reflects Judicial Activism?
Ans 1. Declaring elections null and void

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2. Passive interpretation of laws

3. Voluntary interference by the judiciary in public interest

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4. Only enforcing existing laws strictly

las
Q.32
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Which of the following organisations inaugurated the Quantum Technology Research
Centre (QTRC) at Metcalfe House, Delhi, in May 2025?
Ans 1. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

2. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

3. Indian Institute of Science (IISc)

4. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)

Q.33 The Tendulkar Committee revised India's methodology for measuring poverty. As per
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the Tendulkar Committee, which criterion is considered to measure poverty?
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Ans 1. Calorie intake

m s e
a
2. Employment status

s e g l
g l a 3. Consumption expenditure
a
a 4. Income

Q.34 Biogas plants are most commonly used in which sector in rural India?
Ans 1. Industrial use

2. Household cooking and lighting

3. Transportation

4. Iron smelting

m .
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s em l a
g la ag
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Q.35 Which state notified the Tsarap Chu Conservation Reserve under the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972 to protect high-altitude biodiversity in 2025?
Ans 1. Sikkim for Himalayan red panda conservation purposes

2. Himachal Pradesh to secure snow leopard habitats

3. Uttarakhand to protect alpine medicinal plant species

4. Arunachal Pradesh to conserve high-altitude wetlands

Q.36 Which movie received the Best Picture honour at the 97th Academy Awards in 2025?
Ans 1. Anora

2. The Brutalist

3. Conclave

4. Dune: Part Two

Q.37 The Vadhavan Port is under development all-weather Greenfield deep draft major port
in ____________.
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Maharashtra

3. Gujarat

4. Kerala

Q.38 Which river originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows
westward?
Ans 1. Son

2. Narmada

3. Tapi

4. Godavari

Q.39 Gitanjali, a famous collection of poems, was originally written in which of the following
languages?
Ans 1. English

2. Urdu

3. Hindi

4. Bengali

Q.40 Which of the following organisations launched the Fiscal Health Index for India in
2025?
Ans 1. Ministry of Finance

2. Finance Commission

3. NITI Aayog

4. Reserve Bank of India

Section : Mathematics

Q.1 The LCM of the numbers 10.8 and 0.06 is:
Ans 1. 10.8

2. 108

3. 1.08

4. 0.108

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Q.2
m
. co s e m
m a
se Ans 1. −93x − 162
ag l
2. 93x − 162

3. 93x + 162

4. −93x + 162

Q.3 A company offers a scheme discount of 'buy 5 get 3 free' offer on shirts. Find the
discount percentage.
Ans 1. 36.3%
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2. 39.3%
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3. 30%

m .co s em
4. 37.5%
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.4 The average weight of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg,
75 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans 1. 50.2 kg

2. 53.2 kg

3. 52.2 kg

4. 51.2 kg

Q.5 Kushal and Brijesh together invested ₹75,100 in a business. At the end of the year, out

m
of a total profit of ₹16,000, Brijesh's share was ₹4,400. What was the difference between

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their investments?
Ans 1. ₹34,043
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2. ₹35,768
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3. ₹34,385
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4. ₹33,795

Q.6 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 72°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 56°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans 1. 69°

2. 65°

3. 71°
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4. 74°
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Q.7 .co
The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 240. The greater of the two numbers
m s e m
s e is:

g l a
g l a Ans 1. 35
a
a 2. 23

3. 19

4. 16

Q.8

m .
Ans 1. ₹14,282

2. ₹14,280
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3. ₹14,273
s em l a
4. ₹14,272
g la ag
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Q.9 Find the mean proportional between 26 and 104.
Ans 1. 53

2. 52

3. 51

4. 49

Q.10 Mahita is painting the four walls of her study room, which is shaped like a cube with a
side length of 18.5 feet. What is the total area she needs to paint (in square feet)?
Ans 1. 1385

2. 1358

3. 1396

4. 1369

Q.11 The income of Raman is ₹44,200. He saves 31% of his income. If his income increases
by 22% and expenditure increases by 50%, then his savings will:
Ans 1. increase by ₹5,521

2. decrease by ₹5,525

3. increase by ₹5,530

4. decrease by ₹5,524

Q.12 If the 6-digit number N46M66 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can
give a possible correct relation between M and N?
Ans 1. M - N = 1

