Karnataka 1st PUC Question Bank for Home Science

Government of Karnataka
Department of School Education
(Pre-University)

QUESTION BANK

CHAPTER 1: HUMAN ECOLOGY AND FAMILY SCIENCES

PART-A
I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1. In which college the study of Home Science was first started at higher level?
a. Lady Shri Ram College
b. Lady Harding
c. Lady Irwin
d. Lady the Irwin

2. How many fields does home science subject have?
a. Six
b. Five
c. Three
d. Four

3. In which year Lady Irwin College was established?
a. 1952
b. 1960
c. 1944
d. 1932

4. Which of the following is not the field of Home Science?
a. Food and Nutrition
b. Human Development
c. Fabric and Apparel
d. Agriculture Science

5. Home Science subject is essential for boys because –
a. In this we learn the role and responsibilities of family
b. In society interaction between human and its environment
c. This is not only related to home but this is an interrelated subject
d. All of the above

6. In which state Lady Irwin College is situated?
a. Mumbai
b. Delhi
c. Bihar
d. Punjab

7. Which of the following is not a career option after food and nutrition?
a. Opening a crèche
b. Tiffin Service
c. Catering
d. Dietician

8. Home Science is a ____________field of education:
a. Confidential
b. Limited
c. Multidisciplinary
d. Theoretical

Answers
1 (c), 2. (b), 3. (d), 4. (d), 5. (d), 6. (b), 7. (a), 8. (c)

PART-B
I Answer the following questions (2 marks)
1. Define human ecology and family science.
2. Why HEFS is important for boys?
3. Mention any four branches of home science.
4. Mention any two career opportunities of human development.
5. Mention any two career opportunities for textile and fabrics.
6. Mention any two career opportunities for extension education and
communication.
7. Mention any two career opportunities for resource management
8.When and where the first home science college established in India?
9. Name any two eminent women who conceived of starting the first home
science college in India.

PART-C
II. Answer the following questions (3 marks)
1. What do you mean by human ecology and family science?
2. Why is HEFS important for both girls and boys?
3. Among different fields of Home Science explain the scope of any one field?
4. Do you agree that adolescence is a turning point in one’s life?
5. Name the eminent women who conceived of starting the first home science
college in India?

PART-D
III. Answer the following questions: (5 marks)
1. Explain different fields of Home Science?
2. Write career opportunities available after completing nutrition course
3.Write career opportunities available after completing human development
course.
4.Write career opportunities available after completing extension education
course.
5.Write career opportunities available after completing fabric and apparels
course.
6.Write career opportunities available after completing Resource management.

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CHAPTER – 2 UNDERSTANDING THE SELF
PART-A

I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1.Related to the concept of self are two other concepts __________ and
_________________.
a. Person and identity
b. Identity and personality
c. Identity and feelings
d. Development and realization

2. The sense of who we are and what makes us different from everyone else is
________.
a. Identity
b. Self
c. Potential
d. personality

3. Identity and Your relationship and role with others refer to ____________ of
self.
a. Social aspect
b. Emotional aspect
c. Physical aspect
d. Cognitive aspect

4.Personal aspect of self is associated with ______________only.
a. Others
b. You
c. Yours
d. Theirs

5. Self-concept and self- esteem are elements of ______________.
a. Identity
b. Feelings
c. Pride
d. Self- rating

6. At what age does an infant use words like 'I', 'mine' and 'me'?
a. 12-16 months
b. 10-15 months

c. 18-24 months
d. 6-12 months

7. In development from infant to ______________ there are changes in self too.
a. Infancy
b. Childhood
c. Adulthood
d. Adolescent

8.___________Starts in about 18 months of age in infants.
a. Others recognition
b. Self-image recognition
c. Recognition of self-body
d. others image recognition

9. “I am tall” example of self is given in which stage of life?
a. Adolescence
b. Early childhood
c. Old age
d. Childhood

10.In ______________they can differentiate between “ideal self” and “Real
Self’.
a. Adolescence
b. Adulthood
c. Middle childhood
d. Infancy

11.The anxiety to understand self is seen more in______________ stage.
a. Adolescence
b. Middle childhood
c. Infancy
d. Adulthood

12. Menarche usually is considered the point of ______________in girls.
a. Sexual maturity
b. Cognitive maturity
c. Physical maturity
d. Emotional maturity

13.“I am never scared” is an example of self that occurs in which stage of life?
a. Early childhood
b. Adolescence
c. Adulthood
d. Infancy

14. By ____________Implies greater opportunity and the ability to have one’s
own point of view.
a. Connectedness
b. Individuality
c. Selfishness
d. Kindness

15. The time when sexual maturity is reached is called ____________.
a. Pubescence
b. Puberty
c. Adolescence
d. Adulthood

16. The period, during which physical and biological changes occur, leading to
puberty called ____________.
a. Pubescence
b. Puberty
c. Adolescence
d. Adulthood

17. ____________ suggests greater sensitivity to and respect for others views
and openness to others views in adolescence
a. Connectedness
b. Individuality
c. Selfishness
d. Kindness

Answers
1.b, 2.b, 3.a, 4.b, 5.a, 6. c, 7. d, 8. b, 9.b, 10. c, 11. a, 12.a, 13.a, 14.b, 15.b,
16. a, 17.d.

PART-B
II Answer the following questions (2 marks)
1.Write two concepts related to self-identity?
2.What do you mean by Self- esteem?
3.Give definition of self.
4.Write the characteristics of self during early childhood.
5.What is the difference between ideal self and real self?
6.In all the cultures, adolescence is filled with disagreements and dilemmas.
Explain.
7. Tell about description of self during adolescence. In which stage do they feel
stress on their internal qualities?
8. How does development of self takes place during adolescence?
9. Classify the influences on the formation of Identity?
10. How development of Identity is different in our culture as compared to
western culture?
11. Give reasons why each one of us has a unique identity.
12. What are the factors that influences on the formation of identity?
13. What do you mean by ideal self and real self?
14. What is peer pressure?
15. Define adolescence.
16. What do you mean by cognitive changes?
17. Explain with examples how adolescent’s self carries contradictions?
18. What do you mean by Personal Identity and Social Identity?
19.A child in early childhood overestimates themselves in describing self.
Explain with example?
20. Which stage of life is important for the development of identity and why?
21. How does adolescent describe self?
22. What do you mean by Puberty and pubescence?
23. What do you mean by affectionate parenting?

PART-C
III Answer the following questions (3 Marks)
1. Describe self during Infancy stage?
2. Why is adolescence if a critical time for identity development?
3. Rinku and Tinku are twins. How will you say that their identity is different or
not?
4. In adolescence one can experience peer pressure. Explain this.
5. Why it is important to understand self?
6. Discuss the concept of puberty and pubescence.
7. What are the factors that influences on the formation of identity?

8. How does adolescent describe self?
9. What do you mean by Personal Identity and Social Identity?
10. Explain with examples how adolescent’s self carries contradictions?

PART-D
Answer the following questions (5 Marks)
1. Explain the physical and biological changes occurring in boys and girls?
2. Explain how a family can help in the sense of Identity of adolescence? Write
the characteristics of self during early childhood?
3. How does self, develops during middle childhood?
4. Explain what do you understand by the term ‘Self’. Discuss its various
dimensions giving examples.
5. “Adolescence is a time when all adolescents experience identity crisis”, do you
agree with the statement? Give reasons for your answers.
6. To what extent doe cultures shape the adolescent identity? Explain with
examples
7. List the emotional and cognitive changes during adolescence.

HOTS
1.Bharat is a boy carries several contradictions like “I am calm but get easily
disturbed” (5 marks)
a. Mention the stage of life of self?
b. Write characteristics the mentioned stage

2. Monika said that “I can run faster than seema” (5 marks)
a. At what stage of life comparison of self takes?
b. Write the characteristics of self of that stage?

3. Kiran is a boy; he often overestimates himself. Thus he says, “I am never
scared” or “I know all the poems”, but he may not remember them completely.
(5 marks)
a. Mention the stage of life of self
b. Write characteristics the mentioned stage.

4. Your 15-year-old brother is finding difficulty in formation of his identity.
Mention any three reasons for it. (3 marks)

5. Rahul is a youth and seems to be in a dilemma. Give him suggestions regarding
this stage? (3 marks)
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CHAPTER 3 -FOOD, NUTRITION, HEALTH AND FITNESS
PART-A

I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1. Hormonal activities are increased in which stage of human life?
a. Childhood
b. Adulthood
c. Adolescence
d. Infancy

2. Various types of food provide to keep ourselves healthy.
a. Nutrients
b. Energy
c. Heat / Calories
d. None of the above

3. The science of food and nutrients and its effect on our health is
called____________.
a. Nutritious
b. Nutrition
c. Clinical nutrition
d. Dietary allowance

4. Macronutrients are required in amounts in body.
a. More
b. Less
c. Balanced
d. Both c) and d)

5.Foods sharing common characteristics which are grouped together are called _.
a. Balanced diet
b. Nutrients
c. Nutrition
d. Food group

6. In pulses and legumes food group, _________________ is found in abundance.
a. Protein
b. Carbohydrates
c. Vitamins
d. Fats

7. 1gram fat provides kilo calories of energy.
a. 4
b. 9
c. 6
d. 7

8. Raw fruits and vegetables provide.
a. Fiber
b. Retinol
c. Vitamin-D
d. Protein

9. Girls are especially suffering from_____________.
a. Anaemia
b. Night blindness
c. Scurvy
d. Beriberi

10.A person suffering from ____________vomit out excess food by purging.
a. Anorexia
b. Night blindness
c. Bulimia
d. Anaemia

11. Anaemia is caused by the deficiency of ____________.
a. Vitamin
b. Iron
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

Answers
1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.a, 5.d, 6.a, 7.b, 8.a, 9.a, 10.c, 11.b.

PART-B
I. Answer the following questions (2 Marks)
1. Give difference between food and nutrition?
2. Define mental health.
3. Give definition of nutrients and name them.
4. Define health.
5. What do you mean by activity level?

6. Write the definition of balanced food.
7. Give difference between RDA and minimum requirement.
8. Give difference between macronutrients and micronutrients.
9. Give difference between health and fitness?
10.Which nutrients are provided by food group - milk and meat products?
11. How food group helps in planning of balanced diet?
12. Why cereal and grain products are kept at the lower level in food pyramid?
13. How dietary pattern changes in adolescence?
14.Tendency of consuming fast food is seen in adolescence. What does this
signify?
15. What are the limitations of fast foods?
16. What is the importance of exercise in adolescence?
17. How adolescence and anaemia is related?
18. What is Anorexia nervosa?
19. What do you mean by Bulimia?
20. How RDA is associated with needs?
21. What is Food Pyramid?
22. Why food groups were formed?
23. Why seasonal fruits and vegetables should be used?
24. Which nutrients are not present in milk?
25. What substitute can be taken by vegetarians for meat?
26. Which diseases can occur in body due to bad dietary habits?
27. Why snacking is popular in adolescence?
28. How media influences dieting in adolescence?
29. Why exercise is essential for adolescents?
30. How substance abuse can be reduced in adolescence?
31. What is the influence of Peer group on adolescent?
32. Why ready to eat food is so popular in adolescence?
33. Name the eating disorders found in adolescence?

