CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 Solution NCC

FOR CBSE CLASS 12 EXAM PREPARATION

CBSE Class 12 2026
Question Paper
Solution · NCC
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

CBSE Class 12 2026 Question Paper Solution NCC

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Marking Scheme
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Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior Secondary School Examination, 2026 (XIIth)
SUBJECT NAME : NCC (Q.P. CODE 076/42)

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General Instructions: -

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1 The CBSE has decided to introduce On Screen Marking (OSM) for the evaluation of

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. that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct sem
Class XII answer Book with the 2026 Examination.
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You are aware

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assessment
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g profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation,
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and
ateaching
you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
3 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality
of the examinations conducted, evaluation done and several other aspects. Its
leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination
system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this
policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in
Newspaper/Website, etc. may invite action under various rules of the Board
and IPC.”
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4 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should
not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking

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Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while

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evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or

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are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due
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marks be awarded to them. In Class-XII, while evaluating two competency-
based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not
from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate,
due marks should be awarded.
5 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer.
The students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due
marks should be awarded accordingly.
6 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
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evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
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instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should
be zero after deliberation and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for
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evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in
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Evaluators will mark ( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X’
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a be marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓) while evaluating which gives an
impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common
mistake which evaluators are committing.
8 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part in
the OSM Portal. Marks awarded for different parts of the question will be totaled up
by the OSM System.
9 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin
in the OSM Portal. This may also be followed strictly.

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10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized
only once.
11 A full scale of marks __________ (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the
answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8
hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25
answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is
in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past :-
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick
mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with
the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it
should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0) Marks.
15 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
16 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that
evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.
17 If a candidate attempts both alternatives/options in a question where only one
option/ alternative is required to be attempted, the Evaluator shall award marks
in both the options. The system will take the higher of two scores and
disregard the other response.
18 In a question having two options/alternatives, if a candidate has attempted only
one, then the evaluator shall mark “NA” (Not attempted) against the option that
has not been attempted by the candidate.

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MARKING SCHEME
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National Cadet Corps (Subject Code-076)
(PAPER CODE : 42) (P42076)
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Q.No. EXPECTED OUTCOMES/VALUE POINTS Marks
COMMON SUBJECTS SECTION – A
1. Choose the correct option. 1
(i) B – Communalism
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C – Dismiss m .co
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(ii)
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(iii) D – Static drill
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(iv) D – se4.4 kg l as
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(v) gCl – 5
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(vi) D – 20 rds per min
(vii) A – Humanitarian NGO
(viii) C – Japanese
(ix) A – 300 feet
(x) D – Vinoba Bhave

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(xi) B – Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
of A.
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SECTION – B
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(a) (i) Religious tolerance – Indiagis a multi religious country. Each
2.
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community should appreciate the co-existence of every other
community & promote love and communal harmony in society.
(ii) Linguistic tolerance – India is a multi-lingual country. Each
linguistic group should respect the language of every other
linguistic group. 2 (1+1)
OR
(b) (i)Sovereignty: The foremost interest of the nation is to be
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(ii) Security: The nation must ensure safety, territorial intensity m
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and protection of the state against external threat in subversion.
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(i) On the order of squad parade Par the rifle is carried at short 2(½x4)
a (Tol shastra).
(ii) As soon as the squad halts the rifle but is placed noiselessly on the
ground in the correct position of attention.
(iii) While dressing the front rank raises left arm instead of right arm.
(iv) The rifle is again held in position of Tol shastra when moving.

4. (i) About half of the population of India is illiterate, literacy is an 2(½x4)
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important factor for unity.
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(ii) Education should be so oriented that it encourages tolerance
brotherhood and unity amongst various communities.
(iii) We should have exchange of teachers from one state to another.
(iv) There should be no restriction on the students seeking admission
in any educational institution in the country.