2. M = N

3. M + N = -2

4. M - N = 2

Q.13 Train A leaves station M at 6:30 AM and reaches station N at 3:30 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 8:30 AM and reaches station M at 1:30 PM on the same day.
Find the time when trains A and B meet.
Ans 1. 11:30 AM

2. 11:00 AM

3. 10:50 AM

4. 12:00 PM

Q.14 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 50% above its cost price and offers a 30%
discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹86, then what is the list price (in ₹) of
the fan?
Ans 1. 2,444

2. 2,580

3. 2,825

4. 2,386

Q.15 The average weight of Ketan, Tushar and Salil is 46 kg. If the average weight of Ketan
and Tushar is 36 kg and that of Tushar and Salil is 44 kg, then the weight of Tushar (in
kg) is:
Ans 1. 37

2. 22

3. 42

4. 32

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Q.16
m
. co s e m
m a
se l
Ans 1. 1.78

2. 11.65
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3. 14.8

4. 3.07

Q.17 A bus travelling at 99 km/hr completes a journey in 20 hours. What should its speed be
to cover the same distance in 12 hours?
Ans 1. 165 km/hr

2. 159 km/hr
m
3. 168 km/hr
m .co
4. 156 km/hr

m .co s em
s e l a
Q.18
a
8 years ago, the age of a father was 21 years more than twice his son's age. After how
l ag
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many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
Ans 1. 13

2. 11

3. 8

4. 17

Q.19

m
Ans 1. 19.75

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2. 25.75
s e
3. 22.75
g la
4. 23.75 a
Q.20 The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 3 and 276 respectively. If one of the
numbers is 69, find the other one.
Ans 1. 12

2. 35

3. 100

4. 110
m
m .co
.co m
Q.21 What smallest number should be added to 15335 so that the sum is completely divisible

m
by 79?
s e
s e
Ans 1. 71
g l a
g l a 2. 68 a
a 3. 70

4. 65

Q.22 If the shape of a water pipe is a rectangle with dimensions 5 m and 3 m and if water
runs out of it at the speed of 36 km/hr, then what is the volume (in m3) of the water that
passed through the pipe in 12 minutes?
Ans 1. 216000

2. 108000
m .
3. 5400
.co s e m
4. 54000
s em l a
g la ag
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Page 27

Q.23 Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 40 minutes and 14 minutes, respectively.
There is a pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are
opened simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 20 minutes. How long will
the pipe at the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other
pipe is then open?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 I bought two toy guns for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 9% and the second at a
gain of 16%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of
the first toy gun.
Ans 1. 788

2. 792

3. 768

4. 752

Q.25 Successive discounts of 5% and 40% are equivalent to a single discount of:
Ans 1. 41%

2. 45%

3. 43%

4. 42%

Q.26 A can lay railway track between two given stations in 20 days and B can do the same
job in 16 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 3 days only. Then, C alone can do
the job in
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.27 Sapna invested ₹22,500 on simple interest, partly at 7% per annum and partly at 5% per
annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 3 years, then find
the sum invested at 7% per annum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 9,373

2. 9,374

3. 9,376

4. 9,375

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Q.28 Ravi started a business by investing ₹50,000. After six months, Raju joined him and
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invested an amount of ₹1,00,000. In one year since Ravi invested, they earned a profit

. of ₹63,000. What is Raju’s share of the profit?
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m as
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Ans 1. ₹32,500

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2. ₹31,000

3. ₹31,500
a
4. ₹32,000

Q.29
.

Ans 1.

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2.

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3.

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4.
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Q.30
l as −10
÷ 24 16 × 24 −7. ag
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Find the value of 24
Ans 1. 24 −43

2. 24 −33

3. 24 −38

4. 24 −31

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘SAID’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘AERO’ is coded as ‘2146’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5
e m
2. 2
las
3. 1
ag
4. 6

Q.2 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept between E and B. Only A is kept above C. No
box is kept below B. G is kept at some place below F but at some place above D. How
many boxes are kept below F?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4
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3. 3
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m.co 4. 1
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.3 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to a
a that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KMH

2. IKE

3. GIC

4. MOI

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.4 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some Circular Saws are Trowels.
Some Trowels are Power Saws.

Conclusions:
I: Some Circular Saws are Power Saws.
II: No Circular Saws are Power Saws.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All soaps are gels.
All soaps are conditioners.