PART-C
II. Answer the following questions (3 Marks)
1. What do you mean by balanced diet? While preparing it what points you will
keep in mind?
2. Explain how the use of food groups simplifies planning of balanced diet?
3. Write the aspects of balanced diet.
4. List the difference between snacking and fast food?
5.Explain any three points in how to modify diet related behavior in adolescence?
6. The prevalence of Anaemia is high in adolescence. Justify this statement.

7. List 10 foods which belong to the protective food groups. State reasons for
your choice?
8. List the external factors that influences the eating pattern in adolescence.
9. List the internal factors that influences the eating pattern in adolescence.

PART-D
Answer the following questions (5 marks)
1. Dieting is becoming a crucial problem among adolescence. How can we create
awareness among youth regarding dieting?
2 Write in detail about two eating disorders that may arise at adolescence? What
would be the best way to prevent their occurrence?
3. Adolescence is a period of “Storm and Stress”. Do you agree with the
statement? Give four reasons for your answer.
4. Which points you will keep in mind while preparing balanced diet using food
groups? Explain with the help of food pyramid diagram.
5.Write the name of one eating disorder at adolescence stage. Suggest any two
ways of preventing this disease.
6. a. What do you understand by food guide pyramid?
b. What does size of its each section represent?
c. Illustrate the different sections of food guide pyramid.
7. Explain briefly the dietary pattern in adolescence.
8. What is food pyramid? Explain with neat labelled diagram
9. Write the guidelines for using the basic food groups.
10. Classify five basic food groups suggested by ICMR.

HOTS:
1.Mahitha aspires to have a perfect body. She began to ignore the advice of
parents and teachers and almost stopped eating. She has become obsessed with
having a very thin body. Although her current weight is normal. She is unaware
that she is undernourished and insists that she is fat. .
(5 marks)
a. Name the eating disorder that mahitha is having?
b. Suggest balanced diet for mahitha using food pyramid

2. Kavitha a girl, she indulge in bingeing and induces purging by vomiting or
using laxatives. (5 marks)
a. At what stage of life this disorder occurs and name the disorder
b. Write the consequences of the above disorder.

3. A 14-year-old girl is identified with low iron levels and she is underweight. (5
marks)
a. Name the nutrient required to overcome anaemia.
b. Define balanced diet.
c. Write guidelines including requirement of nutrients to overcome anaemia.

4. Pranavi and Nakshatraa are adolescents, always watching TV while having
their meal and addicted to snacks. Suggest some tips to adopt healthy dietary
practices for them. (5 marks)

6. On staying at home, your adolescent friend has become very lazy. Ask him/her
to include physical exercises and give some tips to increase physical activity.
(3 marks)

7. Renu is not happy with her self-image and wants to lose weight. She has almost
stopped eating food. Name the disorder she is suffering from?
(1 mark)

8. Puja is an adolescent who is influenced by dieting. What advice will you give
her to leave this habit? (1 mark)

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CHAPTER 4- MANAGEMENT OF RESOURCES
PART-A

I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given

1.______________are used for achieving any goal or completing any activity?
a. Planning
a. Resources
b. Organizing
c. Implementation

2. Money is ____________ resource?
a. Human resource
b. Non-human resource
c. Natural resource
d. Community resource

3.Which of the following is human resource?
a. Money
b. Transport
c. Book
d. Skills

4.Which of the following is not a human resource
a. Knowledge
b. Material goods
c. Time
d. Energy

5. For completing any task we need to do planning for that task. What is the first
step of Management process?
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Implementation
d. Controlling

6.__________ is a process in which we need to organize resources for achieving
our goals?
a. Planning
b. Implementation

c. Controlling
d. Organizing

7. Radha used to go to school in her school bus if one day that school bus not
comes to pick her up then she may replace that bus with her Personal car and go
to school in her car. These situations tell us about which characteristics of our
resource?
a. Management
b. Utility
c. Accessibility
d. Interchangeability

8. House is example of which resource?
a. Natural resource
b. Physical resource
c. Human resource
d. Shared resource

9.Space, furniture, clothes, stationary, food items are examples of ____________.
a. Natural resources
b. Money resources
c. Shared resources
d. Material resources

10.In how many ways the sources are categorized?
a. Two
b. Four
c. One
d. five

11.How many steps are there in management process?
a. Four
b. Three
c. Two
d. Five

12.While doing any activity when we monitor that activity we call it?
a. Implementation
b. Controlling
c. Evaluation

d. Organizing

13.How many steps are there in planning?
a. Five
b. Three
c. Four
d. Six

14.Which is the last step of management process?
a. Planning
b. Implementation
c. Organizing
d. Evaluation

15.____________is a process in which we compare final result from the
Planned outcome?
a. Management resource
b. Management
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation

16.When we are actually performing the planned activity for a goal we call it?
a. Implementation
b. Controlling
c. Organizing
d. Evaluation

17.Use of our resources in an effective manner we call it?
a. Human resource
b. Management Process
c. Natural Resource
d. Implementation

18.By identifying the problem we choose our resources this process we call :
a. Organizing
b. Planning
c. Controlling
d. Managing Resources

19. Which of the following is not the step of management process?
a. Human resource
b. Evaluation
c. Organizing
d. Implementation

20. The resources available for personal use of any person, what we call these
resources?
a. Natural resource
b. Shared resource
c. Community resource
d. Individual resource

21. For doing any activity we learn so many new things. In human resource, this
is what kind of resource?
a. Energy
b. Knowledge
c. Time
d. Skills

22. The relation between our present state and future state is called
a. Interval
b. Knowledge
c. Time
d. Energy

Answers
1.b, 2.b, 3.d, 4.b, 5.a, 6.d, 7.d, 8.b, 9.d, 10.c, 11.d, 12.b, 13.a, 14.d, 15.d, 16.a,
17.b, 18.b, 19.a, 20.d, 21.d, 22.a.

PART-B
I Answer the following questions (2 Marks)
1. What do you mean by resources?
2. What do you mean by human resources? Explain with example.
3. In how many ways we categorize resources?
4. What do you mean by Non-Human Resources? Explain with example.
5. What do you mean by Management Process? How many steps of management
process have?
6. What do you mean by planning? Explain with example.
7. In any Management process what do you mean by evaluation?

8.“There is always a substitute for each and every resource”. Explain this
statement.
9. How natural resources are important? How we have to use these natural
resources?
10. How many steps planning has?
11.Why should resources be managed?

PART-C
II Answer the following questions (3 Mark)

1. Classify resources in three different ways giving the definition of each resource
and two examples of each.
2. Human resources are known as Central for completing any task. Explain this.
3.What do you mean by Management process? Explain planning as a step of
management process.
4. Name the steps of the management process. Explain the planning process.
5. Differentiate between Natural and Community resources.
6. What do you mean by Management process? Explain in detail.
7. Explain the steps in the management, using one example to clarify each step.
8. Differentiate between individual resources and shared resources.
9. List the steps in planning.

PART-D
III Answer the following questions (5 Marks)

1. What do you mean by Resource Management? Explain any two steps of
resource management.
2. Explain planning as a management process with the help of an example.
3. With the help of diagram explains the categorization of resources?
4. All the resources are accessible’ explain this statement?
5. Which points you should keep in mind while developing an effective plan for
arranging your birthday party?
6. Manoj tears pages from his school library books. In order to explain him the
importance of resources, first, tell him the characteristics of resources?

HOTS (5 marks)

1. Radha used to go to school in her school bus if one day that school bus not
comes to pick her up then she may replace that bus with her Personal car and go
to school in her car.

a. These situations tell us about which characteristics of our resource?
b. Write the characteristics of resources

1. In your school your annual exam is going to be held and in this annual
exam only 3 months are left. You want to achieve good marks in the annual
exam so how will you manage your resources for achieving this goal?

2. Assume you are Rakesh/Rakshitha and you are assigned with annual day
celebration from college. How you are going to manage the resources
available to you? Explain it briefly.

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CHAPTER 5 - FABRIC AROUND US

I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given

1. _____________ are the basic building blocks of fabrics.
a) Threads b) Fibres c) Dyes d) Patterns

2. _________________ term is used to describe fibres, yarns, and fabrics
collectively.
a) Materials b) Threads c) Textile products d) Finishes

3. _________ is the essential property of a fibre that is crucial for converting it
into yarn and fabric.
a) Color b) Spinnability c) Elasticity d) Weight

4. ________ property of fibres is most important for consumer satisfaction in
terms of appearance.
a) Abrasion resistance b) Colour and luster
c) Moisture absorption d) Effect of soap

5. __________ is the process of converting solid raw materials into a fibrous
form.
a) Dyeing b) Spinning c) Weaving d) Finishing

6. Spinnerette used in the yarn production process mainly to______
a) Dye the fibre b) Extrude the spinning solution into filaments
c) Dissolve the raw material d) Weave the filaments into fabric

7. Texurisation process improves _________characteristic.
a) Color stability b) Stretch and bulk characteristics
c) Fiber length d) Dye absorption

8. The term used for yarn composed of multiple individual filaments twisted
together called as_______
a) Staple yarn b) Multifilament yarn
c) Spun yarn d) Single filament yarn

9. ____________, staple length fibres are used in yarn production.
a) To create filaments b) To produce spun yarns
c) To make multifilament yarns d) To dye the yarn

10. Higher yarn number indicate ___________ yarn.
a) Thicker and coarser b) More expensive c) Finer d) Has more twist

11. In yarn production process, the image indicates ___________

a) Spinnerette b) Funnel c) Pipe d) Shower

12. The key characteristic of yarn that is defined by its
numbers______________
a) Its color b) Its length c) Its fineness d) Its twist

13. The main types of fabrics that can be made directly from fibres
are___________
a) Woven and knitted fabrics b) Felts and non-wovens
c) Blended and dyed fabrics d) Stretch and textured fabrics

14. Non-woven fabrics can ________
a) Have a more refined texture than woven fabrics
b) Be made in any shape and thickness
c) Be more elastic than knitted fabrics
d) Have a higher durability than woven fabrics

15. ___________ is the primary process used in weaving to create fabric
a) Spinning
b) Knitting
c) Interlacing yarns at right angles
d) Bonding fibres

16. In weaving _______ machine is used to maintain the tension and spacing of
warp and weft yarns.
a) Spinning wheel
b) Knitting machine
c) Loom
d) Carding machine

17. The term "grain" refers to __________ in a woven fabric.
a) The thickness of the yarn b) The direction of the yarns
c) The color pattern d) The texture of the fabric