5.(a) Grand Corruption:
(i) It occurs at the highest levels of government, in a way that
requires significant subversion of the political, legal and
economic systems.
(ii) Such corruption is commonly found in countries with 2
authoritarian or dictatorial govts and in those without
(1+1)
adequate checks on corruption by anti-corruption agencies.
OR
(b) Corporate Corruption:
(i) Large corporate and businesses have financial turnover
many times that of the GDP of small countries.
(ii) Corruption in the business grows within the organisation,
other organisation and in dealing with the govt. Large
corporates may also indulge in political corruption.
6. Communication is exchange of information between people, by means 2(1+1/2+1/2)
of speaking, writing or by using a common system of signs or
behaviour.
Barries while speaking are as under:
(a) Language
(b) Cultural
(c) Psychological/ emotional
(d) Physical/ environmental
(e) Organisational
(f) Disability
(g) Lack of consistency in communication
(h) Poor eye contact
(i) Poor listening
(j) Not taking feedback
(Any two of the above)
7. Role of NCC cadets in curbing pollution. 2
(i) NCC is the largest youth organisation
(1/2x4)
(ii) The cadets are motivated and understand the dangers of
pollution.
(iii) They can guide the farmers regarding the use of natural
manure than using chemical fertilizers.
(iv) Not to burn the crop residues in the fields.
8. Type of assistance required during natural/other calamites 2
(a) Setting up of information centres/reactivation of tele services.
(1+1)
(b) Re-establishment of road/rail communication.
(c) Setting up of langars
(d) Providing first aid and medical help
(e) Distribution of aid
(Any two points)

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9. (a) In NCC the ceremonial parade/ drill is held at the culmination of
the cadet’s training. The ceremonial parade may be arranged for g l a 4(2+2)
various dignitaries given in NCC orders from time to time. a
(b) All dignitaries other than the President, Governors and major
generals and above rank are entitled to Salami Shastra.

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10. (a) Information related to parasailing is as under- 4

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(i) Two other terms used for it

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(1/2+/1/2+1+1+1)
 Parascending
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 Parakiting
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(ii) There are six parts of a parasail.
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(iii) (aa) You should consider appropriate gear that is involved to
perform parasailing.
(ab) To have the will and nerve to take your first launch in
parasailing.
OR 4
(b) (i)Visibility – Never go up in rain, fog or an approaching storm. (1+1+1+1)
(ii) Passenger age & weight restrictions - not recommended for
individuals under the age of 16 years or who exceed 300 lbs. body
weight.
(iii) High winds – You should avoid parasailing in high wind m
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conditions (over 15 knots at sea level) due to an increased
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difficulty and complications during emergency water landings.
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(iv) Release form – Read the release form carefully before you sign

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it. Parasailing does have physical requirements especially in the
event of a water landing.

11. Trigger Operation Exercise No 3 1+3=4
(a) Object: To develop coordination between the right eye, brain
and right-hand index finger and practice muscular control of the
hand.
(b) Method: Lying position is taken. The rifle is cocked. Left hand
leaves the rifle and supports the head. Left eye is closed. Line
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c. o Main components of Personal Health and Hygiene are- .co
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of “Fire” press the index finger without a jerk.

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12.(a) 4

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(iii)
Bathing
Eating and Drinking
(iv) Care and Cleanliness of Skin, Hair and Teeth
(v) Physical Exercise

(i) Sleep: Good sleep is important for the mind and body. A healthy
person must sleep for 7-8 hours daily.
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(ii) Physical Exercise: One must play games and do Physical
exercise to stay healthy and for development of body and mind.
(likewise other components of personal health and hygiene)
OR
For selecting the site for the Langar, I will bear the following points in
12(b) mind :- 4
(a) The place should not be near any dirty location like nullah / drain (1/2 x 8 = 4)
/ animal shed / sewer etc.
(b) The place should not be a low lying area where sudden floods can
occur.
(c) The place should be shady i.e. inside a shed or under a clump of
trees.
(d) There should not be pest like rats and stray dogs.
(e) There should be connectivity for vehicles and water truck.
(f) There should be enough place for staff to live and store rations
and vegetables etc.
(g) There should not be any fire hazard nearby like petrol pump, gas
godown, plastic dump etc.
(h) There should be source of safe drinking water like tubewell and
electricity.
SECTION C