Conclusions:
(I) Some gels are conditioners.
(II) All conditioners are soaps.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.6 A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between D and A, when counted from the left of A. Q sits third to
the left of S. R sits to the immediate right of S. R sits second to the left of D. B is not an
immediate neighbour of Q. Who sits third to the right of C?
Ans 1. D

2. S

3. R

4. A

Q.7 A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. B
sits third to the left of Q. R sits second to the left of S. Q is an immediate neighbour of
both A and R. C is not an immediate neighbour of B. How many people sit between D
and R, when counted from the right of D?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Two

4. Four

Q.8 DREAM is related to IWJFR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, FILED is related to KNQJI. To which of the given options is BLOWN
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GQTBS

2. FPSAR

3. HRUCT

4. GRSCS

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Q.9 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
co
given series to make it logically complete?

. e m
m
LOH19 MPI27 NQJ35 ORK43 ?
as
se Ans 1. PSK50

2. PSL50 ag l
3. PSL51

4. PSK51

Q.10 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)

m
.co
Ans 1. ERM

m
.co m
2. BFJ

3. SWA
m s e
s e l a
a ag
4. UYC
l
Q.11 ag
Seven boxes G, H, I, J, K, L and S are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only three boxes are kept below S. Only two boxes are kept between S and
L. Only G is kept below J. H is kept at some place below K and at some place above J. I
is kept above K. How many boxes are kept between K and J?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three
m
Q.12 .co
If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
m
e
5237648, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
s
la
Ans 1. None

2. Two
ag
3. Three

4. One

Q.13 Mr. Bravo starts from Point A and drives 1 km towards the west. He then takes a left
turn, drives 2 km, turns left and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 7 km.
He takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-
degree turns only unless specified.)

m
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Ans 1. 4 km to the west

m
.co m
2. 5 km to the south

m s e
a
3. 2 km to the north

s e g l
g l a 4. 6 km to the east
a
a Q.14 In a certain code language,
'A = B' means ‘A is the mother of B’,
'A $ B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A @ B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
'A * B' means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is W related to R if W $ A @ C * D = R?
Ans 1. Brother

2. Father

m .
.co
3. Mother's father

e m
em
4. Mother's mother's brother

l as
las ag
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Q.15 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’
are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

42 ÷ 11 + 3 × 18 − 2 = ?
Ans 1. 36

2. 24

3. 30

4. 18

Q.16 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 4 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
6854376, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the new
number thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 8

4. 4

Q.17 Each of the digits in the number 5368794 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are first from the left and first from the right
in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 10

2. 9

3. 12

4. 7

Q.18 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

IGE 16, LJH 21, OMK 26, RPN 31, ?
Ans 1. UYX 36

2. USQ 36

3. VXY 28

4. VYW 36

Q.19 Kasish starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards south. She then takes a left turn,
drives 6 km, turns left and drives 11 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 7 km. She
takes a final left turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 1 km to east

2. 2 km to east

3. 1 km to west

4. 2 km to west

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

13 29 55 113 223 ?
Ans 1. 494

2. 449

3. 498

4. 489

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Q.21 Piyush is ranked 11th from the top and 29th from the bottom in his class. How many
m
co
students are there in the class?

. e m
m
Ans 1. 38

as
se 2. 40

3. 37 ag l
4. 39

Q.22 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the pair in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
m
.co
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
m
12, 146
8, 66
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. 6, 34

l
ag
2. 11, 123

3. 7, 49

4. 4, 66

Q.23 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

BLOW - WLBO - LOBW
LEAF - FELA - EALF
Ans 1. MOVE - EOMV - VOME
m
2. TOUR - OTUR - ROUT
m .co
3. CLAW - CALW - WALC
s e
4. FANG - GAFN - ANFG
g la
Q.24
a
Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) % 9 % 2 7 5 & $ * 5 © 6 1 1 * € 4 # 1 7 3 @ (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4
m
m
3. 1
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m .co 4. 2
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.25 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. a
a TOES - SETO - TEOS
CLAP - PACL - CALP
Ans 1. CALF - FLCA - ALCF

2. RUST - RSUT - TSUR

3. TUNE - UNTE - UNET

4. MICK - KCMI - MCIK

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.26 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

789 799 800 810 811 821 822 ?
Ans 1. 832

2. 833

3. 831

4. 823

Q.27 In a certain code language, ‘MUGS’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘UNIT’ is coded as ‘1375’.
What is the code for ‘U’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 1