18. The attachments like the dobby or jacquard in a loom are used
to____________
a) Dye the fabric b) Create figurative designs
c) Cut the fabric d) Add texture to the fabric

19._________ type of woven fabric texture is created by leaving loops uncut.
a) Towel b) Corduroy c) Velvet d) Denim

20.______ finish is described as needing to be reapplied as it gets removed on
washing.
a) Durable b) Routine c) Renewable d) Special

21. Color added to fabric at the fiber stage by_________
a) Dyeing the yarns before weaving
b) Applying color to the finished fabric
c) Incorporating dyes directly into the fiber
d) Using colored thread in the stitching

22. The "sizing" is done to the fabric to change__________
a) Appearance b) Behaviour c) Colour d) Texture

23. The term "scouring" refer to_________ in the context of fabric finishing.
a) Adding a protective coating to the fabric
b) Removing impurities from natural fibers
c) Adding dyes to the fabric
d) Increasing the fabric’s elasticity

24. Main purpose of fabric dyeing at the fabric stage is______
a) To improve the fabric’s strength
b) To add a solid color or design to the fabric
c) To make the fabric more elastic
d) To enhance the fabric’s water resistance

25. The process of obtaining cotton from the seed pod is________
a) Retting b) Ginning c) Spinning d) Weaving

26. Denim fabric is made from____________________.
a) Silk b) Cotton c) Wool d) Nylon

27. The process of removing the soft parts of the flax plant stems to obtain linen
fibers is _________
a) Spinning b) Ginning c) Retting d) Weaving

28. Process of carding prepare fibers for spinning_____
a) By dyeing them
b) By straightening and aligning them
c) By cutting them into staple lengths
d) By twisting them into yarns

29. ___________ is a key characteristic that differentiates linen from cotton in
terms of dye absorption.
a) Linen absorbs dyes more readily than cotton.
b) Linen does not absorb dyes readily
c) Cotton does not absorb dyes more readily than linen
d) Both linen and cotton absorb dyes equally well.

30. Jute and hemp are used for __________due to their coarser texture and lower
flexibility.
a) Luxury apparel
b) Fine textiles
c) Ropes and gunny bags
d) High-fashion garments

31. The process of removing vegetable matter from wool fibers is _________
a) Scouring b) Carding c) Carbonisation d) Retting

32. The primary reason for blending wool with other fibers like cotton, rayon, and
polyester is________
a) To improve wool's dye absorption
b) To enhance wool's strength and reduce its cost
c) To improve wool's care and maintenance properties
d) To make wool more flexible

33. Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of wool fibers?
a) Woolen fibers have a natural crimp.
b) Woolen fibers are highly elastic and resilient.
c) Woolen fibers are not water-repellent.
d) Woolen fibers can absorb a significant amount of water without feeling wet.

34. The property of surface scales of wool is to_______
a) Increase water absorption b) Improve elasticity
c) Make wool more water-repellent d) Enhance dye absorption

35. Choose the correct statement about silk.
A) Cultivated silk(mulberry) is coarser and shorter, while wild silk(tussar) is
smoother and longer.
B) Cultivated silk(mulberry) is smoother and finer, while wild silk is coarser and
stronger.

a) A is true B is false b) Both A and B are true
c) A is false B is true d) Both A and B are false

36. If the filaments of silk break during production they are__________
a) Discarded.
b) Processed into spun silk.
c) Used as it is.
d) Woven into fabric without further processing.

37. ________ type of silk is known for producing a thicker and coarser fabric.
a) Mulberry silk b) Cultivated silk c) Tussar silk d) Spun silk

38. What is another common name for acrylic fiber?
a) Woollen b) Cashmilon c) Woolite d) Cashmere

39. Match the fibre from column A with the fabric in column B
Column A Column B
A) Cotton i. Hosiery
B) Linen ii. Muslin
C) Nylon iii. Lycra
D) Acrylic iv. Gunny bags
a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
c) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i d) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

40. Choose the correct sequence used in obtaining wool from sheep.
a) Shearing---fleece ----sorting--- scouring---- carbonization --- spinning
b) Sorting---fleece ---- shearing--- carbonization ---- scouring --- spinning
c) Shearing--- sorting----fleece --- scouring ---- carbonization --- spinning
d) Shearing---scouring ----carbonization --- fleece ---- sorting--- spinning

Answers
1.b, 2.c 3. b, 4.b, 5.b, 6.b, 7.b, 8.b, 9.b, 10.c, 11.a, 12.c, 13. b, 14.b, 15.c, 16.c,
17.b, 18.b, 19.a, 20.c, 21.c, 22.d, 23.b, 24.b, 25.b, 26.b, 27.c, 28.b, 29.b, 30.c,
31.c, 32.c, 33.c, 34.c, 35.c, 36.b, 37.c, 38.b, 39.b, 40.a.

PART B

I Answer the following questions (2 Mark)
1. Name the building block of fabric. Name the textile products.
2. What do you mean by finishing?
3. Why is spinnability important for fabric production?
4. List two consumer-desired properties of fibers that affect the satisfaction with
the final fabric.
5. Classify fibre depending on the origin.
6. Classify fibre depending on the length.
7. What do you mean by texturization?
8. When and what was the first manufactured fibre commercially produced?
9. How is spinning solution produced from solid raw materials?
10. What do you mean by spinnerette? How does it help in yarn production?
11. What do you mean by carding and combing?
12. What is a sliver? How is it prepared?
13. At what stage is the initial and final twist applied to the sliver?
14. Name any two fabrics blended with cotton.
15. Name any two fabrics blended with Terene.
16. Differentiate yarn and thread.
17. Name any two types of fabrics that are made directly from fibres.
18. How is non-woven fabric is synthesized?
19. What is warp and weft yarn?
20. Differentiate durable and renewable finishes.
21. Explain how the shoelaces are prepared?
22. List the different types of silk.
23. Name the strongest and weakest fibres.

PART C
II Answer the following questions (3 Mark)
1. List the natural fibres with the example.
2. List the manufactured fibres with the example.
3. List the types of finishes depending on the functions with example.
4. Explain the different stages at which colour application can be done.
5. Explain the different steps involved in removal of wool from a sheep.
6. List the different types and their properties.

PART D
III Answer the following questions (5 Mark)
1. Explain the steps in yarn synthesis.
2. List the properties of cotton/linen/wool/silk/rayon/nylon/polyester.
3. Write a note on weaving.
4. What do you understand by knitting? Explain the usefulness of knitted cloth.

5. Differentiate between Nets and Laces.

HOTS
1. Sita is planning to buy a silk sari for her friend's wedding.
a) What are the different types of silk fibres available? (2M)
b) How do the different kinds of silk fibres differ from one another? (2M)
c) What is meant by spun silk? (1M)

3. Pradeep wants to cover the floor of his shop with a mat.
a) What types of mats can be made without the process of weaving? (1M)
b) Briefly explain the process. (2M)

****************************************

CHAPTER -6 - MEDIA AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY

PART-A
I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1. _________________ is the primary meaning of the word "communication" as
derived from its Latin origin.
a) Private exchange b) Common sharing
c) Formal presentation d) Personal conversation

2. ___________describes as a simple and effective communication channel.
a) Email b) Face-to-face, c) Social media d) Television

3. __________ describes the effective communication process.
a) Exchanging information without understanding
b) Analyzing ideas independently
c) Creating a shared understanding of the message
d) Observing and analyzing messages independently

4. ________ is the primary focus of intra-personal communication.
a) Communicating with others in a group setting
b) Observing and analyzing one’s own thoughts and behaviors
c) Sharing ideas in a formal meeting
d) Engaging in public speaking

5. __________ method is NOT typically associated with inter-personal
communication.
a) Body movements
b) Facial expressions
c) Mental rehearsal
d) Verbal modes like words and sounds

6. Inter-personal communication can be made effective by______________.
a) The use of advanced technology
b) Instantaneous feedback and direct contact
c) Formal documentation
d) Written exchanges only

7. ____________ scenario is an example of inter-personal communication.
a) Writing a research paper b) Talking to a friend
c) Listening to a podcast d) Watching a documentary

8. _____________ is a defining feature of group communication.
a) It involves only one person in the process
b) It is direct and personal, involving more than two persons
c) It is limited to formal settings only
d) It excludes self-expression

9. Audiences of mass communication are characterized by_____________
a) Small and homogeneous
b) Large, heterogeneous, and anonymous
c) Intimate and familiar
d) Directly accessible for immediate feedback

10. ____________ type of feedback is typical in mass communication.
a) Immediate and direct
b) Slow, cumulative, and delayed
c) Personal and interactive
d) Spontaneous and informal

11. The information flow in _________ is expected to be two-way at the same
level and one-way across levels.
a) Mass communication
b) Intra-personal communication
c) Inter-personal communication
d) Intra-organizational communication

12.__________ setting is characterized by structured relationships and
hierarchical levels.
a) Mass communication
b) Intra-personal communication
c) Inter-personal communication
d) Intra-organizational communication

13. _______________ is responsible for initiating the process of communication.
a) The receiver b) The medium c) The source d) The feedback

14. A good message be ___________in relation to the channels selected and the
receiver group.
a) Generalized and vague
b) Specific, authentic, and applicable
c) Complex and lengthy
d) Informal and irrelevant

15. A "channel" is ____________in the context of communication.
a) The feedback from the receiver
b) The medium through which information flows from sender to receiver
c) The content of the message
d) The person initiating the communication

16. The emphasis on communication channels changed over time from_______
a) Advanced mass media to face-to-face communication
b) Word-of-mouth to advanced mass media and multimedia technologies
c) Print media to face-to-face
d) Email

17. _____________ type of communication channel includes satellite.
a) Inter-personal b) Mass media c) Face-to-face d) Written notes

18. _____________ is referred to as the "receiver" in the communication process.
a) The person who initiates the message
b) The medium through which the message is sent
c) The intended audience or target of the communication
d) The feedback mechanism

19. _____________ increases the chances of successful communication.
a) A heterogeneous receiver groups
b) A complex and advanced channel
c) A more homogeneous receiver group
d) A longer message length

20. Communication process terminate successfully when the___________
a) Message is sent without any feedback
b) Response to the message is as expected
c) Feedback is irrelevant
d) Message is ignored

21. ____________ is an example of feedback in the communication process.
a) A teacher delivering a lesson
b) A letter from a reader to a newspaper editor
c) An initial message sent without response
d) The process of creating a message

22. ___________________ medium acts as a channel for sound waves in verbal
communication.
a) Water b) Vacuum c) Air d) Solid objects

23. Traditional media is characterized by________
a) Digital technology
b) Historical and folk communication methods
c) Exclusively based on satellite communication
d) Only written texts and online platforms

24. ______________ is an example of traditional media used in rural and remote
areas.
a) Social media platforms
b) Traditional folk theatre like Jatra
c) Online news websites
d) Digital advertising

25. ___________ is NOT considered a traditional folk media.
a) Puppetry b) Folk dances c) Email newsletters d) Oral literature