13. (a) Senior Under officer Ekta Kumar 2
(b) Cadet Mahesh Ashok (1+1)
14. (a) Due to her unfinished work Abha was to cut a sorry figure in the 6
review meetings. (1+1+1+1+2}
(b) Ashok, a senior manager came forward to help Abha.
(c) Ashok’s first impression was that Abha was not managing her
time well.
(d) Ashok asked Abha to prepare daily time log and the list of daily
tasks for a week.
(e) Abha realised that time wasters like phone call, unnecessary
messages, unscheduled meetings and long coffee breaks were
eating into her office time.
PART II SPECIAL SUBJECTS ARMY WING
SECTION - D
15. Choose the correct answer
(i) D – Vishisht Seva Medal 1
(ii) C – Survey of India 1
(iii) B – 1110 mm 1
(iv) A – Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 1
A
1
(v) D – 150 rounds per min
SECTION E

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16. Define
(a) (i) True North – The direction of the North Pole fromathe
(ii) True bearing – Calculated by finding out the relation of True
North & Grid North or Magnetic North.
2 (1+1)
OR
(b)(i) Grid North – Measured on the map from the Grid North by the
help of a protractor.
(ii) Magnetic bearing – Measured from Magnetic North by the
compass.
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17. Inspection method is meant a careful and detailed study of the ground 2
and the features both on map and the ground. The method involves
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(1/2+1/2+1/2+1/2)
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(a) Setting of the map
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(b) Recognition of general area of own position on the map.
(c) A close study of the ground details.
18. Ground Wave Propagation 2
(i) It is a method of radio frequency propagation that uses the (1+1)
area between the surface of the earth and the ionosphere for
transmission.
(ii) Ground wave radio signal propagation is ideal for relatively
short distance propagation on these frequencies during the

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day time with a limited range of approx. 30 km.
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. recognition for bravery
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19.(a) (i) It is Mentioned in Dispatches. It is given in
in a particular operation.
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a ribbon of the operation.
(ii) It is not a medal. It is worn over lthe
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2
(1+1)
(b) (i) Educational Qualification: Graduation/Post Graduation from
Recognised University
(ii) Age: Between 19 and 25 years
20.(a) (i) Unit of measure is one of the method of judging distance. In unit of 4 (2+2)
measure, the distance between the observer and object is divided into
100 yards segments.
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(ii) I will indicate a landmark or object to my section on ground and
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ask everyone to use unit measure to find its distance. By adding these

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segments, you get to know the distance of the object.
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(i) To practice diamond formation I will take my section on the ground (1+3)
the
same on ground by keeping 25 m distance between the troops.
(ii)

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SECTION F
21. (a) D– 5 4
(b) B – 21 (1+1+1+1)
(c) A – 26 Jan 1950
(d) C – Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru

PART II SPECIAL SUBJECTS NAVY WING

SECTION D

15. (i) C – Sunset 1
(ii) D – Panoramic 1
(iii) B – Echo sounder 1
(iv) D – Blake slip 1
(v) B – Both A and R are true but R is not the explanation of A 1

SECTION E

16. Magnetic Anomaly Detection. 2(1+1)
(i) It detects minute changes in the earth’s magnetic field
caused by the presence of a submarine.
(ii) The range of MAD is limited and depends up on the height
of the aircraft. MAD is used for submarine detection.

17.(a) (i) The area susceptible to immediate flooding or damage is marked
as ‘red zone’ which extends from the keel to somewhere above
the deep waterline rising higher at the ends and in a broad ship at
the side. Openings to all compartments within the red zone are
subject to immediate risk during flooding.
(ii) All such openings are known as ‘red opening’ and are marked in
‘red’ on a door or hatch by red triangle across the upper corner
farthest from hinges and on valve/scuttle by a red disk. 2(1+1)
OR
(i) In X-Ray condition ‘X’ are closed and Y and Z are open.
17(b) (ii) X opening are to be opened only with permission of DCHQ
or OOW.