4. 7

Q.28 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

31 32 34 38 46 ?
Ans 1. 63

2. 64

3. 61

4. 62

Q.29 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. FH-HJ

2. IK-KM

3. MO-OQ

4. RT-TB

Q.30 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
All numbers are single-digit. Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) & 3 Ω 9 # 1 * 2 + % 4 6 @ 8 $ 7 £ 5 (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 4

2. 7

3. 6

4. 5

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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 02/09/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB NTPC Under Graduate CBT I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which State launched India' first PPP green waste processing plant?
Ans 1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Kerala

4. Telangana

m
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Q.2 This freedom fighter proclaimed himself the Peshwa during the Revolt of 1857 and
gathered armed forces and expelled the British garrison from the city. He was the

m
adopted son of the late Peshwa Baji Rao. The leader in question is:
e
Ans 1. Kunwar Singh

las
2. Mangal Pandey

3. Tantia Tope ag
4. Nana Saheb

Q.3 What is the actual mainland distance of India from east to west?
Ans 1. 2933 km

2. 3143 km

3. 3214 km
m
m .co
4. 3014 km

Q.4
m.co
On which day in 2025 did India and Pakistan agree to a US-brokered ceasefire with
s e m
s e immediate effect?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 10 May
a
a 2. 9 May

3. 8 May

4. 11 May

Q.5 Which of the following devices performs optical character recognition (OCR)?
Ans 1. OMR Scanner

2. Flatbed Scanner

3. Barcode Reader
m .
4. OCR Scanner
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.6 Which Article deals with the constitution of Municipalities?
Ans 1. Article 243Q

2. Article 243W

3. Article 243Z

4. Article 243P

Q.7 The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 (MGNREGA)
provides a legal guarantee for how many days of employment per year to every rural
household in India?
Ans 1. 100 days

2. 159 days

3. 180 days

4. 135 days

Q.8 Which Constitutional Amendment Act added the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of
India?
Ans 1. First Amendment Act, 1951

2. Seventeenth Amendment Act, 1964

3. Twenty-ninth Amendment Act, 1972

4. Fourth Amendment Act, 1955

Q.9 In May 2025, which Indian company emerged as the lowest bidder for the Indian Navy’s
Next Generation Corvettes (NGC) project, valued at over ₹25,000 crore?
Ans 1. Hindustan Shipyard Limited

2. Cochin Shipyard Limited

3. Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers

4. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited

Q.10 What is the function of a diathermic wall in a thermodynamic system?
Ans 1. It allows the flow of only work.

2. It prevents the exchange of both matter and energy.

3. It allows the exchange of matter only.

4. It allows the flow of heat between systems.

Q.11 To be eligible for membership of a State Legislature, a candidate must meet which of
the following qualifications as laid down in the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
Ans 1. Be an elector (voter) in any State assembly constituency

2. Pay income tax in the State

3. Have at least a graduate degree

4. Be a permanent resident of the State for 15 years

Q.12 Who received the Best Actress award at the 25th IIFA Awards in 2025?
Ans 1. Nitanshi Goel

2. Neha Dixit

3. Manisha Kulsherstha

4. Subhashree Ganguly

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Q.13 Which of the following, set up in June 1986, is responsible for the management of civil
m
aerodromes and civil enclaves as well as for maintenance and operation of aeronautical

. co communication systems at all the airports?

s e m
m Ans 1. Delhi International Airport Limited
a
se 2. Airports Authority of India
ag l
3. Airports Council International

4. National Airports Authority

Q.14 Abu’l Fazl was the court historian of which of the following rulers?
Ans 1. Akbar

2. Babar

3. Alauddin Khilji
m
4. Aurangzeb
m .co
Q.15
m .co
Kathak is a classical dance form from which of the following regions of India?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Western India

l a
ag
2. South India

3. North India

4. Eastern India

Q.16 The increase in Earth's average temperature due to trapped gases is called:
Ans 1. Greenhouse effect

2. Ocean acidification

3. Ozone depletion
m
.co
4. Climate Change

e m
Q.17
s
In which of the following budget sessions was the Mission Antyodaya, a convergence

la
and accountability framework aiming to bring optimum use and management of

Ans
resources, adopted?
1. Union Budget 2018-19 ag
2. Union Budget 2016-17

3. Union Budget 2017-18

4. Union Budget 2015-16

Q.18 Which of the following organisations released the World Social Protection Report
(WSPR) 2024-2025?
Ans 1. United Nation Security Council
m
m
2. World Health Organization
.co
m.co 3. International Monetary Fund
s e m
s e 4. International Labour Organization
g l a
g l a a
a Q.19
Ans
Lahaulas and Pangwala are major tribes found in which Indian state?
1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Goa