26. __________ traditional folk theatre is associated with Uttar Pradesh.
a) Jatra b) Ramleela c) Yakshagana d) Tamash

27. _________ type of media includes folk songs and dances like Bhangra and
Garba.
a) Modern media
b) Print media
c) Traditional oral literature-cum-musical forms
d) Satellite communication

28.___________ is an example of a traditional folk song from Madhya Pradesh.
a) Bihu b) Baul c) Sna d) Garba

29. __________ is the significance of fairs and festivals in traditional media.
a) They are used exclusively for entertainment
b) They serve as platforms for communication and cultural expression
c) They are replaced by modern digital media
d) They are only relevant in urban areas

30. __________ involves the use of charts, posters, and local publications.
a) Modern mass media b) Traditional print media
c) Digital media d) Satellite media

31. _________ is a common traditional puppetry form used in Rajasthan and
Gujarat.
a) Shadow puppets b) String puppets (Sutradharika)
c) Hand puppets d) Finger puppet

32. Chaya Putli (shadow puppets) predominantly seen in_____________.
a) Northern India b) Eastern India c) Southern India d) Western India

33 Media can make learning more interesting and engaging by____________
a) Focusing solely on text-based materials
b) Using entertainment-based approaches
c) Avoiding any form of multimedia
d) Emphasizing formal lectures only

34. What role does pictographic presentation play in communication?
a) It simplifies difficult concepts for easier understanding
b) It complicates information further
c) It replaces the need for verbal communication
d) It excludes the use of visual aids

35. _____________ example illustrates the use of media for interpretation.
a) Reading a novel
b) Using a cartographic map to locate a geographical area
c) Attending a live performance
d) Writing a research paper

36. _______ can enhance educational experiences by focusing on local problems.
a) Interactive instruction videos and audio cassettes
b) General news channels
c) Global documentaries
d) International films

37. Modern interactive communication technology changed project coordination
by______
a) Increasing the need for physical meetings
b) Reducing distance and physical proximity
c) Reducing the scope and accuracy of communication
d) Limiting communication to small local areas

38. Effective communication require a deeper understanding of ______
a) Technological advancements
b) Audience psychology and socio-cultural background
c) Business strategies
d) Historical events

39. __________provides both traditional and modern media.
a) Educational textbooks
b) Folk media and Direct to Home (DTH) telecasts

c) Scientific journals
d) Formal reports

40. Media act as a catalyst for national development by __________
a) limiting communication to specialists only
b) Mediating between specialists and laypersons
c) Focusing exclusively on local issues
d) Avoiding technological advancements

41. Primary function of modern media technologies in communication is ____
a) To restrict access to information
b) To provide diverse and advanced ways to reach audiences
c) To limit communication to specific groups
d) To avoid using technological advancements

42. An example of a cable (land) based technology is__________
a) Radio b) Satellite telephony c) Landline telephone d)Bluetooth technology

43. Wireless technologies compared to cable-based technologies ________
a) Are generally cheaper and less complicated.
b) Require more infrastructure and are generally more expensive.
c) Are always more reliable than cable-based technologies.
d) Use physical cables for transmission.

44. ______ technology is known for its ability to overcome barriers of time and
space through on-the-spot or simulated broadcast.
a) Television
b) Radio
c) Landline telephone
d) Personal computer without internet

45. Television was introduced in India in the year_________, and for _________
purpose.
a) 1965, entertainment
b) 1959, education and rural development
c) 1975, commercial advertising
d) 1980, urban development

46. _________ technique is used in television to enhance visual presentation.
a) Radio frequency modulation b) Zooming
c) Bluetooth pairing d) Satellite transmission

47. __________ technology is primarily used for communication in mobile
phones and computers through short-range data exchange.
a) Satellite telephony b) Radio c) Bluetooth d) Cable-based internet

48. __________ is the typical data transmission rate of Bluetooth Technology.
a) 100 Mbps b) 10 Mbps c) 1 Mbps d) 10 Kbps

49. Micro-computers ___________ compared to mainframes and mini
computers.
a) Are larger and costlier.
b) Are based on microchip technology and are generally less powerful.
c) Offer higher power and speed than mini computers.
d) Have more memory than mainframes.

50. Function of video text or view-data is to___________.
a) Transmit video content over radio waves
b) Provide electronic text services via telephone network or cable system
c) Broadcast live television programs
d) Create physical mail for delivery

51. Video text interact with the viewer by _____________
a) Allowing viewers to access only pre-set channels
b) Enabling viewers to access and choose desired data interactively
c) Broadcasting unchangeable content
d) Limiting data access to only specific times

52. ___________ is NOT a feature of video text.
a) Interactive access to desired data
b) Transmission over telephone networks or cable systems
c) Live video streaming
d) Electronic text service

53. The key feature of electronic mail (E-mail) is ___________
a) It requires physical mail delivery
b) It sends information electronically from one computer to another
c) It transmits messages using radio signals
d) It stores messages in physical post offices

54. ___________ component is essential for accessing E-mail.
a) A television set
b) A fax machine
c) A modem connected to the telephone line
d) A postal service

55. ___________ is used to transmit video text to home TV sets.
a) Satellite network
b) Telephone network or cable system
c) Radio frequency network
d) Wi-Fi network

56. In an interactive video system, how is the user’s experience shaped?
a) By predetermined content that cannot be altered by the user
b) By the user’s response, which determines the path and type of content received
c) By sending messages via postal service
d) By restricting the choice of multimedia elements

57. _________ elements are NOT typically used in interactive video.
a) Audio b) Text c) Live video streaming d) Overhead projectors

58. Choose the correct statement.
A) Mass communication is a process of multiplying messages with the help of
any mechanical device and disseminating the same to the masses.
B) The audiences of mass communication are small in size and homogeneous.
a) A is true B is false b) Both A and B are true
c) A is false B is true d) Both A and B are false

59. Match the column A with the column B
Column A Column B
a) Bluetooth i) Post office
b) E mail ii) microchip technology
c) Interactive video iii) radio frequency
d) Micro- computers iv) multi -media approach
a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
c) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i d) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

60. The message is __________, If the response to a message does not yield the
desired results.
a) Complete b) Ignored c) Rethought d) Disregarded

Answers
1.b, 2.b 3.c, 4.b, 5.c, 6.b, 7.b, 8.b, 9.b, 10.b, 11.d, 12.d, 13.c, 14.b, 15.b, 16.b,
17.b, 18.c, 19.c, 20.b, 21.b, 22.c, 23.b, 24.b, 25.c, 26.b, 27.c, 28.c, 29.b, 30.b,
31.b, 32.c, 33.b, 34.a, 35.b, 36.a, 37.b, 38.a, 39.b, 40.b. 41.b, 42.c, 43.a, 44.b,
45.b, 46.b, 47.c, 48.c, 49.b, 50.b, 51.b, 52.d, 53.b, 54.c, 55.b, 56.b, 57.d, 58.a,
59.a. 60.c.

PART B
I Answer the following questions (2 Mark)
1. Classify communication based on the type of interaction.
2. Classify communication based on the mode of communication.
3. List the different types of communication based on levels of communication.
Explain any two.
4. Differentiate between Intra-personal communication and Inter- personal
communication.
5. What are the two primary advantages of inter-personal communication in
facilitating effective persuasion and motivation?
6. What role does non-verbal communication play in inter-personal
communication, and provide two examples.
7. Mention any two traditional media of communication in north India.
8. Mention any two traditional media of communication in south India.
9. Explain any three ways where adolescents are influenced by media?
10. How do media help in transmission of values?
11. Which function of media will help Ramesh simplify his report by presenting
complex data in a clearer, more understandable format?
12. Differentiate cable based and wireless technology with the example.
13. What are the different types of computers?
14. Bluetooth technology is used in which type of machines?
15. What is visual data called?
16. How does teleconferencing help in communication?

PART C
II Answer the following questions (3 Mark).
1. Explain the type of communication where the homogeneous people are
involved.
2. In mass communication, response is slow and delayed. Give reasons.
3. How is the classification of communication done based on the number of
associated senses?
4. What are essential factors for a person to consider when crafting and
disseminating messages?(Ans-SMCRE-message).
5. What characteristics define the receiver in the communication process, and
why is understanding these characteristics crucial for effective communication?
6. Explain the significance of feedback in the communication process,
highlighting its role as both an initiating and terminating element.
7. Explain any three functions of media.
8. Write a note on Radio.
9. Write a note on television.
10. Explain any three modern communication technologies

PART D

III Answer the following questions (5 Mark)
1. Explain any five levels of communication.
2. What are the five components of SMCRE model explain with the help of a
diagram?
3. Explain the difference between Intra-organizational communication and Inter-
organizational communication?
4. Explain any five methods where youth have been influenced by media
5. Information technology is a boon or a curse for students - write in your own
words.
6. How does feedback influence the communication process, and what actions
can communicators take in response to undesirable feedback?

HOTS
1. Raju traveled to a remote village in Rajasthan to visit his grandmother.
a. What kind of communication and entertainment does he observe? (1M)
b. List the different types of communication observed in North India. (4M)

2. A group of students was tasked with organizing the College Day program.
a. Which strategy of communication can be observed in a panel discussion? (1M)
b. Give two reasons to find motivation or improvement in such discussions? (4M)

3. A medical company wants to launch a product on hand wash.
a. Which model can be used to reach the receiver before launching the product.
(Answer: SMCRE model)

***************************************

7A. NUTRITION, HEALTH AND HYGIENE

PART-A
I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given

1. Social health includes________________
a) Only access to medical services
b) The ability to function as a member of society
c) Personal wealth and economic success
d) Participation in physical activities

2. _________ helps individuals cope with stress and solve problems.
a) Regular exercise
b) Healthy diet
c) Social support
d) Professional success

3. Which statement is true regarding social health?
Statement A- It only refers to the health of individuals.
Statement B - It refers to both individuals and society.
a) A is true B is false b) Both A and B are true
c) A is false B is true d) Both A and B are false

4. Positive mental health allow an individual to ______.
a) Avoid all stress
b) Utilize cognitive and emotional capabilities
c) Excel in physical activities
d) Avoid relationships

5. A person with good mental health is able to_______
a) Completely avoid emotional challenges
b) Function well in society and meet daily demands
c) Always remain happy without any stress
d) Avoid all cognitive activities

6. A physically healthy person is characterized by______________
a) Constantly feeling fatigued
b) Having adequate resistance to infection and disease
c) Inability to undertake normal activities
d) Being free from all diseases

7. A person with good physical health:
a) Struggles with infections
b) Feels unusually tired during normal activities
c) Has the energy to carry out daily tasks
d) Requires medication to function normally

8. Poor nutritional status affects the body by _________
a) Increasing resistance and immunity
b) Decreasing resistance and immunity
c) Providing more energy
d) Improving digestion

9. During an infection, the body loses a significant amount of nutrients through
________
a) Sweating and breathing b) Vomiting and diarrhoea
c) Urination d) Physical activity