18. (i) A ship/boat model is placed in water after the last coat of paint and 2
last detail is refitted. (1+1)

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(ii) A model should be tested for stability and balance during its

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preparation by lowering it in the water to avoid damping.

19.(a) (i) Navigational Compass – The navigational compass is an
instrument that gives the necessary datum line from which courses and
bearings can be measured. Compass helps us to find the direction of
the ship at sea.
(ii) Types of Compasses: Magnetic compass and Gyro compass
2(1+1)
OR
(i) True Bearing- A true bearing of an object is the angle between
19(b)
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the meridian and direction of the object.
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(ii) Gyro North- The direction north indicated by Gyro compass is
known as Gyro North which is also the true North.
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20.(a)
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20(b) The shore establishments function under the administrative authority (2+1+1)

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of the respective c-in-c and undertake the following functions-
(i) Training of officers and sailors
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(ii) Provide logistic support, berthing and allied harbour facilities to
ships.
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SECTION F CASE-BASED

21. (a) B– Rafale-M 1
(b) B– Landing Platform Dock 1
(c) C– 2014 1
(d) B– Kolkata Class 1
PART II SPECIAL SUBJECTS AIR WING
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(ii) D – Mi-8 and Mi-17
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(iii) D – Embraer 1
(iv) D – Prime Meridian 1
(v) B – Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation 1
of A
SECTION E

16. (a) Russia 2(1/2+1/2+1/2+1/2)
(b) 2500 km/hr
(c) 8000 kg
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(d) Twin engine
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17.(a) (i) Station/ Wing is a self-accounting unit, i.e. fully capable and
responsible for its own administration.
(ii) It exercises its functional and administrative control over its lodger
units.
2 (1+1)
OR

17(b)
(i)Western, Central, Eastern, South Western, Southern Air
Commands are operational commands of the Indian Air Force
(IAF).
(ii)These commands execute operational role of IAF in war. They
also handle the training of paratroopers for airborne operations.
18.(a) Responsibility of Aerodrome Control Tower:- 2
An aerodrome control tower is a unit established to provide air
traffic control to the aerodrome traffic.
OR
18(b) (i)Control Area: An airspace of defined dimensions extending
upwards from specified limit above the earth, within which control 2 (1+1)
service is provided to controlled flights.
(ii)Control Zone: An airspace of defined dimensions extending
upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit within
which Air Traffic Control service is provided to controlled flights.
19. (i) Radar can determine the range, altitude, direction and speed of the 2 (1+1)
objects.
(ii) Radar is used to detect aircraft, ships, spacecraft, guided missiles,
motor vehicles, weather formations and terrain.
20.(a) (i) Supersonic Aerofoils are much more angular in shape and can have 4 (1+1+1+1
a very sharp leading edge which is very sensitive to angle of attack.
(ii) These are low cambered.
(iii) Supercritical Aerofoil has its maximum thickness close to the
leading edge to have a lot of length to slowly shock the supersonic flow
back to subsonic speed.
(iv)These are more cambered.
OR
(i) Lift is a positive force caused by the difference in air pressure 4 (1+1+1+1)
20(b)
under and above a wing.
(ii) The higher air pressure beneath a wing creates lift and is
affected by the shape of the wing.
(iii) Drag is the resistance of the air to anything moving through it.
Different wing shapes greatly affect drag.
(iv)Air divides smoothly around a wing’s rounded leading edge.
Drag forces act parallel and opposite to the direction of flight.
SECTION F CASE-BASED
21. (a) (i) Within 3 miles 2 (1+1)
(ii) And higher than 400 feet

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(b) Air Pocket and draught
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(c) Point of balance and 1/3rd from the back.
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