3. Jharkhand

4. Assam

Q.20 Which law allowed inter-caste and inter-religious marriages during the British period in
India?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Widow Remarriage Act

s e
em
2. Act of 1872

s l a
la ag
3. Sarda Act

ag
4. Act of Settlement
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Q.21 Which Indian startup successfully tested the country's first electric motor-driven semi-
cryogenic rocket engine in May 2025?
Ans 1. Skyroot Aerospace

2. Bellatrix Aerospace

3. Pixxel

4. Agnikul Cosmos

Q.22 In April 2025, India signed a $7.4 billion deal to purchase 26 Rafale fighter jets with
which of the following countries?
Ans 1. Russia

2. United States

3. France

4. Israel

Q.23 The commercialisation of agriculture under the British transformed the rural economy.
What did 'commercialisation of agriculture' in British India lead to?
Ans 1. Elimination of rural debt

2. Growth of self-sufficient villages

3. Rise in food grain production

4. Increased production of cash crops

Q.24 Industrially, which acid is mainly produced by the carbonylation of methanol using
carbon monoxide?
Ans 1. Nitric acid

2. Citric acid

3. Acetic acid

4. Hydrochloric acid

Q.25 What is the function of the Taskbar in the Windows operating system?
Ans 1. Displays currently running applications and allows switching between them

2. Stores deleted files temporarily

3. Opens the file manager window

4. Shuts down the computer immediately

Q.26 What was the main source of revenue for the Pallava empire, used for maintaining their
army and administrative expenses?
Ans 1. Trade tax

2. Toll tax

3. Salt tax

4. Land tax

Q.27 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make
laws relating to the acquisition and termination of the Indian Citizenship?
Ans 1. Article 12

2. Article 10

3. Article 7

4. Article 11

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Q.28
Where was the 29th World Gas Conference (WGC), known as the 'Olympics' of the
m
co
global gas industry, held for the first time in its nearly 100-year history in May
. 2025?
e m
m as
se l
Ans 1. Beijing, China

2. Dubai, UAE ag
3. Tokyo, Japan

4. Paris, France

Q.29 Which of the following developments followed the MoU signed between GRSE and
Norway’s Kongsberg at Nor-Shipping 2025?
Ans 1. India will jointly operate a Polar Research Vessel with Norway.

2. India will purchase its first Polar Research Vessel from Norway.
m
m
3. India will fund Norway’s Polar Research under a new agreement.
.co
.co
4. India will begin building its first indigenously made Polar Vessel.

m s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.30 Who took charge as the Controller General of Defence Accounts (CGDA) on 1 March
l
ag
2025?
Ans 1. Dr. Mayank Sharma

2. Ajay Kumar

3. Shailendra Nath Gupta

4. Alok Joshi

Q.31 In the case of Vihaan Kumar vs. State of Haryana, what constitutional violation led the
Supreme Court to declare the arrest illegal?
Ans 1. Violation of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)
m
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2. Violation of Article 14 (Right to Equality)

3. Violation of Article 19(1)(a) (Freedom of Speech)
e m
las
4. Violation of Article 22(1) (Failure to inform grounds of arrest)

Q.32 ag
How does the growth of tertiary activities reflect economic development in India?
Ans 1. It highlights a fall in manufacturing employment.

2. It indicates a slowdown in overall income generation.

3. It shows a shift back to farm-based occupations.

4. It reflects improved services, urban growth and rising demand.

Q.33 Which international summit on artificial intelligence was held in Bengaluru in 2025,
m
.co
highlighting the importance of ethical and inclusive AI collaboration between India and

m
France?