10. _______ happens when nutrient intake is insufficient during an infection.
a) The risk of another infection decreases
b) The infection is cured faster
c) Increases the risk of further infections
d) Appetite improves

11. ______ factor is essential in determining nutritional status besides food
intake.
a) Environmental factors b) Physical exercise
c) Time of eating d) Food preferences

12. ______ global campaign emphasizes the promotion of nutrition as a primary
element.
a) Fit for Life
b) Health for All
c) Global Health Movement
d) Nutrition First

13. Illness affect nutrient requirements by_____________
a) Decreasing nutrient requirements
b) Having no impact on nutrient needs
c)Increasing nutrient requirements
d)Affecting carbohydrate intake

14. Macronutrients are required in ___________ amounts.
a) Tiny amounts b) Moderate amounts c) Larger amounts d)Varying amounts

15. ______________ is a Macronutrient.
a) Iron b) Zinc c) Protein d) Vitamin C

16. ____________is a Micronutrients.
a) Fibre b) Selenium c) Carbohydrates d) Proteins

17. _________________ is a fat-soluble vitamin.
a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin C d) Riboflavin

18. Micronutrients often play _________role in the body.
a) Providing direct energy
b) Acting as co-factors and co-enzymes
c) Building muscle
d) Functioning as hormones

19. Which statement is true about nutrients and gene expression.
A. Nutrients have no influence on gene expression
B. Only proteins influence gene expression
C. Nutrients can influence gene expression and transcription
D. Nutrients stop gene expression

20. Nutrient requirements vary based on __________ factors.
a) Age, sex, and physiological state b) Race and nationality
c) Mood and emotions d) Blood type

21. __________________are involved in energy metabolism.
a) Vitamin A and Vitamin E
b) Thiamine and riboflavin
c) Vitamin K and Vitamin D
d) Calcium and magnesium

22. Macronutrients primarily provide_________.
a. Co-enzymes b. Energy c. Hormones d. Antioxidants

23. Which nutrient is primarily involved in gene transcription?
a) Carbohydrates b) Micronutrients c) Fibre d) Fats

24. Nutrient requirements vary during adolescence because of ____________
a) Increased activity of the immune system
b) Period of rapid growth and development
c) Reduced energy needs
d) Increase in mental stress

25. ___________ is essential for consuming all necessary nutrients in required
amounts.
a) High protein diet
b) Low fat diet
c) Balanced diet
d) Carbohydrate-rich diet

26. Nutritionists study____________ in the field of public health nutrition.
a) Preparing gourmet meals
b) Nutritional needs of animals
c) Prevention of diseases
d) Fitness training

27. __________ influences food security.
a) Social media
b) Purchasing power
c) Weather forecasts
d) Fashion trends

28. Food and nutrient security means__________.
a) Access to luxury foods only
b) Access to adequate food and nutrients throughout the year
c) Seasonal availability of food
d) Free food for all

29. Care for the vulnerable mean ______________.
a) Only providing medication
b) Offering loving care and attention
c) Ensuring they are independent
d) Leaving them alone

30. 'Health for all' include_____________
a) Only curing diseases b) Preventing and curing diseases
c) Providing free meals d) Only vaccination

31. Special attention be paid to infectious diseases because they_________
a) Are always fatal
b) They can deplete the body of nutrients
c) They cannot be cured
d) They don’t require medication

32. ___________ is crucial for a safe environment.
a) Exercise programs
b) Safe, potable drinking water
c) Abundant sunshine
d) Advanced technology

33. _________ is a major effect of undernutrition on children.
a) Improved cognitive development
b) Reduced cognitive development
c) Enhanced immunity
d) Increased body weight

34. Deficiency of _____ causes blindness in children.
a) Vitamin A b) Iron c) Iodine d) Calcium

35. __________ condition is NOT associated with iodine deficiency.
a) Goitre b) Blindness c) Stillbirth d) Cretinism

36. _________ effect does iron deficiency have on infants and young children.
a) Enhanced physical activity
b) Impaired psychomotor development
c) Improved cognitive skills
d) Increased weight gain

37. ________ deficiency can result in Goitre.
a) Iron b) Iodine c) Vitamin A d) Calcium

38. The consequence of over-nutrition is __________
a) Underweight b) Toxicity and obesity
c) Improved immunity d) Decreased risk of disease

39. __________ is the term used for the coexistence of undernutrition and over
nutrition in India.
a) Nutritional balance b) Double burden of malnutrition
c) Dietary equilibrium d) Nutrient overdose

40. ____________ percentage of urban women in India are overweight or obese,
according to NFHS-4.
a) 14.3% b) 26.6% c) 31.3% d) 15.0%

41. Over-nutrition can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular condition,
example____________.
a) Hypertension b) Diarrhea c) Cretinism d) Blindness

42. Besides sufficient food _________ influences nutritional status of a person.
a) Person's health status b) Amount of sleep
c) Social status d) Access to technology

43. During infection, body's nutrient reserve___________.
a) Increase b) Remain the same
c) Decreases d) Are not affected by infection

44. During infection, Insufficient nutrient intake leads to___________
a) Faster healing
b) Increased risk of another infection
c) Reduced chance of illness
d) Stronger immunity

45. Food-borne illnesses occur when food contains
a) Too much salt
b) Pathogenic micro-organisms or their toxins
c) Excessive amounts of sugar
d) Nutrients in high quantities

46. The common cause of food-borne illnesses is because of___________
a) Consuming food high in fat
b) Poor personal and food handling practices
c) Excessive consumption of vitamins
d) Using too much seasoning in food

47. Storing food at temperatures between 4°C and 60°C can lead to ________
a) Killing of micro-organisms
b) Multiplication of disease-causing micro-organisms
c) Proper preservation of food
d) Immediate spoilage of food

48. Match the column A with column B
Column A Column B
A) Iodine i) Anaemia
B) Iron ii) Metabolism
C) Vitamin A iii) Goitre
D) Thiamine iv) Blindness
a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
c) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iii d) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

49. Identify the type of hygiene being followed

a) Sniffing b) coughing c) prayer d) clapping

50. Choose the correct sequence of health care services.
a) Primary---Secondary—Tertiary
b) Secondary---Tertiary—Primary
c) Tertiary ---Secondary —Primary
d) Primary ---Tertiary— Secondary

Answers
1.b, 2.c, 3.c, 4.b, 5.b, 6.b, 7.c, 8.b, 9.b, 10.c, 11.a, 12.b, 13.c, 14.c, 15.c, 16.b,
17.b, 18.b, 19.c, 20.a, 21.b, 22.b, 23.b, 24.b, 25.c, 26.c, 27.b, 28.b, 29.b, 30.b,
31.b, 32.b, 33.b, 34.a, 35.b, 36.b, 37.b, 38.b, 39.b, 40.c, 41.a, 42..a, 43.c, 44.b,
45.b, 46.b, 47.b, 48.a, 49.b, 50.a.

PART B

I Answer the following questions (2 Mark)
1. How does social health influence health?
2. What do scientific studies show about socially well-adjusted individuals?
3. Mention any two social determinants of health.
4. Mention any two determinants of mental health.
5. What role does nutrition have on health?
6. Name any two mineral elements.
7. Classify nutrients with the example.
8. How do nutrient requirements vary based on physiological status?
9. Classify malnutrition.
10. What are the consequences of Iron deficiency?
11. What are the consequences of Iodine deficiency?
12. Name the factor of food borne illness to occur

PART C
II Answer the following questions (3 Mark)
1. Explain the three levels of social health care services.
2. List the indicators of health.

3. What is the importance of optimum nutritional status (Ans. Table 1: Optimum
nutritional status)
3. India is facing a ‘double-burden of malnutrition’. Justify
4. Mention the intrinsic factors linked with various diseases.
5. Mention the extrinsic factors linked with various diseases.
6. Explain the role of micronutrients in the body and give two examples.
7. How are nutrition and health interlinked, and why is nutrition a key element in
the 'Health for All' campaign?
8. Why is nutrition considered a ‘fundamental pillar’ of human life, health, and
development?
9. Write your opinion about this statement ‘Nutrition affects productivity’.
10. What kind of hygienic habits should be adapted in ‘Everyday Life’ for good
health and nutrition.

PART D

III Answer the following questions (5 Mark)
1. Summarize the benefits of good nutritional status for a child’s education.
2. Define health. Explain the factors affecting nutritional well-being.
3. Nutrition and infection are intimately interlinked. Give reasons.
4. List the environmental aspects of hygiene.
5. Which food borne illnesses can be spread by any food vendor selling
contaminated foods?
6. Mention the habits that contaminate foods.
7. What kind of hygienic habits should be adopted in everyday life for good health
and nutrition?
8. Ramu fell sick after eating cut fruits from the street. What could be the reason
for severity of the disease.
9. Tabulate the benefits of good nutritional status for children’s education.
10. Mention the intrinsic and extrinsic factors which are linked with various
diseases.

HOTS
1. Ravi, a five-year-old child, frequently suffers from infections. What are the
reasons behind his recurring infections?

2. Several people became ill after consuming pani-puri.
a) What factors contributed to the sickness?
b) Explain the reasons behind the illness.
c) What diseases can result from this?

3. Sunitha, a pregnant woman, has been diagnosed with anemia.
a) What are the causes of anemia?

b) How does anemia affect the development of the growing child?
4. How does nutrition play a crucial role in the growth and development of
children and adolescents within the global 'Health for All' campaign?

CHAPTER 7B - RESOURCE AVAILABILITY AND MANAGEMENT

PART-A
I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1. Time management become increasingly important because _________.
a) People want more rest and recreation
b) Of increased demands and responsibilities in daily life
c) Exams are becoming more difficult
d) Of technological advancements

2. The role of a time plan is to __________
a) helps students perform well in exams
b) schedules activities for a given time period
c) reduces the need to complete tasks
d) eliminates the need to concentrate on important tasks

3. Significance of getting into a routine helps ______________.
a) In managing time and completing tasks without delay
b) Allowing more time for relaxation
c) In reducing the amount of work
d) In deciding when to work

4. ___________ when the time available is less, but work is more.
a) Complete the optional tasks first
b) Focus on compulsory tasks first
c) Skip the important tasks altogether
d) Try to finish all tasks regardless of priority

5. Big tasks can be managed by_______________.
a) completing them all at once
b) dividing them into smaller, manageable tasks
c) leaving them for the last-minute
d) avoiding them if they seem too difficult

6. "Peak load period" is ______
a) time when a person feels most tired
b) maximum load of work during a specific time
c) period of complete rest
d) end of the day

7. In the work curve, the point "d" represents___________.

a) warming-up period
b) maximum ability to do work
c) period of maximum fall due to fatigue
d) rest period between tasks

8. Importance of rest periods or break periods in time management is
_______________.
a) They are non-productive interruptions that enhance performance
b) They should be as long as possible to maximize relaxation
c) They help prevent fatigue but should not be too long or too short
d) They should only be taken after completing all work

9. The "work simplification" means__________
a) Reducing the amount of work that needs to be done
b) Finding the simplest, easiest, and quickest method to do work
c) Completing the most difficult tasks first
d) Increasing the time spent on complex tasks

10.Frequency and duration of rest periods is important because, they should
___________.
a) Be long enough to allow full recovery
b) Prevent too many interruptions during the workday
c) Balance between not being too long or too short
d) Occur after every task is completed

11. Benefit of making a shopping list and buying all items together helps in
________.
a) Increasing the time to buy the product
b) Getting better discounts
c) Does not help in buying more items
d) Saving time

12. Benefit of developing skills at work____________.
a) It reduces the need to take breaks
b) It saves both time and energy by eliminating extra motions
c) It ensures work is done faster without improving quality
d) It increases the complexity of the task

13. Maintaining a good body posture is important during work because it
_________.
a) Reduces the need to use muscles
b) Helps in keeping the body in alignment, reducing strain on muscles
c) Makes tasks harder but improves flexibility
d) Only benefits people doing heavy lifting

14. In time management, combining certain processes helps in_________.
a) Increasing the number of tasks you can do simultaneously
b) Reducing the need for breaks
c) Elimination of unnecessary tasks, saving time and effort
d) Making tasks more enjoyable

15. _________ is the way to organize a workspace to save time and effort.
a) Storing equipment far from the work surface
b) Using labor-saving devices
c) Placing items randomly in the kitchen
d) Using outdated tools for every task

16. The benefit of rearranging kitchen equipment and planning work surfaces
is___________.
a) It makes the workspace more decorative
b) It reduces the need for storage space
c) It ensures proper height and width for user.
d) It eliminates the need for cleaning equipment

17. ________ example highlights a change in both raw materials and the finished
product.
a) Using ball pens instead of ink pens
b) Making lauki, paranthas instead of kofta curry
c) Using a pressure cooker instead of a regular pot
d) Using organic seeds to grow vegetables

18. In space planning “Aspect" refer to the _______.
a) Overall appearance of the house b) Arrangement of doors and windows
c) Privacy between rooms in a house d) Use of decorative elements

19. The “prospect" in the context of a house, refers to the____________
a) Internal layout of the rooms
b) Impression a house makes on someone from the outside
c) Arrangement of furniture inside the house
d) Materials used in building the house

20. Internal privacy be achieved in a house by _______
a) Planning the positioning of doors and using curtains
b) Planting trees and creepers around the house
c) Using soundproof walls between rooms
d) Building the house far from neighboring buildings

21. In large families, privacy is often ensured for women by_________
a) Placing all rooms close to each other
b) Providing a separate sitting area
c) Covering all windows with thick curtains
d) Using soundproof barriers between rooms

22. In space planning "roominess" refer to the____________.
a) Amount of furniture in a room
b) Spacious effect a room gives to its occupants
c) Number of windows and doors in a room
d) External appearance of the room

23. Functions of light in a building is to _____________.
a) Decorate and warm the room
b) Illuminate and help maintain hygiene
c) Provide warmth for insects
d) Ventilate the room

24. The purpose of ventilation in a building is to ________
a) Cool down the interior spaces
b) provide warmth in cold weather
c) Supply fresh air
d) Reduce noise from the outside

25. In space planning, “elegance” refers to _________
a) Using the most expensive materials to make a space look luxurious
b) Creating a spacious layout that balances aesthetics
c) Reducing costs by limiting decorations
d) Maximizing the number of rooms without considering aesthetics

26. Match the column A with column B
Column A Column B
A) Aspect i) curtains
B) Privacy ii) general layout of the plan
C) Circulation iii) independent entry
D) Elegance iv) arrangement of doors and windows
a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
c) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii d) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

Answers
1.b, 2.b, 3.a, 4.b, 5.b, 6.b, 7.c, 8.c, 9.b, 10.c, 11.d, 12.b, 13.b, 14.a, 15.b, 16.c,
17.a, 18.b, 19.b, 20.a, 21.b, 22.b, 24.c, 25b, 26.d,

PART B

I Answer the following questions (2 Mark)
1. Define time plan and what do you mean by peak load period?
2. Describe the work curve.
3. Give two examples for daily and weekly work.
4. Give two examples for compulsory and optional work.
5. List the qualities of a good message.
6. Give two examples for eliminating and combining work in time management.
7. Explain any two Principles of space management.
8. Why is the lobby or corridor important?
9. What kind of furniture should be there when space in the house is limited?
10. Which are the main places of work in the kitchen?
11. How can roominess be created in a house.
12. Make a list of various activities to be done in the house according to their
place of work.
a. Study room
b. Kitchen
c. Living room (hall)
13. What is the importance of ventilation in a house?
14. How are practical considerations incorporated into space management?

PART C

II Answer the following questions (3 Mark)
1. Explain any three tools in time management.
2. How can you maintain privacy in a house?
3. How does Change in end product help in time management?
4. Write a note on sanitation.
5. Explain any three principles of space management.

PART D

III Answer the following questions (5 Mark)
1. List the steps in time and activity plan.
2. Explain the tools requirement in time management.
3. Sita working at an IT sector has to balance the work and home. Suggest a few
ideas to simplify her shopping and household chores.
5. Explain any five principles of space management.

HOTS
1. Kavya, a nurse working twelve-hour shifts, needs to plan her home for greater
efficiency. What changes can she make in her workspace, storage, and equipment
usage to improve her routine?

2. How can a Class 12 student create an effective time and activity plan while
preparing for competitive exams?

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CHAPTER 7C - TEXTILES TRADITIONS IN INDIA
PART-A

I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1.______is a hand-loom woven technique used to make Dacca muslin fabrics.
a. Jamdani
b. Jaquard
c. Tangail
d. Sringar

2.______ is one of the oldest arts and fine fabric products have been made from
very early times.
a. Dyeing
b. Stitching
c. weaving
d. printing

3.Origin of silk was in ______
a. India
b. China
c. Srilanka
d. United states

4. ______in Uttar Pradesh, which has an old tradition in weaving special styles
a. Varanasi
b. Kasi
c. Vadodhara
d. Telangana

5. The weavers of West Bengal weave a silk brocaded sari called _______.
a. Baluchar Butedar.
b. Bandha
c. Chandini
d. chunari

6. Gujarat developed its own style of __________.
a. Kinkhwabs
b. Paisley
c. Patola
d. laheri

7. The mango motif, also known as ____________is seen in countless varieties
and color combinations.
a. Paisley
b. Kinkhwabs
c. Patola
d. laheri

8.____________ is the most colorful double Ikat sari made in silk.
a. Bandhani
b. Patola
c. Chunari
d. Laheri

9. In Orissa Ikat saris are called as ____________.
a. Chandini
b. Bandhini
c. Bandha
d. Paisley

10. Pochampalli and chirala in Andhra pradesh have the tradition of cotton Ikat
fabrics called ____________.
a. Lungis
b. Kinkhwabs
c. Telia rumals
d. Patola

11.____________ is the art of embroidery of Punjab.
a. Phulkari
b. Chikankari
c. Kasuti
d. kashida

12.____________is the term used for the embroidery of Karnataka.
a. Kasuti
b. Chikankari
c. Phulkari
d. Kashida

13.____________is the general tern used for embroidery in Kashmir.
a. Kantha
b. Kashida
c. Kasuti
d. Phulkari

Answers
1.a, 2.c, 3.b, 4.a, 5.a, 6.a, 7.b, 8.b, 9.c, 10.c, 11.a, 12.a, 13.d.

PART-B
I Answer the following questions (2Marks)
1. Write different names for embroidery of Gujarat.
2. Name the chain stitch embroidery done with ari- a hook like the cobbler’s use
3. What do you mean by appliqué work?
4. Write poetic names of Dacca fibers

PART-C
II Answer the following questions (3 marks)
1. What do you mean by Baluchar Butedar?
2. Why ashavali sarees are famous? To which region it belongs?
3. What type of weave is used in paithan? Where does paithan is located?
4. Write a note on Bandha.
5. Write a note on dyeing of fabrics in Andhra Pradesh.
6. Write a note on Kasuti.
7. Write a note on Kantha.
8. Write a note on Kashida embroidery.
9. Write characteristic features of chikankari embroidery
10. Write a note on Gujarat embroidery.

PART-D
III Answer the following questions (5 marks)
1. Discuss any two traditional fibers of India
2. Indian craft persons were “the master dyers to the world” explain this.
3. Write a note on Phulkari.
4. Write a note on dyeing of fabrics in Andhra Pradesh
5. Write a note on (a) Kasuti (b)Kantha
6. Write a note on Kashida embroidery.
7. Write characteristic features of chikankari embroidery.
8. Write a note on Gujarat embroidery.

9. Name some of the areas associated with silk brocade weaving. Write the special
characteristics of each.
10. What are the two aspects of cotton production which made the Indian fabrics
world famous ?
11. From which historical sources of information can one learn about the antiquity
of Indian textile art?
12. Write a note on the traditional weaving of Silk

HOTS:
1. A Russian women came to visit embroidery designs in India. (3 marks)
a. Which are places would you suggest them to visits.
b. Name the embroidery designs associated with the places which they visited.

2 Chandana lives in hubli district of Karnataka. It is very hot during summer.
What type of fabrics she should select to wear it for regular use and why?
(3 marks)

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Chapter 8 – Nutrition, Health and Well-being

PART- A
I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given.