.co m
Ans 1. Indo‑European AI Partnership Meet

m s e
s e 2. Global AI Ethics Forum

g l a
g l a 3. La French Tech India AI Summit
a
a 4. India‑US AI Conference

Q.34 Which thermodynamic quantity helps determine the spontaneity of a chemical reaction?
Ans 1. Enthalpy

2. Entropy

3. Gibbs free energy

4. Internal free energy

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.35 Who is responsible for implementing the RTI Act in public departments?
Ans 1. Director General

2. District Magistrate

3. Central Vigilance Officer

4. Central Public Information Officer

Q.36 Which of the following names is associated with the Faraizi Movement?
Ans 1. Haji Shariatullah

2. Muhammad Barkathulla

3. Hakim Ajmal Khan

4. Nawab Salimullah

Q.37 The McMahon Line is the boundary between India and which country?
Ans 1. Pakistan

2. Myanmar

3. Afghanistan

4. China

Q.38 In May 2025, the Khelo India Multipurpose Hall in Arunachal Pradesh was officially
opened in which district by Union Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya?
Ans 1. Kamle

2. Lower Subansiri

3. West Kameng

4. Tawang

Q.39 What is the name given to a saucer-shaped intrusive igneous body that is concave to
the sky?
Ans 1. Lapolith

2. Sill

3. Phacolith

4. Batholith

Q.40 How many medals were won by the Indian team in Archery World Cup Stage 2 at
Shanghai, China in May 2025?
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 6

4. 3

Section : Mathematics

Q.1

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.2 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 34% above its cost price and offers a 25%
m
discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹177, then what is the list price (in ₹) of

. co the fan?

s e m
m Ans 1. 47,209
a
se 2. 47,148
ag l
3. 47,436

4. 47,300

Q.3 Find the HCF of 120, 144 and 168.
Ans 1. 48

2. 12

3. 36
m
4. 24
m .co
Q.4
m .co
A number when increased by 100% gives 2750. The number is:
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. 687.5

l a
ag
2. 2750

3. 1375

4. 4125

Q.5 Eight times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 46 years. After 10
years, three times Q’s age will be 12 years less than eight times P’s age at that time.
What is the present age (in years) of Q?
Ans 1. 49

2. 37
m
.co
3. 42

4. 43
e m
las
Q.6
Ans 1. 4 ag
The number of prime numbers lying between 317 and 322, both included, is:

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Q.7 Ashok bought some pencils at the rate of ₹180 a dozen. He sold them for ₹16 each. His
profit percentage is ______%.
Ans 1. 6.67
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2. 10.67
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m.co 3. 8.67
s e m
s e 4. 4.67
g l a
g l a a
a

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.8 Simplify the following.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 A shopkeeper marks a mobile phone for ₹15,000 but allows a discount of 10%. What
amount does the customer actually pay?
Ans 1. ₹13,800

2. ₹13,500

3. ₹14,000

4. ₹14,500

Q.10 Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 25 hours and pipe C
can fill the same tank in 10 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they
operate together is::
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 Find the value of x satisfying: 4(4x2 − 5) − 4(4x2 + 6x − 4) = 15
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.12 A man goes to Indore from Bhopal at a speed of 20 km/hr and returns to Bhopal at
m
speed of 30 km/hr, through the same route. What is his average speed (in km/hr) of the

. co entire journey?

s e m
m Ans 1. 24
a
se 2. 29
ag l
3. 20

4. 28

Q.13 A sum of money triples itself at a certain rate of compound interest in 15 years. In how
many years will it amount to 81 times of itself?
Ans 1. 61 years

2. 60 years

m
.co
3. 56 years

m
.co m
4. 51 years

m s e
Q.14
s e
Evaluate: 16 + 12 ÷ 6 − 2 × 3
l a
Ans 1. 12
l a ag
2. 14
ag
3. 15

4. 11

Q.15 The area of one side of a rectangular box is 45 cm2, and the area of another adjacent
side is 24 cm2. If the area of the top surface (third side) is 30 cm², find the volume of the
box.
Ans 1. 540 cm3
m
.co
2. 270 cm3

3. 60 cm3
e m
4. 180 cm3
las
Q.16 ag
कख़ई ्ि्ঢ ऋण चॏकॊनॕ कॕ ोलए अपनॕ मॊोऺक शॕतन कॕ 20% कॕ बरॊबर मॊोऺक भॏगतॊन करतॊ ऻॖ । शऻ
षॕह शॕतन कॊ 25% खच१ करतॊ ऻॖ और ₹780 बचॊतॊ ऻॖ । उऺकॊ मॊोऺक शॕतन (₹ म७) ৯ॊत कॎोजए।
Ans 1. 1,388

2. 1,300

3. 1,383

4. 1,366

m
.co
Q.17 In covering a distance of 198 km, Amit takes 4 hours more than Vinay. If Amit doubles

m
his speed, then he would take 5 hours less than Vinay. Amit's speed is:

.co m
Ans 1. 20 km/hr

m s e
s e 2. 10 km/hr

g l a
g l a 3. 11 km/hr
a
a 4. 12 km/hr

Q.18 The marked price of an article is ₹2,500. A shopkeeper gives three successive discounts
of 25%, 20% and K%, and sells the article at ₹1,380. Find the value of K.
Ans 1. 7

2. 7.6

3. 6.5

4. 8
m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.19 A kite is flying at the height of 353.55 m above the ground. It is attached to a string
inclined at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. What is the approximate length of the
string?
Ans 1. 300 m

2. 250 m

3. 500 m

4. 375 m

Q.20 What is the median of the following data?