1. The weight of a six-month-old baby is _____________ the weight of the
baby at birth.
(a) Three times (b) Double
(c) Equal (d) None of these

2. Name the protein present in mother’s milk, which is easily digestible.
(a) Lactalbumin (b) Casein
(c) Lysozyme (d) All of the above

3. What is the first yellow thick milk from mother called?
(a) Colostrum (b) Cholesterol
(c) Colosteria (d) Casein

4. How much energy does a baby from birth to six months require?
(a) 125 kg / weight (b) 92 kg / weight
(c) 108 kg / weight (d) 215 kg / weight

5. When do you start giving supplementary food to an infant?
(a) 4-6 months (b) 7-8 months
(c) 10-12 months (d) 1-2 years

6. Which vaccine is given to the infant immediately after birth?
(a) O.P.V. (b) D.P.T.
(c) B.C.G. (d) Hepatitis B

7. Name the disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin ‘D’.
(a) Rickets (b) Anemia
(c) Goitre (d) Hepatitis

8. Which disease occurs due to excessive water deficiency in the body?
(a) Malaria (b) Diarrhoea
(c) Diphtheria (d) Scurvy

9. What is the length of an infant during its birth?
a) 50-55cm b) 55-60cm

c) 50-54cm d) 55-56cm

10.Which is considered as low birth weight in infants?
a) 2.5kgs b) less than 2.5kgs
c) More than 2.5kgs. d) Equal to 2.5kgs

11. The mid-day meal scheme (MDMS) implemented by our government provides
free lunch to school children from?
a) Classes I – VIII b) Classes I – IX
C) Classes I – V d) Classes I – VI

12. Which is the best food for low birth weight babies?
a) Cow’s milk b) Mother’s milk
c) Balahar d) Amutham

13. Anemia is caused due to deficiency of ______________
a) Protein b) Iron
c) Calcium d) Potassium

14. The dreaded communicable diseases are
a) Tuberculosis b) Measles
c) Diptheria d) All the above

15. An average secretion of ___________ml of breast milk of well-nourished
mother should provide all the nutrients for first 4-6 months.
a) 840ml b) 850ml
c) 750ml d) 650ml

16. Complementary food should be calorie-dense which should provide at least
_________ % of energy as proteins.
a) 10 % b) 25%
c) 20% d) 50%

17. Win food is made from ___________ millet.
a) Pearl millet b) Finger millet
c) Kodo millet d) Foxtail millet.

18. __________ leads to growth retardation and infections leading to diarrhoea
and dehydration.
a) Malnutrition b) Over nutrition

c) Protein- energy malnutrition d) Deficiency of all macro-nutrients

19. Enlargement of the thyroid gland is the symptom of ____________
deficiency.
a) Iron b) Iodine
c) Calcium d) Phosphorus

20. From ________ age nutritional requirements changes for both boys and girls
of school age children.
a) 10 b) 9
c) 8 d) 6

21. Which food group increases the risk of cardiovascular disease?
a) Fruits and vegetables b) Cereals and grains
c) Pulses and legumes d) fats and sugar.

22. _________ mineral increases the blood pressure in the human body.
a) Calcium b) Sodium
c) Potassium d) Iron

23. Which is NOT an example of breakfast in Southern region _________.
a) Appam b) Paranthas
c) Upma d) Idli

24. Children usually eat well in the company of ___________.
a) Peers b) Relatives
c) Parents d) Enemies.

25. Moderate activity of _______ minutes promotes good health in school
children.
a) 50-60 minutes b) 20-30mintues
c) 45-60 minutes d) 55-60 minutes

Answers
1. (b), 2. (a), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (a), 6. (c), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (a), 10. (b).
11. (a), 12. (b), 13. (d), 14. (d), 15. (b), 16. (a), 17. (a), 18. (c), 19. (b), 20. (b),
21. (d), 22. (b), 23. (b), 24. (a), 25. (c).

PART- B
I. Answer the following question (2Marks)
1. What is immunization?
2. Name six diseases from which immunization protects the Children?
3. Give any two reasons for the change in the diet of the Children with
special needs?
4. Prepare a vaccination table for an infant from birth to 1 year.
5. Provide the full form of B.C.G., O.P.V. and D.P.T.
6. Explain any two causes and two effects of Protein energy malnutrition?
7. What are the three types of dietary supplements?
8. Give two reasons for the requirement of calcium and vitamin ‘A’ for Children?
9. What is the importance of Adequate nutrition?
10. What is complementary foods? Give examples.
11.Mention some of the low cost complementary foods.
12.list the important deficiency diseases that may occur in childhood.
13. Give examples for low cost snacks.

PART- C
II. Answer the following question (3Marks)
1. Which three aspects must be considered while planning a balanced diet for
pre-school children?
2. Describe the healthy eating habits in children.
3. Prepare a vaccination table for pre-school children.
4. What are the nutritional problems of school going children?
5. Explain the Benefits of breast feeding.
6. Chart out the types of complementary foods with examples.
7. What guidelines should be followed during complementary feeding?
8. Analyze how we can plan snacks and meals for a preschooler.
9. Mention the RDA for school age children of 10-12year girl for the following
nutrients,
a) Energy
b) Protein
c) Fat
d) Iron
e) Calcium
f) Vitamin A

PART-D
III. Answer the following question (5Marks)
1. What are the positive effects of the mid-day meal scheme?
2. Confirm the statement “Mother’s milk is the best food for an infant”.
3. Explain the common health and nutrition problems in infants and young
children.
4. Plan a balanced meal for preschool children.
5. Plan a balanced diet for school-age children.
6. What are the reasons for the change in the structure of diet for the children
with special needs?
7. Give five examples of low-cost snacks for pre-school children.

HOTS
1. Your friend Radha’s eyes and nails are mostly yellow and she gets tired
quickly and does not concentrate on her studies. Identify the above
symptoms and tell the name of the disease and how to cure it.
2. Your brother’s 10-year-old’s eating habits constantly change, how will you
identify which factors may be responsible for influencing his eating habit.

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CHAPTER 9- OUR APPAREL

PART- A
I Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1. The word _________ refers to a style whose influence on the masses is
contemporary.
(a) Apparel (c) Shape
(b) Fashion (d) Form

2. Children’s clothes should be ________________.
(a) Tight (b) Artificial
(c) Rough (d) Comfortable

3. ___________ is primary and very essential for infants.
(a) Pant (b) Diaper
(c) Cap (d) Socks

4. At what age are rompers and sun suits most suitable?
(a) 2 years - 6 years (b) 6 months - 1 year
(c) 6 years - 11 years (d) 11 years - 19 years

5. The toddler state is the age of ____________ .
(a) 11 -19 years (b) 6 -11 years
(c) 2 - 6 years (d) 1 - 2 years

6. Fittings and fashion in clothes are very important for,
(a) Teenagers (b) Adults
(c) Children (d) Babies

7. Apparel for children with special needs should have _________.
(a) Single stitching (b) Blind stitching
(c) Double stitching (d) Raw stitching

8. The notions of decorum in textiles and clothing are made by the _____
(a) City (b) Country
(c) Houses (d) Society

9. Infant’s clothes should be more in number because _________.
(a) Infants look beautiful in new clothes.
(b) Infants have to change frequently as they dirty the clothes many times.

(c) Parents spend more on children's clothing.
(d) Parents love to adorn them.
10. The mixture of wool and cotton fabrics is called _________.
(a) Denim (b) Flannel
(c) Jute (d) Nylon

11. The purpose of clothing is ___________.
a) Modesty and protection b) Status and prestige
c) Adornment d) All the above.

12. ___________ is also a sign of status.
a) Clothes b) Money
c) Both a and b d) None of the above.

13. ___________ are forms of body decoration.
a) Ear Piercing b) Nail polishing and tattooing
c) Hair braiding and knotting d) all the above

14. _________ are not dolls to be dressed up and decorated for the satisfaction of
adults.
a) Infants b) Toddlers
c) Both a and b d) only a

15. Concepts of clothing in terms of modesty and protection vary with _______.
a) Occasion b) Activity
c) Time of the day d) All the above.

16.___________ are likely to be taken up by Fads.
a) Adolescent b) Elders
c) Adults d) Womens.

17. Light weight clothes made of __________ fibres are more comfort for
Childrens.
a) Acrylic b) Cotton
c) Polyster d) Silk

18. _________ sleeves provide more freedom for Childrens’.
a) Raglan sleeves b) Set-in-fitted sleeves
c) Regular sleeves d) T-shirt sleeves.

19. _______ and _______ go hand-in-hand for Childrens clothing.
a) Comfort and safety b) Comfort and Easy care
c) Safety and appearance d) Safety and self –help.

20. ___________ colours are preferable for Childrens clothing.
a) Dark colours b) Light colours
c) Bright colours d) gray colours

21. Benefits of choosing knitted fabrics for Childrens are ________
a) Easy to care b) Comfortable to skin
c) Do not wrinkle or oil easily d) All the above

22. A blend of _________ fabrics are having the property of good absorbency.
a) Cotton and Wool b) Cotton and Nylon
c) Cotton and Polyster d) Cotton and silk.

23. At which stage of life, skin is very delicate and demands soft, light weight and
simple–to- put-on or take-off clothes.
a) Infancy b) Toddler
c) Creeping age d) Elementary school age

24. Which of the given below are not the characteristics of diapers?
a) Soft b) Non – Absorbent
c) Quick drying d) easily washed.

25. ____________ undershirt is suitable for warm climates for infants.
a) Cotton b) Wool
c) Polyster d) Acrylic

26. ________ is the stage when the child begins to show signs of independence.
a) Creeping age b) Toddler age
c) Elementary school age d) Pre-school age

27. Why fabrics like knits and seersuckers are excellent for creeping age?
a) Easy to wash b) Do not soil easily
c) Do not require ironing d) Keep body warm.

28. During crawling stage, ____________ shoes can be worned to protect from
cold.
a) Soft-soled b) Hard- soled
c) Spongy shoes d) None of the above.

29. Statement 1 - Children in Pre-school age grow rapidly.
Statement 2 – Clothes during preschool age should be purchased fewer in
number.
a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) Statement 1 is True but statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is False but statement 2 is true

Answers
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (b), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (a), 7. (c), 8. (d), 9. (b), 10. (b)
10.(d), 12. (a), 13. (d), 14. (a), 15. (d), 16. (a), 1. (a), 18. (a), 19. (a), 20. (c)
21. (d), 22. ©, 23. (a), 24. (b), 25. (a), 26. (a), 27. (c), 28. (a), 29. (a).

PART-B

I Answer the following question (2Marks)
1. Why do we buy clothes according to the weather?
2. What types of clothing fabrics are most suitable for infants?
3. While choosing clothes for a two-year-old what should be the characteristics
in the clothing at the time of selection?
4. List functions of clothes.
5. List the factors affecting the selection of clothes in India.
6. In which income group families’ clothes of elder sibling are used for younger
sibling?
7. Clothes can save us from physical bodily harm. Give an example.
8. Give four basic requirements for children’s clothing.
9. Why are self-help garments important for two-year-old children?
10.What is this right fitting shoe for a Toddler?
11. What are Fads?
12.What type of clothes do mothers like for their children?
13.Why should infant clothes not be of pure wool?
14.Why are cotton garments most suitable for preschool children?

PART-C
II Answer the following question (3Marks)
1. What is the significance of shoes in the toddler stage (1-2 years of age) in
children?
2. How should the clothing for preschool children be like?
3. What are the points that should be kept in mind while buying clothes? Explain
any three points in detail.
4. What type of clothes should be selected for crawling children?
5. What type of clothes should be selected for adolescents?
6. Why is the selection of clothes for adolescents considered difficult?

PART-C
III Answer the following question (5Marks)
1. What should be the characteristics of clothing for children with special
need?
2. Explain the various functions of clothes.
3. What should be the type of clothing for adolescents?

HOTS

1. How can you keep a margin for the physical growth in children’s clothing?

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CHAPTER 10 – FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT AND PLANNING

PART-A
I. Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1. The proper utilization of resources to achieve the goals and objectives is called
__________.
(a) Price (b) Plan
(c) Management (d) Investment.