49, 96, 59, 54, 97, 30, 44, 46, 36, 55, 23
Ans 1. 49

2. 49.5

3. 50

4. 48.5

Q.21

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 The ratio of an interior angle to its corresponding exterior angle in a regular polygon is
3 : 2. Determine the number of sides of the polygon.
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 5

4. 6

Q.23 The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 29 and 174, respectively. If one of the
numbers is 58, find the other one.
Ans 1. 116

2. 174

3. 145

4. 87

Q.24 ₹32,100 were divided among A, B and C, such that 2 times of A = 7 times of B = 4 times
of C. Find the share of A.
Ans 1. ₹17,976

2. ₹17,815

3. ₹18,091

4. ₹17,847

Q.25 The average of first 151 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans 1. 151

2. 151.5

3. 152

4. 150.5

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m
.co
Q.26 Sapna invested ₹22,800 on simple interest, partly at 6% per annum and partly at 4% per
m
annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 8 years, then find the

. co sum invested at 6% per annum (in ₹).

s e m
m Ans 1. 9,123
a
se 2. 9,120
ag l
3. 9,117

4. 9,122

Q.27 P, Q and R invest sum in the ratio of 2 : 22 : 70, respectively. If they earned a total profit
of ₹4,700 at the end of the year, then what is the difference between share of Q and R?
Ans 1. ₹2,447

2. ₹2,430

m
.co
3. ₹2,306

m
.co m
4. ₹2,400

m s e
Q.28
s e
Which of the following ratios is the greatest?
l a
Ans 1. 30 : 53
l a ag
ag
2. 48 : 55

3. 22 : 51

4. 40 : 90

Q.29 Find the surface area of the cuboid with dimensions 3 cm, 5 cm and 8 cm.
Ans 1. 79 square cm.

2. 158 square cm.

m
.co
3. 60 square cm.

4. 120 square cm.

e m
Q.30
las
The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 90. The greater of the two numbers

Ans
is:
1. 6 ag
2. 10

3. 11

4. 21

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
m
.co
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
m
.co
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
e m
e m
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding

l as
l as to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag
ag 45, 165
24, 144
Ans 1. 42, 172

2. 18, 142

3. 38, 158

4. 21, 131

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.2 SPLT is related to QNJR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, OLHP is related to MJFN. To which of the given options is KHDL related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. IFBJ

2. IFJB

3. FIJB

4. FIBJ

Q.3 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘÷’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

6 − 4 × 85 + 5 ÷ 22 = ?
Ans 1. 29

2. 22

3. 42

4. 36

Q.4 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

LIG 1, NKI 4, ?, ROM 16, TQO 25
Ans 1. PMK 9

2. QNL 9

3. PNL 9

4. QNK 12

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
ZMB JXN TIZ DTL ?
Ans 1. NEY

2. NXE

3. NEX

4. NYE

Q.6 S, Y कॊ ोपतॊ ऻॖ । Y, R कॊ भॊई ऻॖ । R, U कॎ प ॎ ऻॖ । U, P कॊ पॏআ ऻॖ । S कॊ P ऺॕ ভॊ ऺॠबॠध ऻॖ ?
Ans 1. पु्ऴ की प ी के िपता

2. पु्ऴ की प ी की बहन

3. पु्ऴ की प ी का भाई

4. पु्ऴ की प ी की माता

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 15 47 91 275 ?
Ans 1. 547

2. 574

3. 505

4. 550

Q.8 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which pair DOES NOT belong to that
group? (NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or
their position in the letter cluster.)
Ans 1. RM-VP

2. AV-DY

3. GB-JE

4. OJ-RM
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m
.co
Q.9 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. co that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. SOJD

2. GCXR ag l
3. AWRL

4. QNHB

Q.10 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 # * © & 8 4 & 6 1 5 9 € 8 $ * 6 6 8 5 7 7 (Right)

m
.co
How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol

m
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Zero

m .co s em
2. One
s e l a
3. Two
l a ag
4. Three
ag
Q.11 Town A is to the west of Town B. Town C is to the south of Town A. Town D is to the east
of Town C. Town E is to the west of Town A. What is the position of Town E with respect
to Town C?
Ans 1. Northeast

2. Northwest

3. East

m
.co
4. South

Q.12
e m
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

las
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

g
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
a
Statements: Some walls are roofs. No roof is a floor.

Conclusions (I): No roof is a wall.
Conclusions (II): Some floors are roofs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
m
.co
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
m
Q.13 .co
All 43 people are standing in a row, facing North. Kishor is 24th from the left-end while
m s e m
s e Monu is 12th from the right-end. How many people are there between Kishor and Monu?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 8
a
a 2. 6

3. 7

4. 5

Q.14 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
m .
.co m
Ans 1. LP-KN

s e
em a
2. EI-DG

s l
la ag
3. HL-GJ


4. BF-AC
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Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘YARN’ is coded as ‘25#@’ and ‘ARTY’ is coded as ‘#$52’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. $

3. #

4. 5

Q.16 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
in the following series.
32 40 50 62 76 ?
Ans 1. 86

2. 98

3. 95

4. 92

Q.17 Each of the digits in the number 2786431 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. None

4. Three

Q.18 Paula starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards South. He then takes a right turn,
drives 9 km, turns right and drives 13 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the West

2. 5 km to the West

3. 6 km to the North

4. 4 km to the East

Q.19 Seven people, I, J, K, L, P, Q and R are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit
between J and I. Only P sits to the right of K. Only one person sits between I and K. Q
sits at some place to the right of L but at some place to the left of R.
How many people sit between R and L?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Two

Q.20 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

SACK - CSAK - KCAS
LEAP - ALEP - PAEL
Ans 1. PLAY - APLY - LAYP

2. EMIT - MEIT - TMIE

3. GOLD - LGOD - DLOG

4. TEMP - TMEP - PMET

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.co
Q.21 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing the north. F sits sixth
m
from the right end of the row. Only two people sit between E and F. A sits to the right of

. co E but left of G. D sits third to the left of C. How many people sit to the right of B?

s e m
m Ans 1. Three
a
se 2. Four
ag l
3. Two

4. Five

Q.22 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

SAVE - EASV - AVSE
CROW - WRCO - ROCW
Ans 1. GROW - GORW - WORG
m
2. TERM - METR - RETM
m .co
3. DEWS - EDWS - SEWD
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. JUST - TUJS - USJT

l a
Q.23
ag
Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only two boxes are kept between C and E. Only A is kept above B. No box is kept below
E. F is kept at some place below D but at some place above G.
How many boxes are kept between A and G?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 1

4. 2
m
Q.24
m .co
In a certain code language, ‘MEAT’ is coded as ‘4257’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘1365’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
s e
la
Ans 1. 6

2. 5
ag
3. 7

4. 1

Q.25 This question is based on five, four-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 4138 2345 6367 5353 1276 (Right)

(Example: 6975 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9, third digit = 7 and fourth digit = 5)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
m
m .co
.co
What will be the resultant if the first digit of the largest number is multiplied to the
second digit of the smallest number?
e m
e
Ans
m 1. 12
l as
l as 2. 17
ag
ag 3. 14

4. 15

Q.26 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘×’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

46 − 2 ÷ 10 + 3 × 24 = ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 17
m .
3. 22
.co s e m
4. 28
s em l a
g la ag
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Q.27 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

288 233 183 138 98 ?
Ans 1. 53

2. 73

3. 63

4. 43

Q.28 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All oranges are melons.
All grapes are oranges.

Conclusions:
(I) Some melons are oranges.
(II) All grapes are melons.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.29 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number 95423671. Find the product of the
digits that are third from the left and third from the right in the new number formed.
Ans 1. 10

2. 8

3. 0

4. 15

Q.30 38 people are standing in a row facing North. Harman is 15th from the right end while
Hinal is 13th from the left end. How many people are there between Harman and Hinal?
Ans 1. 8

2. 9

3. 10

4. 7

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Document Details

Board / OrgRailway
ExamRailway Recruitment Board Non-Technical Popular Categories
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages49
Languageenglish
Updated24 Sep 2026