2. Financial management has a general meaning in the context of the family for
the management of ___________.
(a) Income (b) Resources
(c) Business (d) Life

3. _______ provides services and goods to the family members without utilizing
the money.
(a) Indirect income (b) Direct income
(c) Mental income (d) Budget

4. The plan for future expenditure is called ___________ .
(a) Budget (b) Expenditure
(c) Income (d) Salary

5. From __________ we currently receive money and goods, services and pay
them in the future.
(a) Credit (b) Borrowing
(c) Deposit (d) Interest

6. The part of income that we put in a financial scheme or a business institution
and on which we receive interest or dividend is called ________.
(a) Accumulation (b) Investment
(c) Finance (d) Budget

7. The steps of ___________ are mental introspection and accounting.
(a) Bank account (b) Budget
(c) Income (d) Planning

8. It is very important to do ____________ of the plan to keep the plan in the
right direction.
(a) Nomination (b) Evaluation
(c) Expenditure (d) Wastage

9. The share of family income that is saved from the family’s total income to
secure the future is called ___________.
(a) Money (b) Savings
(c) Currency (d) Appropriation

10. Growing vegetables by gardening at home is an example of ________
income.
(a) Direct real Income (b) Indirect real Income
(c) Money Income (d) Spiritual Income

11. ___________ is the component of financial management.
a) Budget b) Financial planning
c) Management d) Money

12. Which are resources included by family resources?
a) Human resource b) Money
c) Hospitals d) all the above

13. The annual income in a financial year is considered from _________.
a) 1st April 2023 to 20 march 2024 b) 1st April 2023 to 20th march 2023
c) 1st April 2023 to 20th may 2024 d) 1st April 2023 to 20th march 2023

14. ___________ is anything which is generally acceptable in exchange of
commodities and in terms of which the value of other commodities is determined.
a) Material goods b) Money
c) Income d) Resource

15. ___________ is a flow of commodities and services available for satisfaction
of human wants and needs over a given period of time.
a) Psychic income b) Money income
c) Real income d) Resource

16.____________ is the satisfaction derived from real income.
a) Real income b) Direct income
c) Indirect income d) Psychic income

17. Meaning of “CREDO” _______________.
a) I believe b) I do not believe
c) I might Believe d) I want to believe
18. How many Cs are present in credits?
a) 2C’s b) 6C’s
c) 4C’s d) 3C’s

19. _____________ is the ability to meet an obligation when it is due.
a) Capacity b) Capital
c) Collateral d) Only a

20. ____________ are the main source of taking credit.
a) Commercial banks b) Cooperative banks
c) Credit unions d) All the above.

Answers
1. (c) , 2. (a), 3.(b), 4. (a), 5. (a), 6. (b), 7. (b), 8. (b), 9. (b), 10. (a),
11 (b), 12. (d), 13. (a), 14. (b), 15. (c), 16. (d), 17. (a), 18. (c), 19. (d) 20. (d).

PART-B
I. Answer the following questions (2marks)
1. What do you understand by Financial Management?
2. What is indirect real income?
3. Define Psychic Income.
4. Write two benefits of household accounts.
5. What do you understand by Fringe Benefits?
6. Define credit.
7. Explain a way to increase psychic income.
8. What are the two main functions of money?
9. List the Cs of credit.
10. Name four benefits of planning a family budget.
11.Explain the difference between fixed expenditure and semi-fixed
expenditure.
12. Explain the difference between money income and direct real income.
13.List Budget Formulation steps.
14. Make a list of four savings and investment options available to an Indian
customer?
15.List the various form of income for a family.

PART-C
II. Answer the following questions (3marks)
1. Why budget is important for a family. Explain and write its advantages
also?
2. Explain the principles underlying sound Investments?
3. Explain the Cs of credit.

PART-D
III. Answer the following questions (5marks)
1. What do you mean by family Income? Explain with example.
2. Explain the steps in making a budget.

HOTS
1. Raju needs money for his business. Tell him about the credit facility and
how the decision to give credit is controlled, Explain?
2. Plan a budget for a housing ceremony of middle income group.

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CHAPTER 11 – CARE AND MAINTANCE OF FABRICS

PART-A

I. Select the correct alternatives from the choices given
1. Which cloth should be washed by suction method?
(a) Shirt (b) Saree
(c) Frock (d) Towel

2. Which element is natural bleach?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Grass
(c) Ammonia (d) Sunlight

3. Which is not a reducing bleaching agent?
(a) Sodium hydrosulphite (b) Sodium bisulphate
(c) Sodium perborate (d) Sodium thiosulphate

4. Which of the following is not a part of the stain removal technique?
a) Scraping (b) Sponging
(c) Suction (d) Drop Method

5. The following is the reagent to harden the garments:
(a) Starch (b) Vinegar
(c) Indigo (d) Javelle solution

6. Which of the following is not a solvent or solvent?
(a) Fuller’s earth (b) Kerosene
(c) Methylated Spirit (d) Carbon tetra chloride

7. Which filament can be easily degraded by a worm?
(a) Polyester (b) Wool
(c) Cotton (d) Nylon

8. Which fibres made of cloth should not use moth balls when storing them?
(a) Cotton (b) Silk
(c) Zari (d) Wool

9. Which of the following are not vegetative spots?
(a) Tea (b) Fruit
(c) Milk (d) Vegetables

10. Which of the following methods is not a part of washing methods?
(a) Friction washing (b) Kneading and squeezing
(c) Suction (d) Use of Blues

11. Final selection and purchase of any product depends on _____________.
a) Appearance b) Quality
c) Functionality d) All the above.

12. __________ is the first procedure in removal of stain.
a) Scraping the stain b) Soaking the fabric.
c) Identification of the stain d) Washing with detergent.

13. Identification of stain is done on the basis of ________.
a) Colour b) Smell
c) Feel d) All the above

14. ____________ stains are removed by grease solvents and absorbents.
a) Oil stains b) Mineral stains
c) Vegetable stains d) None of the above

15. Stains which are protein in nature can be removed only by ___________.
a) Solvents b) Cold water
c) Hot water d) Only b

16.___________ technique involves stretching a cloth over a bowl and adding the
reagent on the stained area with the help of dropper.
a) Scraping b) Dipping
c) Drop method d) Sponging

17. __________ is called as Javelle water.
a) Sodium Perborate b) Sodium hydrosulphite
c) Sodium hypochlorite d) Hydrogen peroxide

18. ________ stain can be removed by using methylated spirit.
a) Blood b) Ballpoint pen c) Candle wax d) Chocolate

19. Stains of paint can be removed by using ___________.
a) Sodium Thiosulphate b) Acetic acid
c) Sodium borate d) Hydrogen peroxide.

20. When cleaning is done by solvents or absorbents it is called as _______.
a) Solvent cleaning
b) Dry cleaning
c) Wet cleaning
d) Detergent cleaning.

21. Soaps and detergents are in ____________ form.
a) Powder b) Flake
c) Bar and liquids d) All the above.

22. Soap or detergents to be used depends on the fibre contents, colour and
__________.
a) Type of dirt on the fabric
b) Nature of the fabric
c) Type of water available
d) None of the above

23. Choose the correct statement for soaps and detergents.
Statement A – Soaps and detergents are surfactants.
Statement B – They reduce surface tension and helps to soak more water leading
to easy removable of dirt.
a) Both A and B are true
b) A is true but B is false
c) Both A and B are false
d) A is false but B is true.

24. Select the correct sequence of Laundering process.
a) Removal of dirt by washing → Preparation to wash →stain removal
→finishing → Pressing.
b) Stain removal→Preparation to wash →removal of dirt by washing→
finishing→ pressing.
c) Preparation to wash→ Stain removal→removal of dirt by washing →
pressing→ finishing.
d) Removal of dirt by washing→stain removal→Preparation to
wash→pressing→finishing.

25. Friction method of washing is suitable for fabrics like_______.
a) Cotton b) Wool c) silk d) all the above.

26. _________ washing method doesn’t harm the texture, colour or weave of the
fabric.
a) Friction
b) Kneading and squeezing
c) Suction washing
d) Machine washing

27. __________ are recommended to counteract yellowness and to restore the
whiteness.
a) Blues b) Starches c) Stiffing agents d) both b and c

28. Choose the correct statement for uses of fluorescent to fabrics.
Statement A – Gives intense brighter whiteness.
Statement B – Counteract both yellowness and grayness.
a) Both A and B are false.
b) Both A and b are true.
c) A is false but B is true.
d) A is true but B is false.

29. Starch is not obtained by ___________.
a) Maida b) rice c) Acacia d) Tapioca

30. Good ironing or pressing requires __________.
a) High temperature b) moisture c) Pressure d) all the above.

Answers
1. (d), 2. (d), 3. (a), 4.(a), 5.(a), 6. (a), 7. (b), 8. (c), 9. (c), 10. (d), 11. (d), 12. (c),
13. (d), 14. (a), 15. (d), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (b), 19. (a), 20. (b), 21. (d), 22. (a),
23. (a), 24. (b), 25. (a), 26. (b), 27. (a), 28. (b), 29. (c), 30. (d)

PART - B
I Answer the following questions (2marks)
1. Name any two solvents that are mainly used for dry clean?
2. What are two types of textile washing machine?
3. Name any two oxidizing bleaches?
4. What are the two main things that need to be kept in mind for the care and
maintenance of garments?
5. What is Pedesis?
6. Which three things are required for ironing?
7. What is Dry cleaning? Name the lubricating solvents used for dry clean.

8. Name any four remnants used to remove stains?
9. Name any four methods of washing?
10.Describe the method of washing the home in steps?
11.What do the following signs mean on the label of a garment?

12. What do you understand by mending the fabric?
13. What are the steps involved in laundering a fabric?

PART – C
II Answer the following questions (3marks)
1. What is dry clean? What type of clothing is recommended for dry cleaning?
2. Mrs. Veena is a house wife. Tell her the six benefits of care and storage of
garments.

PART – D
III Answer the following questions (5marks)
1. After washing, how does the finish improve the brightness and texture
characteristics of the garments.
2. What type of precautions should be taken while collecting synthetic
fabrics? Please tell.
3. Define the word “stain”. What are the different types of spots? What
different types of techniques can be used to remove them?
4. Write down the methods that can be done to remove unknown stains from
textiles.
5. What is dirt How do water soap and detergent remove dirt from clothes?
6. What are the different aspects of care and maintenance of garments?

HOTS
1. Raju is a 4-year- child, who spilled ghee on his cotton shirt.
a) Identify the type of stain. (1M)
b) Explain any two stain removal techniques. (2M)
c) List some of the stain removers / reagents used for stain removal. (2M)

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Study Materials
Notes

Model Papers Class 6 Notes

Sample Papers Class 7 Notes
Half Yearly Sample Papers Class 8 Notes

Class 9 Notes
Important Resources
Class 10 Notes
Periodic Table
Class 11 Notes
Writing Skills / Formats

Maps of India / World Class 12 Notes

Books and Solutions

NCERT Books
NCERT Book Solutions
HC Verma Chapter Wise Solutions
RD Sharma Solutions
CGBSE Solutions